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This course explores the fundamental principles of electricity and magnetism, key pillars of classical physics. Topics include electric fields, magnetic fields, electric potential, Gausss law, Ampères law, Faradays law of electromagnetic induction, and Maxwells equations. Students will examine how electric charges interact, analyze the behavior of circuits, and study the forces and energy associated with electric and magnetic phenomena. Emphasis is placed on conceptual understanding, mathematical formulation, and applications in modern technology and natural phenomena. Laboratory experiments complement theoretical learning, allowing students to observe and quantify electromagnetic effects firsthand.
Recommended Textbook
University Physics with Modern Physics 14th Edition by Hugh D. Young
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Q1) Scientists use the metric system chiefly because it is more accurate than the English system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is 34 + (3)× (1.2465)written with the correct number of significant figures?
A) 37.7
B) 37.74
C) 4 × 10<sup>1</sup>
D) 38
E) 37.7395
Answer: D
Q3) 0)00325 × 10<sup>-8</sup> cm can also be expressed in mm as
A) 3.25 × 10<sup>-12</sup> mm.
B) 3.25 × 10<sup>-11</sup> mm.
C) 3.25 × 10<sup>-10</sup> mm.
D) 3.25 × 10<sup>-9</sup> mm.
E) 3.25 × 10<sup>-8</sup> mm.
Answer: C
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Q1) To determine the height of a flagpole,Abby throws a ball straight up and times it.She sees that the ball goes by the top of the pole after 0.50 s and then reaches the top of the pole again after a total elapsed time of 4.1 s.How high is the pole above the point where the ball was launched? (You can ignore air resistance.)
A) 10 m
B) 13 m
C) 16 m
D) 18 m
E) 26 m
Answer: A
Q2) An object is moving with constant non-zero acceleration along the +x-axis.A graph of the velocity in the x direction as a function of time for this object is
A) a horizontal straight line.
B) a vertical straight line.
C) a straight line making an angle with the time axis.
D) a parabolic curve.
Answer: D
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Q1) Alice and Tom dive from an overhang into the lake below.Tom simply drops straight down from the edge,but Alice takes a running start and jumps with an initial horizontal velocity of 25 m/s.Neither person experiences any significant air resistance.Compare the time it takes each of them to reach the lake below.
A) Alice reaches the surface of the lake first.
B) Tom reaches the surface of the lake first.
C) Alice and Tom will reach the surface of the lake at the same time.
Answer: C
Q2) If you set the cruise control of your car to a certain speed and take a turn,the speed of the car will remain the same.Is the car accelerating?
A) Yes
B) No
Answer: A
Q3) For an object in uniform circular motion,its velocity and acceleration vectors are always perpendicular to each other at every point in the path.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) A box of mass m is pulled with a constant acceleration a along a horizontal frictionless floor by a wire that makes an angle of 15° above the horizontal.If T is the tension in this wire,then
A) T = ma.
B) T > ma.
C) T < ma.
Q2) On a horizontal frictionless floor,a worker of weight 0.900 kN pushes horizontally with a force of 0.200 kN on a box weighing 1.80 kN.As a result of this push,which statement could be true?
A) The box will not move because the push is less than its weight.
B) The worker and box will both have an acceleration of 1.08 m/s<sup>2</sup>, but in opposite directions.
C) The worker and box will both have an acceleration of 2.17 m/s<sup>2</sup>, but in opposite directions.
D) The worker will accelerate at 1.08 m/s<sup>2</sup> and the box will accelerate at 2.17 m/s<sup>2</sup>, but in opposite directions.
E) The worker will accelerate at 2.17 m/s<sup>2</sup> and the box will accelerate at 1.08 m/s<sup>2</sup>, but in opposite directions.
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Q1) A string is attached to the rear-view mirror of a car.A ball is hanging at the other end of the string.The car is driving around in a circle,at a constant speed.Which of the following lists gives all of the forces directly acting on the ball?
A) tension and gravity
B) tension
C) tension, gravity, and the centripetal force
D) tension, gravity, the centripetal force, and friction
Q2) A 1000-kg car is slowly picking up speed as it goes around a horizontal curve whose radius is 100 m.The coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road is 0.350.At what speed will the car begin to skid sideways?
A) 9.25 m/s
B) 23.6 m/s
C) 34.3 m/s
D) 35.0 m/s
E) 18.5 m/s
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Q1) A 3.00-kg ball swings rapidly in a complete vertical circle of radius 2.00 m by a light string that is fixed at one end.The ball moves so fast that the string is always taut and perpendicular to the velocity of the ball.As the ball swings from its lowest point to its highest point
A) the work done on it by gravity and the work done on it by the tension in the string are both equal to -118 J.
B) the work done on it by gravity is -118 J and the work done on it by the tension in the string is +118 J.
C) the work done on it by gravity is +118 J and the work done on it by the tension in the string is -118 J.
D) the work done on it by gravity is -118 J and the work done on it by the tension in the string is zero.
E) the work done on it by gravity and the work done on it by the tension in the string are both equal to zero.
Q2) A 7.0-kg rock is subject to a variable force given by the equation F(x)= 6.0 N - (2.0 N/m)x + (6.0 N/m<sup>2</sup>)x<sup>2</sup>
If the rock initially is at rest at the origin,find its speed when it has moved 9.0 m.
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Q1) A potential energy function for system 1 is given by U<sub>1</sub>(x)= Cx<sup>2</sup> + Bx<sup>3</sup>.The potential energy function for system 2 is given by U<sub>2</sub>(x)= A + Cx<sup>2</sup> + Bx<sup>3</sup>,where A is a positive quantity.How does the force on system 1 relate to the force on system 2 at a given position?
A) The force on the two systems will be in opposite directions.
B) The force is identical on the two systems.
C) The force on the second system will be with less than the force on the first system.
D) There is no relationship between the forces on the two systems.
E) The force on the second system will be with greater than the force on the first system.
Q2) A ball drops some distance and loses 30 J of gravitational potential energy.Do NOT ignore air resistance.How much kinetic energy did the ball gain?
A) more than 30 J
B) exactly 30 J
C) less than 30 J
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Q1) A 2.50-kg stone is dropped from rest at a height of 3.75 m.What impulse does gravity impart to this stone from the instant it is dropped until it hits the ground,assuming negligible air resistance?
Q2) A 2.00-kg object traveling east at 20.0 m/s collides with a 3.00-kg object traveling west at 10.0 m/s.After the collision,the 2.00-kg object has a velocity 5.00 m/s to the west.How much kinetic energy was lost during the collision?
A) 0.000 J
B) 458 J
C) 516 J
D) 91.7 J
E) 175 J
Q3) A 900-kg car traveling east at 15.0 m/s collides with a 750-kg car traveling north at 20.0 m/s.The cars stick together.Assume that any other unbalanced forces are negligible.
(a)What is the speed of the wreckage just after the collision?
(b)In what direction does the wreckage move just after the collision?
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Q1) A 3.45-kg centrifuge takes 100 s to spin up from rest to its final angular speed with constant angular acceleration.A point located 8.00 cm from the axis of rotation of the centrifuge moves with a speed of 150 m/s when the centrifuge is at full speed.
(a)What is the angular acceleration (in rad/s<sup>2</sup>)of the centrifuge as it spins up?
(b)How many revolutions does the centrifuge make as it goes from rest to its final angular speed?
Q2) When you ride a bicycle,in what direction is the angular velocity of the wheels? A) to your left B) to your right C) forwards D) backwards E) up
Q3) A 1.25-kg ball begins rolling from rest with constant angular acceleration down a hill.If it takes 3.60 s for it to make the first complete revolution,how long will it take to make the next complete revolution?
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Q1) A 5.0-m radius playground merry-go-round with a moment of inertia of 2000 kg m<sup>2</sup> is rotating freely with an angular speed of 1.0 rad/s.Two people,each having a mass of 60 kg,are standing right outside the edge of the merry-go-round and step on it with negligible speed.What is the angular speed of the merry-go-round right after the two people have stepped on?
A) 0.20 rad/s
B) 0.40 rad/s
C) 0.60 rad/s
D) 0.80 rad/s
E) 0.67 rad/s
Q2) A solid uniform sphere of mass 1.85 kg and diameter 45.0 cm spins about an axle through its center.Starting with an angular velocity of 2.40 rev/s,it stops after turning through 18.2 rev with uniform acceleration.The net torque acting on this sphere as it is slowing down is closest to
A) 0.00593 N m.
B) 0.0372 N m.
C) 0.0466 N m.
D) 0.0620 N m.
E) 0.149 N m.
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Q1) A 12-L volume of oil is subjected to a pressure change,which produces a volume strain on the oil of -3.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.The bulk modulus of the oil is 6.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup> and is independent of the pressure.What is the pressure change that produced the volume strain in the oil?
A) 1.2 MN/m<sup>2</sup>
B) 1.4 MN/m<sup>2</sup>
C) 1.6 MN/m<sup>2</sup>
D) 1.8 MN/m<sup>2</sup>
E) 2.0 MN/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A light board,10 m long,is supported by two sawhorses,one at one edge of the board and a second at the midpoint.A small 40-N weight is placed between the two sawhorses,3.0 m from the edge and 2.0 m from the center.What forces are exerted by the sawhorses on the board?
Q3) Tensile strain is
A) the ratio of the change in length to the original length.
B) the stress per unit area.
C) the same as force.
D) the applied force per cross-sectional area.
E) the ratio of stress to elastic modulus.
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Q1) If you double the pressure on the surface of a can of water,the buoyant force on a stone placed in that water will
A) increase, but not double.
B) double.
C) decrease, but not by one-half.
D) not change.
Q2) One of the dangers of tornados and hurricanes is the rapid drop in air pressure that is associated with such storms.Assume that the air pressure inside of a sealed house is 1.02 atm when a hurricane hits.The hurricane rapidly decreases the external air pressure to 0.910 atm.A square window in an outside wall of the house measures 2.02 m on each side.What net force (directed outwards)is exerted on this window? (1 atm = 1.01 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa.)
A) 4.53 × 10<sup>4</sup> N
B) 5.14 × 10<sup>4</sup> N
C) 4.78 × 10<sup>5</sup> N
D) 5.37 × 10<sup>5</sup> N
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Q1) A small-sized 155-kg mass is located 1.50 m from a small-sized 275-kg mass,with both masses fixed in place.Where should you place a third small-sized mass so that the net gravitational force on it due to the original two masses is zero?
Q2) A satellite is in circular orbit at an altitude of 1500 km above the surface of a nonrotating planet with an orbital speed of 9.2 km/s.The minimum speed needed to escape from the surface of the planet is 14.9 km/s,and G = 6.67 × 10<sup>-11</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/kg<sup>2</sup>.The orbital period of the satellite is closest to A) 72 min.
B) 65 min.
C) 58 min.
D) 51 min.
E) 44 min.
Q3) A satellite is orbiting the earth.If a payload of material is added until it doubles the satellite's mass,the earth's pull of gravity on this satellite will double but the satellite's orbit will not be affected.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A 2.25-kg object is attached to a horizontal an ideal massless spring on a frictionless table.What should be the spring constant of this spring so that the maximum acceleration of the object will be g when it oscillates with amplitude of 4.50 cm?
Q2) An object that weighs 2.450 N is attached to an ideal massless spring and undergoes simple harmonic oscillations with a period of 0.640 s.What is the spring constant of the spring?
A) 2.45 N/m
B) 12.1 N/m
C) 24.1 N/m
D) 0.102 N/m
E) 0.610 N/m
Q3) A sewing machine needle moves up and down in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 1.27 cm and a frequency of 2.55 Hz.
(a)What is the maximum speed of the needle?
(b)What is the maximum acceleration of the needle?
Q4) An object of mass 6.8 kg is attached to an ideal massless spring of spring constant 1690 N/m.The object is Calculate the maximum speed the object reaches during its motion.
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Q1) A wave pulse traveling to the right along a thin cord reaches a discontinuity where the rope becomes thinner and lighter.What is the orientation of the reflected and transmitted pulses?
A) Both pulses are right side up.
B) The reflected pulse returns right side up while the transmitted pulse is inverted.
C) The reflected pulse returns inverted while the transmitted pulse is right side up.
D) Both pulses are inverted.
Q2) A heavy stone of mass m is hung from the ceiling by a thin 8.25-g wire that is 65.0 cm long.When you gently pluck the upper end of the wire,a pulse travels down the wire and returns 7.84 ms later,having reflected off the lower end.The stone is heavy enough to prevent the lower end of the wire from moving.What is the mass m of the stone?
A) 8.90 kg
B) 23.1 kg
C) 35.6 kg
D) 227 kg
E) 349 kg
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Q1) Two harmonic sound waves reach an observer simultaneously.The observer hears the sound intensity rise and fall with a time of 0.200 s between the maximum intensity and the succeeding minimum intensity.What is the difference in frequency of the two sound waves?
A) 10.0 Hz
B) 0.200 Hz
C) 5.00 Hz
D) 2.50 Hz
E) 1.25 Hz
Q2) Radio station KBOB broadcasts at a frequency of 85.7 MHz on your dial using radio waves that travel at 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s.Since most of the station's audience is due south of the transmitter,the managers of KBOB don't want to waste any energy broadcasting to the east and west.They decide to build two towers,transmitting in phase at exactly the same frequency,aligned on an east-west axis.For engineering reasons,the two towers must be AT LEAST 10.0 m apart.What is the shortest distance between the towers that will eliminate all broadcast power to the east and west?
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Q1) A block of ice at 0.000°C is added to a well-insulated 147-g aluminum calorimeter cup that holds 200 g of water at 10.0°C.The water and aluminum cup are in thermal equilibrium,and the specific heat of aluminum is 910 J/(kg K).If all but 2.00 g of ice melt,what was the original mass of the block of ice? The specific heat of water is 4190 J/(kg K),its latent heat of fusion is 334 kJ/kg,and its latent heat of vaporization is 2260 kJ/kg.
A) 31.1 g
B) 35.6 g
C) 38.8 g
D) 42.0 g
E) 47.6 g
Q2) A cube at 100°C radiates heat at a rate of 80.0 J/s.If its surface temperature is increased to 200°C,the rate at which it will now radiate is closest to A) 160 J/s.
B) 207 J/s.
C) 320 J/s.
D) 640 J/s.
E) 1280 J/s.
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Q1) The root-mean-square speed (thermal speed)of a certain sample of carbon dioxide molecules,with a molecular weight of 44 g/mol,is 396 m/s.What is the root-mean-square speed (thermal speed)of water vapor molecules,with a molecular weight of 18 g/mol,at the same temperature?
A) 253 m/s
B) 396 m/s
C) 421 m/s
D) 506 m/s
E) 619 m/s
Q2) A 5.0-liter gas tank holds 1.7 moles of monatomic helium (He)and 1.10 mole of diatomic oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>),at a temperature of 260 K.The ATOMIC masses of helium and oxygen are 4.0 g/mol and 16.0 g/mol,respectively.What is the ratio of the root-mean-square (thermal)speed of helium to that of oxygen?
A) 1.4
B) 2.0
C) 2.8
D) 4.0
E) 5.6
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Q1) During an isothermal process,5.0 J of heat is removed from an ideal gas.What is the change in internal (thermal)energy of the gas?
A) 0.00 J
B) 2.5 J
C) 5.0 J
D) 7.5 J
E) 10 J
Q2) When a fixed amount of ideal gas goes through an adiabatic expansion,
A) its internal (thermal) energy does not change.
B) the gas does no work.
C) no heat enters or leaves the gas.
D) its temperature cannot change.
E) its pressure must increase.
Q3) An ideal gas is compressed in a well-insulated chamber using a well-insulated piston.This process is A) isochoric.
B) isothermal.
C) adiabatic.
D) isobaric.
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Q1) A Carnot refrigerator takes heat from water at 0°C and rejects heat to a room at 12°C.Suppose that 92.0 grams of water at 0°C are converted to ice at 0°C by the refrigerator.Calculate the mechanical energy that must be supplied to the refrigerator.The heat of fusion of water is 3.34 × 10<sup>5</sup> J/kg.
Q2) An ideal reversible refrigerator keeps its inside compartment at 9.0°C.What is the high temperature,T<sub>h</sub>,needed to give this refrigerator a coefficient of performance of 3.7?
A) 85°C
B) 1052°C
C) 11°C
D) 42°C
Q3) A heat engine with an efficiency of 30.0% performs 2500 J of work.How much heat is discharged to the lower temperature reservoir?
A) 5830 J
B) 8330 J
C) 750 J
D) 1350 J
E) 7080 J
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Q1) Two large,flat,horizontally oriented plates are parallel to each other,a distance d apart.Half way between the two plates the electric field has magnitude E.If the separation of the plates is reduced to d/2 what is the magnitude of the electric field half way between the plates?
A) 4E
B) 2E
C) E
D) 0
E) E/2
Q2) Two identical small conducting spheres are separated by 0.60 m.The spheres carry different amounts of charge and each sphere experiences an attractive electric force of 10.8N.The total charge on the two spheres is -24 C.The two spheres are now connected by a slender conducting wire,which is then removed.The electric force on each sphere is closest to
A) zero.
B) 3.6 N, attractive.
C) 5.4 N, attractive.
D) 3.6 N, repulsive.
E) 5.4 N, repulsive.
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Q1) If a rectangular area is rotated in a uniform electric field from the position where the maximum electric flux goes through it to an orientation where only half the flux goes through it,what has been the angle of rotation?
A) 45°
B) 26.6°
C) 90°
D) 30°
E) 60°
Q2) Consider a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R centered at the origin.A charge Q is placed inside the sphere.To maximize the magnitude of the flux of the electric field through the Gaussian surface,the charge should be located
A) at x = 0, y = 0, z = R/2.
B) at the origin.
C) at x = R/2, y = 0, z = 0.
D) at x = 0, y = R/2, z = 0.
E) The charge can be located anywhere, since flux does not depend on the position of the charge as long as it is inside the sphere.
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Q1) If the electric potential at a point in space is zero,then the electric field at that point must also be zero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A half-ring (semicircle)of uniformly distributed charge Q has radius R.What is the electric potential at its center?
Q3) In a certain region,the electric potential due to a charge distribution is given by the equation V(x,y,z)= 3x<sup>2</sup><sup>y</sup><sup>2</sup> + yz<sup>3</sup>2z<sup>3</sup><sup>x</sup>,where x,y,and z are measured in meters and V is in volts.Calculate the magnitude of the electric field vector at the position (x,y,z)= (1.0,1.0,1.0).
A) 4.3 V/m
B) 2.0 V/m
C) -8.1 V/m
D) 8.6 V/m
E) 74 V/m
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Q1) A 15- F air-filled capacitor is connected to a 50-V voltage source and becomes fully charged.The voltage source is then removed and a slab of dielectric that completely fills the space between the plates is inserted.The dielectric has a dielectric constant of 5.0.
(a)What is the capacitance of the capacitor after the slab has been inserted?
(b)What is the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor after the slab has been inserted?
Q2) A parallel-plate capacitor has plates of area 0.40 m<sup>2</sup> and plate separation of 0.20 mm.The capacitor is connected across a 9.0-V potential source.( <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10<sup>-12</sup> C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup>)
(a)What is the magnitude of the electric field between the plates?
(b)What is the capacitance of the capacitor?
(c)What is the magnitude of the charge on each plate of the capacitor?
Q3) A 1.0- F and a 2.0- F capacitor are connected in series across a 3.0-V voltage source.
(a)What is the charge on the 1.0- F capacitor?
(b)What is the voltage across the 2.0- F capacitor?
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Q1) You are given a copper bar of dimensions 3 cm × 5 cm × 8 cm and asked to attach leads to it in order to make a resistor.
(a)If you want to achieve the SMALLEST possible resistance,you should attach the leads to the opposite faces that measure
A)3 cm × 5 cm.
B)3 cm × 8 cm.
C)5 cm × 8 cm.
D)Any pair of faces produces the same resistance.
(b)If you want to achieve the LARGEST possible resistance,you should attach the leads to the opposite faces that measure
A)3 cm × 5 cm.
B)3 cm × 8 cm.
C)5 cm × 8 cm.
D)Any pair of faces produces the same resistance.
Q2) As current flows through a uniform wire,the wire gets hotter because the electrons stop moving and therefore transform their lost kinetic energy into thermal energy in the wire.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A galvanometer with a resistance of 40.0 deflects full scale at a current of 2.0 mA.What resistance should be used with this galvanometer in order to construct a voltmeter that can read a maximum of 50 V?
A) 25 k
B) 27 k
C) 29 k
D) 31 k
E) 35 k
Q2) What is the maximum current that can be drawn from a 1.50-V battery with an internal resistance of 0.30 ohm?
A) 2.5 A
B) 5.0 A
C) 0.45 A
D) 0.20 A
E) 4.5 A
Q3) Two unknown resistors are connected together.When they are connected in series their equivalent resistance is 15 .When they are connected in parallel,their equivalent resistance is 3.3 .What are the resistances of these resistors?
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Q1) A beam of electrons is accelerated through a potential difference of 10 kV before entering a region having uniform electric and magnetic fields that are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction in which the electron is moving.If the magnetic field in this region has a value of 0.010 T,what magnitude of the electric field is required if the particles are to be undeflected as they pass through the region?
A) 2.3 × 10<sup>3</sup> V/m
B) 7.9 × 10<sup>3</sup> V/m
C) 5.9 × 10<sup>5</sup> V/m
D) 6.0 × 10<sup>5</sup> V/m
E) 7.2 × 10<sup>6</sup> V/m
Q2) An electron,moving toward the west,enters a uniform magnetic field.Because of this field the electron curves upward.The direction of the magnetic field is A) towards the north.
B) towards the south.
C) towards the west.
D) upward.
E) downward.
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Q1) Consider a solenoid of length L,N windings,and radius b (L is much longer than b).A current I is flowing through the wire.If the radius of the solenoid were doubled (becoming 2b),and all other quantities remained the same,the magnetic field inside the solenoid would A) remain the same.
B) become twice as strong. C) become one half as strong.
Q2) At what distance from the central axis of a long straight thin wire carrying a current of 5.0 A is the magnitude of the magnetic field due to the wire equal to the strength of the Earth's magnetic field of about 5.0 × 10<sup>-5</sup> T? ( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10<sup>-7</sup> T m/A)
A) 1.0 cm
B) 2.0 cm
C) 3.0 cm
D) 4.0 cm
E) 5.0 cm
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Q1) A uniform magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the plane of a 60-turn circular coil with a radius of 6.0 cm and a resistance of 0.60 .If the magnetic field increases uniformly from 0.20 T to 1.8 T in 0.20 s,what is the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil?
A) 7.2 V
B) 5.4 V
C) 9.2 V
D) 12 V
E) 16 V
Q2) For a long ideal solenoid having a circular cross-section,the magnetic field strength within the solenoid is given by the equation B(t)= 5.0t T,where t is time in seconds.If the induced electric field outside the solenoid is 1.1 V/m at a distance of 2.0 m from the axis of the solenoid,find the radius of the solenoid.
A) 0.30 m
B) 77 m
C) 0.94 m
D) 9.0 m
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Q1) What is the energy density in the magnetic field 25 cm from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A? ( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10<sup>-7</sup> T m/A)
A) 7.3 × 10<sup>-5</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
B) 3.7 × 10<sup>-5</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
C) 3.6 × 10<sup>-4</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
D) 1.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup> J/m<sup>3</sup>
E) The density cannot be determined without knowing the volume.
Q2) An ideal solenoid is 18.5 cm long,has a circular cross-section 2.20 cm in diameter,and contains 545 equally spaced thin windings.This solenoid is connected in a series circuit with an open switch,a 15.0- resistor,and a battery of internal resistance 5.00 and open-circuit terminal voltage of 25.0 V.( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10<sup>-7</sup> T m/A)
(a)What is the maximum amount of energy that the solenoid will store after closing the switch?
(b)How long after closing the switch will it take for the stored energy in the solenoid to reach one-half of its maximum value?
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Q1) A series LRC circuit consists of a 12.0-mH inductor,a 15.0-µF capacitor,a resistor,and a 110-V (rms)ac voltage source.If the impedance of this circuit is 45.0 at resonance,what is its impedance at a frequency twice the resonance frequency?
Q2) A series circuit consists of ac source,a 90- resistor,a 0.80-H inductor,and an 80- F capacitor.The frequency of the source is adjusted so that the capacitive reactance is equal to twice the inductive reactance.What is the frequency of the source?
A) 14 Hz
B) 13 Hz
C) 16 Hz
D) 17 Hz
E) 19 Hz
Q3) A series circuit has a resistance of 4.0 ,a reactance (due to the capacitance)of 21.0 ,and a reactance (due to the inductance)of 17.0 .Find the impedance of the circuit.
A) 5.7
B) 27
C) 8.0
D) 42
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Q1) In an electromagnetic wave,the electric and magnetic fields are oriented such that they are
A) parallel to one another and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
B) parallel to one another and parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
C) perpendicular to one another and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D) perpendicular to one another and parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
Q2) The magnitude of the electric field at a point P for a certain electromagnetic wave is 570 N/C.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field for that wave at P? (c = 3.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 2.91 µT
B) 1.90 µT
C) 1.10 µT
D) 1.41 µT
E) 2.41 µT
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Q1) Unpolarized light passes through three polarizing filters.The first one is oriented with a horizontal transmission axis,the second filter has its transmission axis 25.7° from the horizontal,and the third one has a vertical transmission axis.What percent of the light gets through this combination of filters?
A) 7.6%
B) 92.4%
C) 50.0%
D) 0.00%
Q2) When light goes from one material into another material having a HIGHER index of refraction,
A) its speed, wavelength, and frequency all decrease.
B) its speed and wavelength decrease, but its frequency stays the same.
C) its speed decreases but its wavelength and frequency both increase.
D) its speed decreases but its frequency and wavelength stay the same.
E) its speed increases, its wavelength decreases, and its frequency stays the same.
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Q1) A singer is farsighted and cannot see objects clearly that are closer than 80.0 cm from his unaided eye.What is the refractive power of the contact lenses that will move his near point to a distance of 25.0 cm from his eye?
A) 2.75 diopters
B) -2.75 diopters
C) -4.72 diopters
D) 4.72 diopters
E) 7.00 diopters
Q2) A nearsighted person has her distant vision corrected using a -2.0-diopter contact lens.Her uncorrected near point is 15 cm.What is her near point using this lens if the lens is 2.0 cm from the eye?
A) 17 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 13 cm
D) 18 cm
E) 15 cm
Q3) A magnifying lens has a focal length of 10 cm.A person has a near point of 25 cm and a far point at infinity.What is the angular magnification of the lens for that person when their eyes are focused at infinity?
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Q1) A puddle of water has a thin film of gasoline floating on it.A beam of light is shining perpendicular on the film.If the wavelength of light incident on the film is 560 nm and the indices of refraction of gasoline and water are 1.40 and 1.33,respectively,what is the minimum thickness of the film to see a bright reflection?
A) 100 nm
B) 200 nm
C) 300 nm
D) 400 nm
E) 500 nm
Q2) White light is incident normally on a thin soap film having an index of refraction of 1.34.It reflects with an interference maximum at 684 nm and an interference minimum at 570 nm with no minima between those two values.The film has air on both sides of it.What is the thickness of the soap film?
A) 766 nm
B) 627 nm
C) 638 nm
D) 894 nm
E) 510 nm
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Q1) Certain planes of a crystal of halite have a spacing of 0.399 nm.The crystal is irradiated by a beam of X-rays.First order constructive interference occurs when the beam makes an angle of 20° with the planes.What is the wavelength of the X-rays?
A) 0.14 nm
B) 0.17 nm
C) 0.21 nm
D) 0.24 nm
E) 0.27 nm
Q2) Light of wavelength 687 nm is incident on a single slit 0.75 mm wide.At what distance from the slit should a screen be placed if the second dark fringe in the diffraction pattern is to be 1.7 mm from the center of the diffraction pattern?
A) 0.39 m
B) 0.47 m
C) 0.93 m
D) 1.1 m
E) 1.9 m
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Q1) An astronaut in an inertial reference frame measures a time interval t between her heartbeats.What will observers in all other inertial reference frames measure for the time interval between her heartbeats?
A) t
B) more than t
C) less than t
D) The answer depends on whether they are moving toward her or away from her.
Q2) At what speed relative to the lab will a 0.272-kg object have the same momentum as a 1.30-kg object that is moving at 0.515c relative to the lab?
A) 0.944c
B) 0.922c
C) 0.981c
D) 0.592c
Q3) An unstable particle is moving at a speed of 2.6 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s relative to a laboratory.Its lifetime is measured by a stationary observer in the laboratory to be 4.7 × 10<sup>-6</sup> seconds.What is the lifetime of the particle,measured in the rest frame of the particle? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
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Q1) Monochromatic light strikes a metal surface and electrons are ejected from the metal.If the intensity of the light is increased,what will happen to the ejection rate and maximum energy of the electrons?
A) greater ejection rate; same maximum energy
B) same ejection rate; greater maximum energy
C) greater ejection rate; greater maximum energy
D) same ejection rate; same maximum energy
Q2) A nonrelativistic electron is confined to a length of 500 pm on the x-axis.What is the kinetic energy of the electron if its speed is equal to the minimum uncertainty possible in its speed? (h = 1.055 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s,m<sub>el</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-3</sup><sup>1</sup> kg,1 eV = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J)
A) 0.00038 eV
B) 0.0038 eV
C) 0.038 eV
D) 0.38 eV
E) 3.8 eV
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Q1) What is the frequency of the light emitted by atomic hydrogen with m = 8 and n = 12?
(The Rydberg constant is R = 1.097 × 10<sup>7</sup> m<sup>-1</sup>,<sup> </sup><sup>c </sup>= 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s.)
A) 2.86 × 10<sup>13</sup> Hz
B) 1.43 × 10<sup>13</sup> Hz
C) 7.46 × 10<sup>13</sup> Hz
D) 8.82 × 10<sup>13</sup> Hz
E) 1.05 × 10<sup>13</sup> Hz
Q2) A perfectly black body at 100°C emits light of intensity I that has the strongest intensity near wavelength .The temperature of this body is now increased to 200°C.
(a)In terms of I,what is the intensity at which this hotter body radiates?
(b)In terms of ,near what wavelength does light radiated from this hotter body have the strongest intensity?
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of laser light? (There may be more than one correct choice.)
A) It is coherent.
B) It is produced by an inverted population of atoms.
C) It contains a full spectrum of wavelengths.
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Q1) An electron is confined in a one-dimensional box (an infinite well).Two adjacent allowed energies of the electron are 1.068 × 10<sup>-18</sup> J and 1.352 × 10<sup>-18</sup> J.What is the length of the box? (h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s,m<sub>el</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg)
A) 1.9 nm
B) 0.93 nm
C) 1.1 nm
D) 2.3 nm
Q2) The wave function for a particle must be normalizable because
A) the particle's momentum must be conserved.
B) the particle's angular momentum must be conserved.
C) the particle's charge must be conserved.
D) the particle must be somewhere.
E) the particle cannot be in two places at the same time.
Q3) If an atom in a crystal is acted upon by a restoring force that is directly proportional to the distance of the atom from its equilibrium position in the crystal,then it is impossible for the atom to have zero kinetic energy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An electron in a hydrogen atom has principal quantum number n = 4.How many possible values of the orbital quantum number l could it have?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 3
D) 4
E) 10
Q2) What is the energy of an incident photon that is just enough to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its n = 4 state?
A) 12.75 eV
B) 10.20 eV
C) 3.40 eV
D) 0.85 eV
Q3) The only VALID electron state and shell designation among the following is A) 1p, K.
B) 2s, K.
C) 1s, L.
D) 2p, L.
E) 3f, M.
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Q1) A rotating diatomic molecule has rotational quantum number l.The energy DIFFERENCE between adjacent energy levels
A) increases as l increases.
B) decreases as l increases.
C) is the same for all changes in l.
D) is independent of l.
Q2) In a p-type semiconductor,a hole is
A) a donor atom.
B) an extra electron supplied by a donor atom.
C) an extra proton supplied by a donor atom.
D) a missing atom in the crystalline structure.
E) a region where an electron is missing.
Q3) For a solid in which the occupation of the energy states is given by the Fermi-Dirac distribution,the probability that a certain state is occupied at a temperature T<sub>0</sub> is 0.70.If the temperature is doubled to 2T<sub>0</sub>,what is the probability that the same state is occupied? Assume that the Fermi energy does not change with temperature.
Q4) A p-type semiconductor has a net positive charge. A)True B)False
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Q1) If a nucleus decays by <sup>+</sup> decay to a daughter nucleus,which of the following statements about this decay are correct? (There may be more than one correct choice.)
A) The daughter nucleus has more protons than the original nucleus.
B) The daughter nucleus has more neutrons than the original nucleus.
C) The daughter nucleus has the same number of nucleons as the original nucleus.
D) The daughter nucleus has fewer protons than the original nucleus.
E) The daughter nucleus has fewer neutrons than the original nucleus.
Q2) A certain isotope has a half-life of 32.4 hr and a relative biological effectiveness of 3.50.
A sample of this isotope initially delivers an absorbed dose of 0.240 Gy to 250 g of tissue. (a)What was the initial equivalent dose to the tissue in rem and in sieverts?
(b)How many joules of energy did the 250-g sample initially receive from the isotope?
Q3) The iron nucleus has the greatest binding energy of any nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If the density of the universe is less than the critical density,then the total energy of the universe is
A) positive.
B) negative.
C) zero.
Q2) The universe first became transparent to most light,coinciding with the origin of the cosmic background radiation,when the universe cooled enough to allow the formation of
A) protons and neutrons.
B) atomic nuclei.
C) neutral atoms.
D) stars and galaxies.
Q3) Consider the decay <sup>+</sup> <sup>+</sup> + .This decay is A) allowed.
B) forbidden because conservation of energy is violated.
C) forbidden because conservation of baryon number is violated.
D) forbidden because conservation of mass is violated.
E) forbidden because conservation of lepton numbers is violated.
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