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Educational Psychology explores the scientific study of how people learn and develop in educational settings. This course examines theories of cognitive, emotional, and social development as they relate to learning processes, motivation, classroom management, assessment, and individual differences among learners. Through analysis of research and practical applications, students will gain insights into the factors that influence academic achievement and behavior, enabling them to better understand and support diverse learners in a range of educational environments.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by
Laura E. Berk
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Q1) G. Stanley Hall and his student Arnold Gesell __________.
A) discovered that prenatal growth is strikingly similar in many species
B) launched the normative approach
C) constructed the first standardized intelligence test
D) were the forefathers of psychoanalytic theory
Answer: B
Q2) Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen laid the modern foundations for __________.
A) ethology
B) social learning theory
C) psychoanalytic theory
D) cognitive-developmental theory
Answer: A
Q3) Students who are foreign-born or first-generation Americans __________ than students of native-born parents.
A) are more likely to commit delinquent and violent acts
B) are more likely to be obese
C) often achieve in school as well as or better
D) tend to report lower self-esteem
Answer: C
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Q1) In the United States, public policies safeguarding __________ lag behind policies for __________.
A) older adults; children and youths
B) children and youths; older adults
C) older adults; extended families
D) school-age children; preschool children
Answer: B
Q2) A zygote that separates into two clusters of cells instead of just one produces
A) identical twins
B) dizygotic twins
C) triplets
D) homozygous offspring
Answer: A
Q3) Senior citizens in the United States today are __________.
A) less likely than seniors in other Western nations to be poverty-stricken
B) more likely than other age groups to be among the "near poor"
C) less likely than children to attract the support of politicians
D) less likely to be healthy and independent than in the past
Answer: B
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Q1) If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum shrinks, and the __________.
A) cells begin to duplicate
B) one-celled zygote multiplies and forms a blastocyst
C) germinal period begins
D) lining of the uterus is discarded
Answer: D
Q2) __________ are a strong type of painkiller used in labor and delivery that block sensation.
A) Anesthetics
B) Analgesics
C) Anti-inflammatories
D) Folic acids
Answer: A
Q3) Which statement is supported by research on newborn taste preferences?
A) Newborns cannot distinguish basic tastes.
B) The mother's diet during pregnancy has an influence on a newborn's preferences.
C) Newborns prefer the taste of formula to breast milk.
D) Unlike adults, babies relax their facial muscles in response to sour tastes.
Answer: B

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Q1) Regina and Cassie adopted Chelsea from an orphanage in Argentina. Three years after her adoption, Chelsea displays abnormally low cortisol. This is a sign of
A) impaired capacity to manage stress
B) cognitive catch-up
C) a serious intellectual deficit
D) delayed physical growth
Q2) The process of __________ coats the neural fibers with an insulating fatty sheath, which improves the efficiency of message transfer.
A) myelination
B) neuroimaging
C) synaptic pruning
D) neurotransmission
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill?
A) grasping
B) crawling
C) walking
D) standing
Q4) What influence does heredity have on physical growth?
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Q5) Explain intermodal perception and its importance to perceptual development.

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Q1) In the information-processing system, information first enters the __________.
A) central executive
B) short-term memory store
C) sensory register
D) long-term memory store
Q2) According to Vygotsky, children master activities through __________.
A) joint activities with more mature members of their society
B) interaction with the physical environment
C) operant conditioning and modeling
D) trial and error
Q3) Baby Andrew accidentally kicked his mobile, producing music. Andrew then repeatedly kicked his leg to repeat the effect, gradually forming a new kicking scheme. Andrew was in which of Piaget's sensorimotor substages?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) What are the two main problems that modern researchers have with Piaget's sensorimotor stage? What are his contributions to the field of research on infant cognition?
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Q1) Baby Sabrina's first laugh will probably appear around __________.
A) 3 to 4 weeks
B) 6 to 8 weeks
C) 3 to 4 months
D) 6 to 8 months
Q2) Baby Aiden smiles, laughs, and babbles freely when interacting with his mother and quiets quickly when she picks him up. He does not protest when separated from her. According to Bowlby, Aiden is in the __________ phase.
A) preattachment
B) "attachment-in-the-making"
C) "clear-cut" attachment
D) formation of a reciprocal relationship
Q3) Between 12 and 18 months, toddlers first become capable of __________.
A) intermodal perception
B) an internal working model
C) compliance
D) goodness of fit
Q4) Describe the development of explicit self-awareness. Include discussion of the concepts of self-recognition and scale errors.
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Q1) Four-year-old Brigid is likely to use more __________ when she is confused about how to proceed.
A) animistic thinking
B) hierarchical classification
C) private speech
D) magical thinking
Q2) Jenny is considering choosing not to immunize her newborn son due to a suggested link between a mercury-based preservative used in vaccines and autism. Jenny should know that large-scale studies show __________ association with autism.
A) no
B) weak
C) modest
D) strong
Q3) Between the ages of 2 and 6, __________.
A) individual differences in body size become less apparent than in infancy and toddlerhood
B) children grow more quickly than in infancy and toddlerhood
C) approximately 45 new epiphyses emerge in various parts of the skeleton
D) girls continue to be slightly taller, heavier, and more muscular than boys
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Q1) Caregivers who view play as mere entertainment are __________ likely to
A) more; provide props than those who value its cognitive benefits
B) more; have children who have rich imaginations than those who view play as developmentally beneficial
C) less; encourage associative play than to encourage parallel play
D) less; encourage pretend play than those who value its cognitive and social benefits
Q2) Maltreating parents __________.
A) are more skillful in handling discipline confrontations
B) react to stressful situations with very low emotional arousal
C) suffer from biased thinking about their child
D) feel superior in parenting
Q3) Erikson's image of __________ captures the diverse changes in young children's emotional and social lives.
A) the superego
B) mistrust
C) initiative
D) psychosexual stages
Q4) Discuss factors within the family that heighten the risk of child maltreatment.
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Q1) Which intellectual factor of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, is the most likely to contain culturally biased problems?
A) visual-spatial processing
B) quantitative reasoning
C) working memory
D) basic information processing
Q2) Quinn knows that she should group items when memorizing lists, but she does not always do so. Quinn is not yet good at __________.
A) metacognition
B) selective attention
C) cognitive self-regulation
D) flexibility of attention
Q3) Which statement about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is true?
A) All children with ADHD are hyperactive.
B) Fraternal twins are more likely than identical twins to share ADHD.
C) Boys are diagnosed with ADHD two to three times as often as girls.
D) For a child to be diagnosed with ADHD, symptoms must appear before age 5.
Q4) Discuss the impact of culture and schooling on the development of concrete operational thought.
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Q1) Titus feels similar to other boys. Titus is __________.
A) gender atypical
B) gender dysphoric
C) gender typical
D) androgynous
Q2) Ten-year-old Lakisha is likely to experience __________ even when no adult is present.
A) guilt for any mishap
B) intense shame over a transgression
C) helplessness upon failure
D) pride in a new accomplishment
Q3) During middle childhood, __________.
A) fathers engage in as much caregiving as mothers
B) fathers spend more time than mothers with school-age children
C) both parents spend more time with girls than with boys
D) both parents tend to devote more time to children of their own sex
Q4) Describe the characteristics of popular children, distinguishing between prosocial and antisocial children.
Q5) What factors foster resilience in middle childhood?
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Q1) What can parents and teachers do to help adolescents adjust to middle and high school transitions?
Q2) Disturbed eating is highest in __________.
A) Asia
B) the Middle East
C) Western nations
D) Africa
Q3) Brian is a star high school athlete who has recently exhibited severe mood swings and aggressiveness. An initial health screening indicates that Brian has acne, excess body hair, and high blood pressure. Brian's symptoms are consistent with __________.
A) delayed puberty
B) sexual maturation
C) physical self-efficacy
D) anabolic steroid use
Q4) Girls __________ are more likely to develop lesbian or bisexual orientations.
A) who are later in birth order
B) exposed prenatally to very high levels of androgens or estrogens
C) who have a higher-than-average number of older brothers
D) who are gender-deviant in dress or behavior
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Q1) Throughout adolescence, __________ is the single most consistent predictor of mental health.
A) the quality of the parent-child relationship
B) academic achievement
C) clique membership
D) moral development
Q2) Adolescents who __________ are advanced in moral reasoning.
A) have parents who permit them to make all their own decisions
B) more often participate in conversations with their friends
C) have more homogeneous friendships and school communities
D) have parents who ask fewer clarifying questions
Q3) Very high social media use is linked to __________.
A) high-quality face-to-face relationships
B) boredom and depression
C) feelings of connectedness
D) a decline in mental health problems
Q4) Describe how sibling interactions adapt to development at adolescence.
Q5) Define and discuss moral identity. What are some factors that strengthen moral identity?
Q6) Discuss gender differences in friendship quality in adolescence. Page 14
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Q1) Regena, age 50, is likely to have __________ than 25-year-old Owen.
A) a smaller thymus
B) softer artery walls
C) more fast-twitch muscle fibers
D) thicker cartilage in the joints
Q2) __________ may heighten the effects of a high-fat diet.
A) Sex hormones
B) Over-the-counter medications
C) Free radicals
D) Low body weight
Q3) Clifton has developed master-level creativity. This means that Clifton probably
A) is able to dismiss information that appears irrelevant at first glance
B) has the capacity to think intuitively with a reduced filter
C) is open to new experiences and intolerant of ambiguity
D) is driven to succeed and unwilling to try again after failure
Q4) Briefly describe the psychological impact of attending college.
Q5) List and describe the three periods of vocational development.
Q6) How does psychological stress affect health in early adulthood?
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Q1) The majority of women with children are __________.
A) stay-at-home moms
B) work-at-home moms
C) in the work force
D) earning more than their spouses
Q2) College students of Asian heritage are more likely than their Western counterparts to endorse a view of love strongly based on __________.
A) companionship
B) physical attraction
C) passion and romance
D) deep emotion
Q3) In families with five to ten siblings, __________.
A) intimacy is more important than commitment
B) sibling bonds are weaker than in small families
C) close sibling bonds may replace friendships
D) friends are preferred confidants over siblings
Q4) Describe the gender differences in same-sex adult friendships.
Q5) Discuss factors that contribute to the widespread, persistent gender pay gap in the United States.
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Q1) Which sign of aging of the skin usually occurs first?
A) the appearance of "crow's feet" around the eyes
B) the appearance of numerous "age spots"
C) development of lines on the forehead
D) an increase in visible blood vessels
Q2) More than half of U.S. middle-aged adults __________.
A) are sedentary
B) engage in the nationally recommended level of leisure-time physical activity
C) engage in the nationally recommended levels of resistance exercises
D) devote energy each week to leisure-time physical activities
Q3) Lester is approaching age 50. He can anticipate an accumulation of fat in which areas of his body?
A) face and legs
B) lower abdomen and face
C) waist and upper arms
D) back and upper abdomen
Q4) Discuss the changes that the skin undergoes during the aging process.
Q5) Describe the Type A behavior pattern. How does it affect health?
Q6) What is hardiness? How do hardy individuals cope with stress?
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Q1) Which grandparent is likely to report more frequent visits with grandchildren?
A) Rivka, a paternal grandmother
B) Devon, a paternal grandfather
C) Lashawn, a maternal grandmother
D) Harry, a maternal grandfather
Q2) Which statement is true about middle-aged children and their aging parents?
A) The number of middle-aged Americans with at least one living parent has dropped dramatically.
B) Adults of past generations were more devoted than today's middle-aged adults to their aging parents.
C) A longer life expectancy means that adult children and their parents are increasingly likely to grow old together.
D) Proximity decreases with age: Middle-aged children who move tend to go farther away from their aging parents.
Q3) Burnout __________.
A) is associated with a lack of work assignments to fill the day
B) occurs more often in routine, physically demanding jobs
C) is associated with excessive feedback from supervisors
D) occurs more often in the helping professions
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Q1) Which statement is true about the types of lifelong learning programs available to older adults?
A) Continuing education programs for older adults primarily cater to those with little education and limited income.
B) The Road Scholar program originated in France and provides Western Europeans with campus-based programs.
C) Osher Lifelong Learning Institutes are located on more than 120 U.S. university campuses.
D) The University of the Third Age attracts nearly 100,000 American and Canadian older adults.
Q2) Once people pass __________ years, the contribution of heredity to length of life decreases in favor of environmental factors.
A) 45 to 50
B) 55 to 60
C) 65 to 70
D) 75 to 80
Q3) Define and describe ADLs and IADLs. What percentage of U.S. older adults have limitations carrying out these activities?
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Q1) Marlon, an extraverted 75-year-old, reminisces about his wife, who passed away when Marlon was 56. He enjoys reliving his relationship with his wife. Marlon engages in __________ reminiscence.
A) self-focused
B) other-focused
C) knowledge-based
D) negative-based
Q2) According to George Vaillant, which factor outweighs the others with regard to predicting a happy, active old age?
A) parental SES
B) family warmth in childhood
C) effective coping strategies
D) early physical health
Q3) Describe George Vaillant's findings regarding successful aging.
Q4) Older adults emphasize the __________ function of interaction.
A) information-seeking
B) emotion-regulating
C) self-affirmation
D) networking

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Q5) Discuss the concept of gerotranscendence.
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Q1) Most Americans say they hope to die __________.
A) in a hospital
B) in a nursing home
C) in a family member's home
D) at home
Q2) Adjusting to a sudden death is easier when the survivor __________.
A) understands the reasons for it
B) concludes that he or she contributed to it
C) believes that it was random
D) assumes that it was preventable
Q3) Which statement is true about hospice care?
A) On-call services are usually available from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m., Monday through Friday.
B) Hospice programs do not typically provide palliative care.
C) Follow-up bereavement services are typically offered to families in the year after a death.
D) The patient is kept in a hospital-like setting where end-of-life medical intervention is likely.
Q4) What is medical aid-in-dying? Is it legal in the United States?
Q5) What is bereavement overload? Who is at risk for it?
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