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Educational Psychology Final Exam - 3442 Verified Questions

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Educational Psychology Final Exam

Course Introduction

Educational Psychology explores the principles, theories, and research findings related to how humans learn and develop within educational settings. The course examines cognitive, social, and emotional factors that influence student learning, motivation, classroom behavior, and assessment. Students will analyze key topics such as learning theories, individual differences, developmental stages, and effective instructional strategies. By applying psychological concepts to real-world classroom scenarios, the course aims to equip future educators and professionals with a foundational understanding of how to create supportive and effective learning environments.

Recommended Textbook

Life Span Human Development 8th Edition by

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17 Chapters

3442 Verified Questions

3442 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Understanding Life-Span Human Development

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189 Verified Questions

189 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The main advantage of the correlational method is that it can be used to establish cause-effect relationships.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) In a(n) _____ observation study, the researcher creates a special condition designed to elicit the behavior of interest.

Answer: structured

Q3) _____ is the deterioration of organisms (including humans) that leads inevitably to their death.

Answer: Biological aging

Q4) The question of how biological and environmental forces impact development is referred to as the _____ issue.

A) continuity-discontinuity

B) passive-active

C) nature-nurture

D) proximal-distal

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Theories of Human Development

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200 Verified Questions

200 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Adler, Jung, Horney, and Erikson are all well-known

A) neo-behaviorists.

B) neo-feminists.

C) neo-Freudians.

D) neo-contextualists.

Answer: C

Q2) In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the larger cultural context is the A) chronosystem.

B) exosystem.

C) macrosystem.

D) mesosystem.

Answer: C

Q3) Reciprocal determinism refers to a continuous back and forth interaction between A) a want and a desire.

B) genes and environmental experience.

C) a person, his or her behavior, and the environment.

D) a reinforcement and a consequence.

Answer: C

Q4) The _____ stage is the first of Piaget's stages of cognitive development.

Answer: sensorimotor

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Chapter 3: Genes, Environment, and Development

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199 Verified Questions

199 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An individual who is a carrier of a trait has

A) two dominant genes, both calling for the presence of the trait.

B) two recessive genes, both calling for the presence of the trait.

C) one dominant gene calling for the absence of the trait and one recessive gene calling for the presence of the trait.

D) one dominant gene calling for the presence of the trait and one recessive gene calling for the absence of the trait.

Answer: C

Q2) Marcia has just given birth to a baby girl. She is concerned because she is a carrier for hemophilia. Which of the following is true?

A) Marcia has good cause for concern because hemophilia is most often transmitted to female offspring.

B) Marcia has little cause for concern because hemophilia is most often transmitted to male offspring.

C) Marcia has little cause for concern because hemophilia cannot be transmitted to offspring unless both parents are carriers.

D) Marcia should not worry because hemophilia almost always skips a generation.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Prenatal Development and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) When HIV is transmitted to a baby through blood it encounters during the birth process, the transmission is best classified as

A) neonatal.

B) prenatal.

C) perinatal.

D) postnatal.

Q2) The lack of oxygen during birth is called _____ or asphyxia.

Q3) To what extent are infants resilient? What factors increase or decrease resilience?

Q4) Maria frequently used cocaine while she was pregnant. The most likely effect on her baby would be

A) fetal strokes.

B) extreme cognitive impairments.

C) blindness.

D) a hearing impairment.

Q5) A fertile male will deposit about 300 _____ sperm during intercourse.

A) thousand

B) million

C) billion

D) trillion

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Chapter 5: Body, Brain, Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which principle views development as moving towards increasing differentiation and integration?

A) proximodistal

B) biogenetic

C) cephalocaudal

D) orthogenetic

Q2) What is successful aging and what has the "Nun Study" contributed to our understanding of it?

Q3) Primitive reflexes

A) are found in non-human primates but not in humans.

B) allow for the use of language and spatial reasoning.

C) are acquired through experience.

D) serve no clear purpose.

Q4) As a typical adolescent growing up in the United States, Maxwell (a male) would most likely achieve his peak RATE of growth for height around _____ years of age.

A) 10.5

B) 12

C) 13.5

D) 15

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Chapter 6: Sensation, Perception, and Action

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Sample Questions

Q1) About _____ percent of adults over age 90 have lost all functional vision.

A) 7

B) 17

C) 27

D) 37

Q2) What can we conclude regarding developmental changes in speech perception?

A) With age, we become more sensitive to sound discriminations that are relevant in our own language and less sensitive to sound discriminations that are irrelevant.

B) With age, we become more sensitive to all sound discriminations.

C) There are no detectable differences in sound discriminations with age.

D) With age, we become more sensitive to differences in consonant sounds and less sensitive to differences in vowel sounds.

Q3) When learning to walk, toddlers experience an average of 25 falls per hour.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The ability of adolescents to maintain attention for longer periods has been linked to increased myelination.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Cognition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the most advanced substage of the sensorimotor stage?

A) Beginning of thought

B) Secondary circular reaction

C) Coordination of secondary schemes

D) Tertiary circular reaction

Q2) Billy always walks to kindergarten. His mom always picks him up at school after kindergarten on her way home from work. One day, mom asks Billy to walk home from kindergarten by himself. Billy insists he does not know how to walk home from kindergarten-he only knows how to walk to kindergarten. Which cognitive operation does Billy apparently lack?

A) Centration

B) Equilibration

C) Reversibility

D) Transformation

Q3) Piaget defined _____ as the ability to focus on two dimensions of a problem at the same time.

Q4) Vygotsky called the gap between what a learner can do alone and what he or she can do with guidance and encouragement of a skilled partner the _____ development.

Q5) Most 10-year-olds would be in Piaget's _____ operations stage of development.

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Chapter 8: Memory and Information Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) What seems to underlie the significant increase in processing speed seen during childhood?

A) Enhanced use of preservation

B) Vastly improved sensory systems

C) A greater reliance on implicit memory

D) Brain maturation

Q2) The key to a memory script is that it

A) is almost always stored as a "fuzzy trace."

B) cannot be mentally rehearsed.

C) represents a typical sequence of events.

D) is found in sensory register but not long-term storage.

Q3) The Chi (1978) study on memory for chess pieces indicated that when recalling information in their area of expertise, expert children perform

A) better than novice adults.

B) the same as novice adults.

C) worse than novice adults.

D) the same as children who are novices.

Q4) On average, older adults are faster on timed tasks than young adults.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Intelligence and Creativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research on changes in intellectual abilities during adulthood indicates that

A) fluid and crystallized intelligence decline at the same rate.

B) fluid intelligence declines earlier and more quickly than crystallized intelligence.

C) crystallized intelligence declines earlier and more quickly than fluid intelligence.

D) crystallized and fluid intelligence fluctuate up and down throughout the entire lifespan.

Q2) Schaie's sequential study of stability of intellectual abilities showed that

A) both cohort and age affect intellectual performance.

B) cohort, but not age, affects intellectual performance.

C) age, but not cohort, affects intellectual performance.

D) neither cohort nor age affects intellectual performance.

Q3) Research on aging and creativity has shown that older individuals are _____ than younger adults.

A) less original and less productive with creative ideas

B) as original and less productive with creative ideas

C) original but more productive with creative ideas

D) as productive but less original with creative ideas

Q4) _____ thinking involves generating the single best answer to a problem.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Language and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) Giada's statement that she is trying to prove that she is a good cook, not that she can improve her cooking, reflects a _____ goals orientation.

A) mastery

B) learning

C) performance

D) integration

Q2) The concept of appropriately matching an environment with a person's characteristics is called

A) overregulation.

B) goodness-of-fit.

C) mastery orientation.

D) joint attention.

Q3) During the _____ phase of reading, a child is first able to "read" something that he or she memorized during a previous reading session.

A) prealphabetic

B) partial alphabetic

C) full alphabetic

D) full phonological awareness

Q4) When a child uses a word too broadly, he or she is committing an error of _____.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality

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210 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person high in negative affectivity would most likely be described as

A) psychotic.

B) affable.

C) irritable.

D) energetic.

Q2) Children who are high in self-esteem have parents who

A) have few rules and generally let children decide for themselves what is best.

B) make decisions for their children so they are not burdened with making choices.

C) have a "warm" and democratic parenting style.

D) do not discipline their children.

Q3) The temperament dimension of _____ is defined as the tendency to be sad or easily frustrated.

A) surgency

B) negative affectivity

C) behavioral inhibition

D) extraversion

Q4) In what way might one's culture and ethnic identity impact self-concept?

Q5) People in _____ cultures define themselves in terms of group membership and place great emphasis on group goals.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child with gender _____ understands that gender is stable over time, but does not understand that gender is stable across situations.

Q2) Some individuals inherit an XX chromosome pattern but are exposed prenatally to drugs that are converted to male hormones once in the body. These individuals are likely to

A) physically resemble females but behaviorally act like males.

B) look and act no differently as a result of this prenatal exposure.

C) have masculinized genitalia at birth but lose this appearance at puberty and become indistinguishable from others.

D) have masculinized genitalia and behave in more "masculine ways."

Q3) The _____ (or communion) aspect of the feminine gender role involves an orientation that emphasizes connectedness to others.

Q4) In the hypothetical country of Whoville, only females are allowed to cook roast beast. This best exemplifies a _____ difference.

A) gender

B) biological sex

C) psychosomatic

D) prenatal

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development

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211 Verified Questions

211 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Proactive parenting strategies are designed to _____ misbehavior.

A) promote

B) prevent

C) predict

D) produce

Q2) Moral reasoning is best defined as the

A) act of helping or hurting.

B) thought process used to determine if an act is right or wrong.

C) emotion(s) felt following a positive or negative act.

D) unconscious drive to fulfill one's id-driven need.

Q3) Functional magnetic resonance imaging studies support _____ theory.

A) Kohlberg's

B) dual process

C) psychodynamic

D) social learning

Q4) Thinking at Kohlberg's _____ level of moral reasoning can be based on a set of abstract universal principles applicable to all individuals.

Q5) Children between 6 and 10 years of age tend to view rules as unalterable.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships

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210 Verified Questions

210 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most infants are classified as having a(n) _____ attachment to their caregiver.

Q2) Two-year-old Babs is asked by her mother to sing a song in front of her relatives. For the first time in her life, Babs experiences the emotion of embarrassment. Developmentalists refer to this type of emotion as a(n) _____ emotion.

A) amoral

B) primary

C) imprinting

D) self-conscious

Q3) Infants appear to construct a cognitive representation of themselves that is referred to as a(n) _____ working model.

Q4) _____ play is characterized by aimless activities (e.g. pacing) and/or idly standing by.

A) Unoccupied

B) Solitary

C) Onlooker

D) Parallel

Q5) Sociometric techniques are typically used to assess infant-caregiver attachment.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: The Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most likely negative outcome of being an involved grandparent is A) guilt over lack of interaction with grandkids.

B) lack of money due to overspending.

C) depression over the responsibility of having a grandchild move into their home.

D) remorse over not having had more children and more grandkids.

Q2) When asked to describe her parenting style, Mercedes says, "I can sum it up in a single word: indulgent!" This description indicates that Mercedes is best classified as being a(n) _____ parent.

A) authoritarian

B) authoritative

C) moderate

D) permissive

Q3) Erikson would argue that the positive feeling of self associated with the empty nest in middle age indicates a successful attainment of a sense of A) generativity.

B) integrity.

C) wisdom.

D) initiative.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the diathesis-stress model, psychopathology results when A) a stressful event triggers an already existing vulnerability or predisposition. B) the id develops.

C) a gene that is programmed to activate at a certain point during the lifespan "turns on" without any trigger.

D) a mentally healthy person takes a psychoactive drug.

Q2) Drugs like Aricept and Namenda that are currently used to treat Alzheimer's disease tend to

A) have little measurable impact on behavioral or cognitive abilities.

B) positively impact cognitive functioning and reduce behavioral problems, but not slow the progression of the disease.

C) positively impact behavioral problems, but show little impact on cognitive functioning.

D) positively impact cognitive functioning, reduce behavioral problems, and slow the progression of the disease in some individuals.

Q3) _____ refers to a neurocognitive disorder associated with aging.

Q4) Differentiate between dementia and delirium. Why is the distinction so important?

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of passive euthanasia?

A) Giving a terminally ill patient a lethal dose of drugs

B) Permitting a terminally ill patient to give him/herself a lethal dose of drugs

C) Removing a patient who is brain dead and in an irreversible coma from a respirator

D) Smothering a terminally ill patient to death at his request

Q2) Research on young children with terminal illnesses shows that they A) usually know that they are going to die.

B) should not be told the details about their illness or that they are going to die.

C) do not have any idea that their illness will result in death.

D) continue to focus on what will happen to them as adults.

Q3) According to the dual-process model, the bereaved A) is typically both happy and sad.

B) oscillates between coping and taking a break from coping.

C) experiences physical stress but not emotional stress.

D) can be in a state of acceptance and denial at the same time.

Q4) Compare and contrast passive euthanasia, active euthanasia, and assisted suicide.

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