
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Educational Psychology explores the principles, theories, and research that underpin effective teaching and learning in diverse educational settings. The course examines how students acquire knowledge, develop skills, and are motivated to learn, with a focus on cognitive, behavioral, and social-emotional development. Topics include learning theories, individual differences, assessment methods, classroom management strategies, and the role of motivation in achievement. By applying psychological concepts to real-world educational challenges, students gain insights into optimizing instruction, fostering inclusive environments, and supporting student success.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 3rd edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Nonnormative influences
A) are typical or average.
B) affect large numbers of people in a similar way.
C) do not follow a predictable timetable.
D) include age-graded and history-graded influences.
Answer: C
Q2) Two main types of designs used in all research on human behavior are __________ and __________.
A) correlational; experimental
B) variable; observational
C) observational; correlational
D) observational; experimental
Answer: A
Q3) Piaget convinced the field that children are A) blank slates.
B) like flowers because their maturation unfolds automatically.
C) active learners.
D) cognitively mature in early adolescence.
Answer: C
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Q1) Sickle cell anemia
A) occurs in full form when a child inherits two recessive genes.
B) can be treated during infancy if the child is placed on a diet that is low in phenylalanine.
C) affects more males than females.
D) is a heterozygous condition present in many Jews of European descent.
Answer: A
Q2) An intellectually gifted child's choice to participate in chess club is an example of A) a subculture.
B) reaction range.
C) niche-picking.
D) epigenesis.
Answer: C
Q3) Which age group is likely to do more niche-picking?
A) elementary school children
B) preschoolers
C) infants
D) adolescents
Answer: D
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Q1) In the last weeks of pregnancy,
A) the fetus usually loses a pound or two.
B) most fetuses assume an upside-down position.
C) fetal growth increases dramatically.
D) the fetus begins relying on its own well-developed immune system.
Answer: B
Q2) Janelle is a first-time mother.The first stage of her labor will probably last between __________ hours.
A) 2 and 4
B) 5 and 7
C) 8 and 10
D) 12 and 14
Answer: D
Q3) Natural,or prepared,childbirth includes
A) routine use of strong drugs.
B) classes about the anatomy and physiology of labor and delivery.
C) fetal monitoring and anesthetics.
D) a surgical birth.
Answer: B

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Q1) In intermodal perception,
A) babies learn to judge the distance of objects from one another.
B) infants respond to the separate parts of a pattern.
C) babies prefer any stimulus in which the most salient features are arranged horizontally in the upper part of a pattern.
D) babies make sense of visual, auditory, tactile, odor, and taste information, perceiving them as integrated wholes.
Q2) Mia,age 3,is about to undergo a neurobiological exam.The doctor wishes to examine the functioning of Mia's cerebral cortex to measure blood flow and oxygen metabolism.The best method for the doctor to choose in Mia's case is probably
A) an electroencephalogram (EEG).
B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).
C) positron emission tomography (PET).
D) near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS).
Q3) The __________ accounts for 85 percent of the brain's weight.
A) cerebellum
B) cerebrum
C) corpus callosum
D) cerebral cortex

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Q1) Which of the following statements about cooing and babbling is true?
A) Before babies say their first words, they make little language progress.
B) Babies everywhere start babbling at about the same age and produce a similar range of early sounds.
C) Babies typically begin babbling around 2 months and cooing around 6 months.
D) A deaf infant does not coo or babble.
Q2) When parents __________,infants and toddlers are likely to be distractible,play immaturely,and do poorly on mental tests.
A) bombard children with directions
B) are warm and responsive
C) initiate make-believe play
D) work long hours
Q3) Baby Daxton points to the cookie jar when he wants a cookie.Daxton is demonstrating a(n)
A) preverbal gesture.
B) overextension.
C) underextension. D) babble.
Q4) Define and describe the Piagetian concept of schemes.
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Q5) Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the information-processing perspective.

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Q1) In diverse cultures and SES groups,insecurely attached infants tend to have mothers who
A) respond promptly and consistently.
B) are resentful or rejecting.
C) engage in more physical contact.
D) hold them tenderly and carefully.
Q2) __________ tend to show excessive fearfulness and slow,constricted behavior in the late preschool and school years.
A) Slow-to-warm-up children
B) Difficult children
C) Easy children
D) Children who do not fit in any of Thomas and Chess's temperament categories
Q3) Persistent paternal depression
A) strongly predicts child behavior problems-especially overactivity, defiance, and aggression in boys.
B) rarely has a lasting impact on the child, unless it lasts for five or more years.
C) requires long-term treatment in a facility for a full recovery.
D) is linked to low levels of the stress hormone cortisol in children.
Q4) How does paternal depression affect child development?
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Q1) Vygotsky saw __________ play as the ideal social context for fostering cognitive development in early childhood.
A) outdoor
B) make-believe
C) parallel
D) cooperative
Q2) The years from 2 to 6 are often called "the __________ years."
A) play
B) growth
C) difficult
D) thinking
Q3) Conservation refers to the
A) failure to distinguish others' symbolic viewpoints from one's own.
B) belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities, such as thoughts, wishes, feelings, and intentions.
C) inability to mentally go through a series of steps and then reverse direction, returning to the starting point.
D) idea that certain physical characteristics of objects remain the same, even when their outward appearance changes.
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Q1) Research on emotional understanding shows that preschoolers
A) cannot correctly judge the causes of many basic emotions.
B) cannot predict what a playmate expressing a certain emotion might do next.
C) come up with effective ways to relieve others' negative feelings.
D) do not realize that thinking and feeling are interconnected.
Q2) As the ability to take another's perspective improves,
A) children rely less on words to convey empathetic feelings.
B) the tendency to focus on one's own anxiety increases.
C) sympathetic feelings decrease.
D) empathic responding increases.
Q3) If you ask preschoolers to describe themselves,they usually
A) give personality traits and characteristics, such as being friendly, kind, helpful, and smart.
B) give concrete descriptions that include physical appearance, possessions, and everyday behaviors.
C) compare themselves to people they know, such as parents, siblings, or peers.
D) describe themselves differently each time you ask the question.
Q4) Describe two distinct purposes and three distinct forms of aggression.
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Q5) How do parents influence gender typing in early childhood?
Q6) Describe first friendships.How do preschoolers describe friends?
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Q1) Selena and Steve want their son,Manny,to attain full proficiency in English and Spanish.To achieve this goal,Manny's mastery of the second language should begin
A) in early adulthood.
B) in early adolescence.
C) in late adolescence.
D) sometime in childhood.
Q2) Howie solves arithmetic word problems but rarely draws pictures.According to Case's neo-Piagetian theory,Howie probably displays __________ thinking in
A) more advanced; solving word problems
B) egocentric; solving word problems
C) more advanced; drawing
D) egocentric; both drawing and solving word problems
Q3) U.S.legislation mandates that schools place children who require special supports for learning in __________ that meet their educational needs.
A) multigrade classrooms
B) the "least restrictive" environments
C) fully inclusive classrooms
D) segregated environments

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Q1) Eight-year-old Jennifer,an African American,describes the white,wealthier girls in her school as "pretty," "smart," and "nice," whereas she describes the black,poorer girls as "bossy," "average," and "chubby." Jennifer is expressing
A) in-group favoritism.
B) out-group prejudice.
C) in-group prejudice.
D) out-group favoritism.
Q2) Children and adolescents who __________ have fewer self-esteem problems.
A) attend schools where their SES and ethnic groups are well-represented
B) attend schools in high-SES neighborhoods, regardless of their own SES,
C) have permissive parents
D) spend longer hours in child care
Q3) Sibling rivalry can be reduced if
A) parents make an effort not to compare their children.
B) children know that sibling conflict in the home will lead to punishment.
C) the mother pays attention to one child and the father pays attention to the other child.
D) children are encouraged to develop common activities and interests.
Q4) Describe how child-rearing practices affect the development of self-esteem.
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Q1) Teenagers are __________ effective than adults at decision making under __________ conditions.
A) more; unemotional
B) more; emotional
C) less; unemotional
D) more; all
Q2) Longitudinal research following thousands of U.S.students from eighth to twelfth grade reveals that assignment to a __________ track accelerates academic progress.
A) college preparatory
B) vocational
C) general education
D) remedial
Q3) Adolescents develop scientific reasoning skills
A) through rote memorization.
B) as the result of an abrupt, stagewise change.
C) through direct instruction from adults and more expert peers.
D) through exposure to many experiences that require them to match theories against evidence.
Q4) Discuss the role of sleep in adolescent development.
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Q1) The suicide rate
A) decreases from middle childhood to early adolescence.
B) jumps sharply at adolescence.
C) decreases from adolescence to adulthood.
D) in the United States is low among industrialized nations.
Q2) Crowd membership is based on
A) family background.
B) reputation.
C) emotional closeness.
D) physical appearance.
Q3) At Kohlberg's Stage 6 of moral development,individuals
A) become aware that people can have different perspectives in a moral dilemma.
B) believe that laws should not be disobeyed because they are vital for ensuring societal order.
C) regard laws and rules as flexible instruments for furthering human purposes. D) typically mention such principles as respect for the worth and dignity of each person.
Q4) Define gender intensification.Explain the role of gender typing and androgyny in adolescent development.
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Q5) Discuss the impact of religious involvement on moral development in adolescence.

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Q1) Saturated fat is
A) liquid at room temperature.
B) derived from vegetables.
C) derived from meat and dairy products. D) derived from fish.
Q2) The rate of death from heart disease among African Americans is
that of Caucasian Americans.
A) far lower than B) slightly lower than C) equal to D) higher than
Q3) Obesity
A) rates are declining in the United States.
B) is on the rise in the developing world.
C) affects more than half of Americans.
D) rates slowly decline between ages 20 and 65.
Q4) Discuss the prevalence of alcoholism in the United States.What are the risk factors for alcoholism?
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Q5) List and describe five features of obesity treatment programs that promote lasting behavior change.

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Q1) In families with five to ten siblings,
A) intimacy is more important than commitment.
B) sibling bonds are usually weaker in adulthood.
C) loneliness is common even among the married siblings.
D) close sibling bonds may replace friendships.
Q2) As workers in their twenties become aware of the gap between their expectations and reality,they
A) change jobs often.
B) hit the glass ceiling.
C) experience role confusion.
D) lower their expectations.
Q3) Until the 1960s,__________ in Western nations was largely limited to low-SES adults.
A) singlehood
B) cohabitation
C) marrying young
D) having children before age 25
Q4) Discuss career development in early adulthood,focusing on career establishment.
Q6) Discuss the changes that adolescence brings to parenthood. Page 17
Q5) Discuss the social clock.How does following a social clock impact development?
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Q1) Some theorists believe that a general slowing of __________ underlies nearly all age-related declines in cognitive performance.
A) processing speed
B) synaptic connections
C) verbal IQ
D) central nervous system functioning
Q2) Because older adults find ways to compensate for cognitive slowing on familiar tasks,their reaction time
A) is considerably better on verbal items.
B) is somewhat better on nonverbal items.
C) cannot be improved through training.
D) is slower on familiar tasks.
Q3) The __________ their reaction time,the lower people's scores on tests of
A) faster; memory
B) faster; reasoning
C) faster; problem solving
D) slower; memory, reasoning, and problem solving
Q4) What is hardiness? How do hardy individuals cope with stress?
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Q5) Discuss changes to creativity that individuals experience in the aging process.

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Q1) For the first time in her career,43-year-old Schuyler is truly satisfied with her job.Which of the following aspects of Schuyler's job satisfaction is the most likely to have improved?
A) contentment with pay
B) satisfaction with promotions
C) happiness with the work itself
D) contentment with supervision
Q2) Drew loves being perceived by his grandchildren as a wise,helpful person.Which of the following grandparent gratifications is probably most important to him?
A) valued elder
B) immortality through descendants
C) reinvolvement with personal past
D) indulgence
Q3) In longitudinal research,__________ became more independent by their early forties,regardless of whether they had children.
A) homemakers
B) working women with no college education
C) unemployed adults of both genders
D) college-educated women in the labor force
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Q1) In older adults,
A) exercise can aggravate the age-related decline in the immune response.
B) even a strong immune system does little to protect against common illnesses.
C) as the immune system ages, T cells become more effective, attacking foreign substances directly.
D) the immune system is more likely to turn against normal body tissue in an autoimmune response.
Q2) Betty,age 77,needs assistance with food preparation,housekeeping,and paying her bills.Betty cannot carry out some
A) instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs).
B) activities of daily living (ADLs).
C) primary activities of active functioning (PAAFs).
D) secondary activities of active functioning (SAAFs).
Q3) The majority of older adults rate their health favorably because
A) most of them are still in excellent health.
B) they compare themselves to their same-age peers.
C) they are too embarrassed to reveal their ailments.
D) they realize that things could always be worse.
Q4) Discuss the impact that falls can have in late adulthood.
Q5) How much sleep do older adults require? Discuss insomnia in late adulthood.
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Q1) On Wednesdays,Cheryl meets a group of other women at the community center to play cards.Other than Cheryl's one close friend in the group,these associates are her __________ friends.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) joint
Q2) Which of the following statements about volunteering in late adulthood is true?
A) Only about 10 percent of 60- to 70-year-olds in industrialized nations report volunteering.
B) Older adults with less education and lower incomes are the most likely to volunteer.
C) Of older adults who volunteer, over half give 200 or more hours per year.
D) Time spent volunteering usually begins to decline by age 60.
Q3) The Second Age
A) is childhood and adolescence.
B) is the adult period of earning a living and rearing children.
C) is a time of personal fulfillment.
D) brings physical decline and need for care.
Q4) Discuss the practice of life review in late adulthood.
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Q1) __________ care relieves pain and other symptoms rather than prolonging life.
A) Hospital
B) Palliative
C) Intensive
D) Skilled
Q2) When Tom's husband,Joe,died,Joe's relatives barred Tom from attending the funeral.Tom is at risk for
A) anticipatory grieving.
B) unestablished bereavement.
C) bereavement overload.
D) disenfranchised grief.
Q3) In industrialized countries,
A) most people die in the presence of loved ones rather than surrounded by doctors and nurses.
B) people usually die at home where family members attend their last moments.
C) opportunities to witness the physical aspects of death are less available today than in previous generations.
D) most people do not want to know how we die or grasp what is happening to a dying loved one.
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