Educational Psychology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Educational Psychology explores the scientific study of how people learn and develop within educational settings. The course examines theories of cognitive, emotional, and social development, as well as the processes that underlie motivation, memory, and problem-solving. Students will analyze individual differences, classroom dynamics, assessment techniques, and the impact of culture and environment on learning. Through case studies and research applications, this course prepares future educators to create effective, inclusive, and supportive learning environments tailored to diverse learners needs.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 4th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
1520 Verified Questions
1520 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychosexual theory of development is similar to the psychosocial theory of development in that:
A) both theories assert that human development is a continuous, lifelong process with little or no gaps.
B) both theories suggest that a child's experiences during early stages affect the child's emotional and social life at the time and later on.
C) both theories believe that a child or adult's behavior is learned.
D) both theories suggest that adaptation and natural selection are connected with behavior.
Answer: B
Q2) John Locke is most likely to agree with the fact that:
A) children are born innately good.
B) children are born innately evil.
C) children are influenced by their experiences.
D) Children are indifferent to their surroundings.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the effects of both alleles are shown, there is said to be:
A) codominance.
B) preponderance.
C) ascendance.
D) concurrence.
Answer: A
Q2) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked abnormality.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following individuals is most likely to have Tay-Sachs disease?
A) Avner, a 4-year-old child of Jewish descent
B) Connard, a 55-year-old African American
C) Shaina, a 17-year-old Asian American
D) Mateo, a 20-year-old Hispanic male student
Answer: A
Q4) Genotypes reflect both genetic and environmental influences.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: In the New World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postpartum depression is caused due to:
A) a sudden drop in estrogen levels.
B) a decrease in metabolism levels.
C) the lack of bonding between parents and infants.
D) the use of anesthetics during delivery.
Answer: A
Q2) According to the American Psychiatric Association, which of the following refers to the periods of tearfulness, sadness, and irritability experienced by mothers following delivery?
A) Baby blues
B) Postpartum psychosis
C) Generalized anxiety
D) Anorexia
Answer: A
Q3) An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myelination of motor pathways:
A) increases the speed at which an infant can process cognitive information.
B) has no relation to the development of an infant's motor skills.
C) results in poorly coordinated motor movements.
D) allows neonates to show stereotyped reflexes.
Q2) Physical development is similar to motor development in that:
A) it follows cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns and differentiation.
B) it is much more predictable than cognitive development.
C) it occurs independent of other factors such as environment or nutrition.
D) it follows the same patterns as sensory and perceptual development.
Q3) In the context of iron supply in infants' diet, infants _____.
A) need significantly less iron, pound for pound, than adults do
B) do not need iron content in their diet
C) need significantly more iron, pound for pound, than adults do
D) need iron depending on their gender, similar to adults
Q4) Cephalocaudal development proceeds from the feet to the head.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe myelination.
Q6) Describe the benefits and problems associated with breast-feeding.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mean length of utterance (MLU) is the average number of morphemes that communicators use in their sentences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tertiary circular reactions in an infant lasts from _____ months of age.
A) one to four
B) four to eight
C) eight to twelve
D) twelve to eighteen
Q3) Which of the following is a difference between the mental scale and the behavior rating scale?
A) The mental scale assesses perceptual skills, whereas the behavior scale assesses attention span.
B) The mental scale assesses goal directedness, whereas the behavior scale assesses memory.
C) The mental scale assesses emotional development, whereas the behavior scale assesses fine motor skills.
D) The mental scale assesses persistence, whereas the behavior scale assesses learning.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with stranger anxiety are less fearful when they are in familiar surroundings, such as their homes, rather than in the laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Abused children show a low incidence of personal and social problems and psychological disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adults, especially fathers, show more positive reactions when girls play with boys' toys and boys play with girls' toys.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Are attachment patterns shown by children influenced by the quality of care?
Q5) _________ refers to the individual difference in style of reaction that is present early in life.
A) Temperament
B) Social referencing
C) Emotional regulation
D) Self-concept
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changing one's speech to fit a particular social situation demonstrates _________.
A)grammar
B) syntax
C) pragmatics
D) egocentrism
Q2) Harsh punishment in response to encopresis:
A) aggravates the problem and causes anxiety.
B) will usually stop it within a few weeks.
C) appears to work for boys, but not for girls.
D) teaches self-control, and that is what is needed.
Q3) Explain the major illnesses that occur in early childhood.
Q4) Knowing the distinction between actual and mental events and between how things appear and how they really are indicates that a person has a(n) _________.
A)zone of proximal development
B) theory of mind
C) autobiographical memory
D) appearance-reality distinction
Q5) Briefly describe the nutritional needs of preschool children.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Warm parents:
A) are likely to impose unreasonable rules and to watch their children closely.
B) are likely to complain about their children's behavior.
C) tend to hug and kiss their children and smile at them frequently.
D) may not enjoy their children and may have few feelings of affection for them.
Q2) Which of the following types of play involves children observing other children who are at play?
A) Onlooker play
B) Solitary play
C) Formal play
D) Unoccupied play
Q3) Aggressive children appear to be:
A) more empathic than their peers.
B) more cognitively accurate in interpreting intentions of others.
C) less able to see things from the perspective of others.
D) less egocentric than their peers.
Q4) How do the evolutionary and social cognitive theories differ in how they explain gender-role development?
Q5) Discuss gender typing.
Q6) What is gender-schema theory?
10
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, which of the following is the period during which moral judgments largely reflect social rules and conventions?
A) The conventional level
B) The preoperational stage
C) The concrete-operational stage
D) The preconventional level
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the strategy of repeating sounds mentally?
A) Seriation
B) Rehearsal
C) Decentration
D) Mainstreaming
Q3) Which of the following statements describes metacognition?
A) It is the faculty which is attained by one's efforts and presumed to be made possible by one's abilities.
B) It is the ability to react to a stimuli in a short amount of time.
C) It is the awareness of and control of one's cognitiveabilities.
D) It is the perception of morality as existing outside the cognitive functioning of people.
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to studies by Tobin et al. in 2010 and Underwood & Rosen in 2011, in middle childhood, boys tend to have more positive self-concepts in _____ than girls.
A) helping others
B) reading
C) physical appearance
D) general academics
Q2) According to a study by Steca et al. in 2014, children who experience learned helplessness:
A) believe that success is based on effort.
B) believe that success is based on ability.
C) obtain the reward they seek.
D) change their strategies to attain success.
Q3) Which of the following refers to the gradual transfer of control from parent to child during middle childhood?
A) Regression
B) Social cognition
C) Coregulation
D) Self-fulfilling prophecy
Q4) How does self-esteem change during middle childhood?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between early-maturing girls and girls who mature later on?
A) Early-maturing girls are at lower risk for psychological problems than girls who mature later on.
B) Early-maturing girls find that shorter boys are less reluctant to approach them than girls who mature later on.
C) Early-maturing girls are at greater risk for substance abuse than girls who mature later on.
D) Early-maturing girls obtain higher grades in school than girls who mature later on.
Q2) In the _________ of Stage 5, it is recognized that laws stem from agreed-on procedures and that many rights have great value and should not be violated.
A) contractual, legalistic orientation
B) universal ethical principles orientation
C) conventional morality orientation
D) social contract orientation
Q3) Evaluate Kohlberg's theory of moral development.
Q4) Explain the concepts of asynchronous growth and the secular trend.
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is associated with sexual behavior in adolescent boys?
A) Dopamine
B) Testosterone
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Q2) The term_________refers to acts of sexual self-stimulation.
A) masturbation
B) petting
C) fondling
D) oral sex
Q3) Petting is associated with:
A) satisfying sexual curiosity.
B) sexual self-stimulation.
C) teenage pregnancy.
D) low sex drive.
Q4) During adolescence, individuals become increasingly aware of the disparity between their ideal selves and their real selves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart disease and cancer:
A) are more common causes of death in young adults than other causes.
B) kill a much lesser percentage of people aged 25 to 44 than aged 15 to 24.
C) are less common causes of death during early adulthood than accidents.
D) are more frequently diagnosed in early adulthood than in middle adulthood.
Q2) Describe physical development during early adulthood.
Q3) Rape is less likely to be reported when:
A) it is committed by a stranger.
B) it involves female-on-female victimization.
C) it involves multiple assailants.
D) it is committed by an acquaintance.
Q4) Sensory sharpness declines in early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true of emerging adulthood?
A) It occurs after the end of puberty.
B) It occurs between the ages of 18 and 25.
C) It occurs sooner for those who go to college than for those who do not.
D) It occurs primarily in those from the lower socioeconomic groups.
Q6) Explain Labouvie-Vief's theory of pragmatic thought. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When young men's views differ from those of their parents, they are less likely to engage in an active struggle or a fight for independence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Today, single people:
A) are usually happy, since they receive more benefits from the government.
B) have the same sexual interests and lifestyles as those who are not single.
C) encounter more social stigma.
D) are less likely to be perceived as socially inadequate.
Q3) Intimacy is the tendency to respond in kind when we feel admired and complimented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is characteristic of lonely people?
A) They consider their problems to be lesser than those of their peers.
B) They are cynical about human nature.
C) They have good social skills.
D) They disclose personal information to potential friends.
Page 18
Q5) Discuss whether cohabitation is a good trial for marriage.
Q6) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
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Page 19
Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best defines amenorrhea?
A) It is the lack of menstruation.
B) It is the recurring problem in reaching an orgasm.
C) It is the lack of sexual desire in women.
D) It is the onset of menstruation.
Q2) Do racial and gender differences influence the incidence and treatment of diseases?
Q3) Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following defines vasomotor instability?
A) It is a persistent or recurrent problem in becoming sexually aroused or reaching orgasm.
B) It is the fact that people do not age in the same way or at the same rate.
C) It is the disruptions in the body mechanisms that dilate or constrict the blood vessels to maintain an even body temperature.
D) It is the disorder characterized by abnormal functioning and loss of previously acquired skills that begins after about two years of apparently normal development.
Page 20
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mario was fired from his job of 20 years, experienced the death of his mother, and rarely sees his children after his divorce. He believes that he has bad luck and that everything he does seems to end in a mess. Mario is most likely to:
A) face health problems.
B) recover from empty nest syndrome.
C) learn new skills more easily than in the past.
D) experience an increase in fluid and crystalline intelligences.
Q2) The life-events approach to middle adulthood focuses on:
A) various stages of life.
B) challenges and changes that people face in this time.
C) the mental changes that occur due to the midlife crisis defined by Levinson.
D) the outcome of the glass ceiling effect on middle-aged women.
Q3) Levinson suggested that the midlife crisis:
A) is a psychological shift into late adulthood that is theorized to occur between the ages of 50 to 55.
B) is responsible to help people experience tranquility and contentment in later years.
C) is a problem only for men.
D) is triggered by marker events such as menopause or the death of a friend.
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Immunological theory is a cellular damage theory of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of handling interpersonal conflicts, older adults are more likely than young adults to:
A) solve the problem.
B) express their frustration.
C) seek support from others.
D) remain unperturbed.
Q3) According to the_____, the immune system is preset to decline by an internal biological clock.
A) immunological theory
B) wear-and-tear theory
C) free-radical theory
D) cross-linking theory
Q4) _________ is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye.
A) Myopia
B) Cataract
C) Nystagmus
D) Glaucoma
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Religion involves beliefs and practices centered on claims about the nature of reality and _________.
A) moral behavior
B) materialism
C) social dominance
D) egotism
Q2) Based on research conducted by Shiota and Levenson, middle-aged married couples with differences in conscientiousness and extraversion:
A) are unlikely to handle individual and shared responsibilities well.
B) are likely to be satisfied in their marriages.
C) tend to have more conflicts over division of labor.
D) tend to achieve body transcendence rather than ego transcendence.
Q3) The term body esteem refers to pride in the appearance and functioning of one's body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Self-esteem of older adults is tied into independence and dependence." Discuss.
Q5) How do Robert Peck's three developmental tasks associated with late adulthood amplify Erikson's stage of ego integrity versus despair?
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true with respect to grief?
A) There is usually a fixed period of time for which grief should last.
B) Grief usually tends to increase over time.
C) Young children and adolescents are unlikely to experience grief.
D) Different cultures prescribe different rituals for expressing grief.
Q2) Ria is a patient diagnosed with an advanced stage of leukemia. If she is in the first stage of dying as suggested by Kübler-Ross, which of the following is likely to be Ria's reaction to her diagnosis?
A) She is likely to blame her doctor for not doing enough to cure her.
B) She is likely to dismiss her diagnosis as being a mistake.
C) She is likely to be in a state of depression.
D) She is likely to have come to terms with her diagnosis.
Q3) Which of the following accurately defines mourning?
A) It describes customary methods of expressing grief.
B) It refers to the inability to bounce back after bereavement.
C) It focuses on the acceptance of one's mortality.
D) It refers to the denial of a loss of a loved one.
Q4) How does a living will support a person who may be unable to communicate his or her wishes in the event of permanent incapacitation?
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