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Educational Psychology explores how people learn and develop within educational settings, examining the psychological principles, theories, and research that inform effective teaching and learning. This course covers topics such as cognitive development, motivation, individual differences, classroom management, assessment, and the impact of social and cultural factors on education. By understanding how students think, feel, and behave, future educators and professionals gain insight into designing supportive learning environments and employing strategies that optimize student achievement and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 2nd Canadian Edition by Spencer Rathus
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Q1) In cognitive-developmental theory, what is involved in accommodation?
A) the elimination of an old scheme
B) a linkage between cognition and language
C) a process of restricting knowledge to avoid confusion
D) the alteration of an existing scheme or the making of a new scheme
Answer: D
Q2) According to operant conditioning, what leads to a changed behaviour?
A) innate processes
B) reinforcements or punishments
C) mental evaluation of a situation
D) pairing two stimuli to produce a response
Answer: B
Q3) Random assignment in an experiment reduces the likelihood that a selection factor determines the outcome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Some twin pairs look more like each other than other twin pairs.Which twin pairs resemble each other the most?
A) monozygotic twin pairs
B) dizygotic twin pairs of either sex
C) dizygotic twin pairs who are males
D) monozygotic twin pairs who are female
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement describes the sperm cell before meiosis?
A) It contains 46 chromosomes.
B) It contains two X chromosomes.
C) It is significantly larger than the egg cell.
D) It is more likely to conceive a girl than a boy.
Answer: A
Q3) According to the Canadian Cystic Fibrosis Foundation, what is a published fact about cystic fibrosis?
A) It is the least common fatal hereditary disease among Canadians.
B) It results from an abnormality on the 20th pair of chromosomes.
C) It is a blood disorder common to those with an Eastern European background.
D) It affects approximately 1 in every 3,500 Canadians.
Answer: D
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Q1) Mona had a "natural childbirth." What occurred?
A) The Lamaze method was used.
B) Local anesthetics were administered.
C) Tranquilizers given during third stage of labour.
D) The baby was delivered without the use of stirrups.
Answer: A
Q2) What distinguishes postpartum blues from postpartum depression?
A) They are the same.
B) Postpartum blues are more severe.
C) Postpartum depression is more severe.
D) They involve entirely different symptoms.
Answer: C
Q3) What taste preferences do infants show?
A) a preference for sour tastes
B) a preference for sweet tastes
C) a preference for bitter tastes
D) a preference for items with little or no taste, such as water
Answer: B
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Q1) According to the textbook, what is the current thinking about the development of Olympic-class athletes?
A) Olympic athletes are born, NOT made.
B) Environment makes all the difference in who will and will NOT become an Olympian.
C) Even Olympic athletes represent a combination of "good genes" and the right environment.
D) Genetics are more likely to determine male accomplishments than female accomplishments.
Q2) Children who had been diagnosed with failure to thrive syndrome in infancy were smaller, less cognitively advanced, and more emotionally disturbed than other children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Studies have shown that rats exposed to more complex environments develop heavier brains than rats NOT exposed to those environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the benefits and problems associated with breast feeding?
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Q1) Children only speak words and phrases they have heard before.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Imitation is the basis for much of human learning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nicole adjusts her rate of sucking so she can listen to a recording of her mother reading "Good Night Moon," a story her mother read aloud while she was pregnant with Nicole.What does this activity illustrate?
A) imitation
B) memory
C) object permanence
D) deferred imitation
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of tertiary circular reactions?
A) Trial and error is still used until an action accomplishes the goal.
B) Trial and error is NOT needed.
C) The child will give up if something does NOT work the first time.
D) The child will NOT follow an object that is out of sight.
Q5) Identify the major characteristics of Motherese.
Q6) How can infants' and children's language development be enhanced?
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Q1) It is clear how many emotions infants have.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following children are most at risk of abuse from their parents?
A) girls
B) full-term infants
C) first-born children
D) sick or unhealthy children
Q3) Which of the following children is most likely to experience stranger anxiety?
A) an 8-month-old child
B) a female child
C) a child with disorganized attachment
D) a child with insecure attachment
Q4) Nathan has irregular sleep and feeding schedules, responds to frustrations with tantrums and loud crying, and takes a long time to adjust to new routines.What temperament classification most accurately describes Nathan?
A) a quick-to-anger temperament
B) a difficult temperament
C) a disengaged temperament
D) a slow-to-warm-up temperament
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Q1) Which of the following is suggested by the research on right-handed individuals?
A) Their left hemisphere is more involved in logical analysis and problem solving.
B) Their right hemisphere is more involved in logical analysis and problem solving.
C) Both hemispheres are equally involved in logical analysis and problem solving.
D) Myelination of the corpus callosum is NOT complete until adolescence.
Q2) Children who use "motherese" to talk with younger children are showing signs of pragmatics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nightmares and night terrors are essentially the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a defining characteristic of minor illnesses?
A) They last only 24 hours.
B) They do NOT require over-the-counter medications.
C) They last only a few days and are NOT life threatening.
D) They occur in 1- to 3-year-olds more often than in older children.
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Q1) Which situation will most likely lead to greater conflict between siblings?
A) The parents show favouritism.
B) Greater harmony exists between the parents.
C) The siblings have "easy" temperaments.
D) Cognitive differences are significant.
Q2) Parental beliefs and genetic factors affect parental warmth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Permissive parents value obedience for its own sake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How is a 4-year-old most likely to evaluate her self-esteem?
A) "I have a lot of friends, but I am NOT a good runner."
B) "I have a lot of friends who like to play with me."
C) "I have a fun personality so I do everything good."
D) "I do a lot of fun things."
Q5) Parents of prosocial children are least likely to use power-assertive techniques.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Children develop the ability to understand that tall objects can be either light OR heavy.Which term does NOT refer to this ability?
A) decentration
B) reversible thinking
C) concrete operations
D) egocentrism
Q2) According to Piaget, it is the role of teachers to find materials that will interest children and to provide active learning opportunities for their students.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The average IQ score for Canadian children is 110.34.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Jack is an average 7-year-old.How have his nutritional needs changed compared with two years ago?
A) Jack needs to eat less.
B) Jack needs to eat more.
C) Jack needs to eat more fat.
D) Jack needs to eat the same amount.
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Q1) After a parental divorce, ,ost children have a 50/50 living relationship between their mothers and fathers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Perspective-taking skills are NOT important for children's peer relationships during middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the textbook, what has been found to increase academic achievement?
A) teachers who provide less structure and more cooperative unstructured learning
B) teachers who allocate most of their time to extracurricular activities
C) teachers who manage their classroom and create structure
D) an increase in the ratio of male teachers to female teachers
Q4) Which of the following teaching strategies does NOT help to motivate students?
A) making the classroom and the lesson interesting and inviting
B) ensuring the students can profit from social interaction
C) ensuring the classroom is a safe and pleasant place
D) setting up classroom competitions with positive rewards
Q5) How are children affected by their parents' divorce?
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Q1) Forty percent of adolescent deaths are due to accidents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Postconventional morality requires formal operational thinking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research on Kohlberg's theory has shown no cultural variations in moral reasoning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At what age on average, do adolescent girls' breasts begin to enlarge then typically reach their full size?
A) age 9 to 13½
B) age 9 to 14½
C) age 10 to 12½
D) age 10 to 14½
Q5) What do the recent statistics suggest regarding death and injuries among Canadian adolescents? What are the leading causes of death among adolescents in Canada?
Q6) How do adolescents choose careers?
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Q1) According to a 2013 study by the Canadian Mental Health Association, what percentage of Grade 7 to 12 teens in British Columbia knew someone who had attempted or died by suicide?
A) 14%
B) 24%
C) 34%
D) 44%
Q2) According to the textbook, what is a clique?
A) a group of people of the same age
B) a group called the "jocks" by others in the school
C) 5 to 10 individuals who hang around together and share activities
D) large groups of individuals who are identified by the activities of the group
Q3) Which of the following best describes the behaviour of adolescents from authoritative homes?
A) They are more likely to rebel.
B) They are more likely to be self-reliant.
C) They are more likely to be critical of their parents.
D) They are more likely to have higher rates of psychological problems.
Q4) Discuss the adolescent quest for identity.Include a description of Erikson's and Marcia's theories in your answer.
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Q1) Adaptive thermogenesis reduces one's ability to gain weight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When surveyed, what did Canadians identify as the two areas of their lives that were most negatively affected by stress?
A) sleep quality, then personal health
B) personal health, then quality of work,
C) sleep quality, then home or family life
D) home or family life, then personal health
Q3) What have million-dollar lottery winners illustrated about happiness?
A) They require only extrinsic rewards to be happy.
B) They demonstrate that money can buy happiness.
C) They show that to be happy, both intrinsic and extrinsic rewards are needed.
D) They have been shown to be happier than other people for the rest of their lives.
Q4) Physical strength declines rapidly during early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is sexual assault and what are the risks for women and reporting statistics?
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Q1) How did Levinson consider the "seasons of life" or phase of early adulthood to be different for men and for women? How is his view considered today?
Q2) Your textbook highlights a photograph of Ellen DeGeneres and her partner.Which term best describes their relationship?
A) polyandry
B) cohabitation
C) monogamy
D) same-sex marriage
Q3) According to 2011 statistics, what is the prevalence of single-person households in Canada?
A) 1 in 3 of all Canadian households
B) 1 in 4 of all Canadian households
C) 1 in 5 of all Canadian households
D) 1 in 6 of all Canadian households
Q4) Which of the following best characterizes most people who cohabit?
A) They rarely get married.
B) They tend NOT to marry those they cohabited with.
C) They are more likely to be strongly religious.
D) They tend to have less traditional views of marriage than married couples.
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Q1) What is the relationship between diet and cancer?
A) Diet may account for 30% of all cancers in Western cultures.
B) Diet is rarely related to cancer.
C) Diet has no effect on risk of cancer.
D) Diet overwhelmingly accounts for 90% of all cancers in Western cultures.
Q2) Reaction time-the amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus-increases with age, mainly because of sensory changes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is bone density affected by aging?
A) Bone density increases with age.
B) Bone density does NOT change throughout one's life.
C) Bone density decreases with age, beginning around age 40.
D) Bone density decreases with age, beginning around age 60.
Q4) Working memory and long-term memory both improve during middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Menopause signals an end to women's sexual desires.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT cited as a challenge that may develop after one's children have partners?
A) new relationships with in-laws
B) accepting the new partner
C) getting along with the new partner
D) adapting to new cultural expectations
Q2) According to the textbook, which of the following best characterizes most people's experience during midlife?
A) Most experience little physical decline.
B) Most have significant psychological upset.
C) Most find their intellectual development stalls.
D) Most find setting future goals difficult and overwhelming.
Q3) Which of the following best represents the onset of the midlife transition?
A) turning 30
B) turning 35
C) turning 45
D) turning half your lifespan
Q4) How does unemployment affect middle-aged adults?
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Q5) What are the five factors in the big five personality model? How do they change with development?

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Q1) Which of the following does NOT represent a physical change that affects sexual behaviour?
A) decreased vaginal lubrication
B) increased time to reach erection
C) decline in intensity of orgasm
D) body issues
Q2) As women age, the vagina shrinks and its wall thin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The effects of Alzheimer's disease range from forgetting recent events to significant confusion to death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of changes in sensory functioning in late adulthood?
A) Hearing low-pitched voices becomes more difficult.
B) Taste sensitively is reduced, more seasoning is required.
C) Smell becomes less acute.
D) Taste buds are lost.
Q5) How do vision and hearing change during late adulthood?
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Q1) Heterosexual couples in satisfactory relationships are more likely to plan for retirement interdependently than those who are NOT in satisfying marital relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following women is most likely to remain in her own home?
A) Betty, who is 85 and rents her home
B) Lisa, who is 72 and has recently lost her husband and sister
C) Fatima, who is 70 and knows few people in her neighbourhood
D) Maria, who is 75 and has had her mortgage paid off for 20 years
Q3) Which of the following statements best reflects marital satisfaction in late adulthood?
A) It is unrelated to the personality characteristics of the marriage partners.
B) It is rare because most partners are bored with each other by this time.
C) It is higher when the couple has an equal division of labour and power.
D) It is higher if couples have established separate identities so they can spend both time apart and time together.
Q4) Leisure activities are important determinants of successful retirement.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) An instruction directive sets out the types of treatment a person does NOT want to receive in the event that he or she cannot personally voice these decisions at the appropriate time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is death NOT considered to be?
A) a biological matter
B) a legal matter
C) a sociological matter
D) an emotional matter
Q3) Which of the following statements best characterizes organ donation?
A) Organ donation is rare these days.
B) Organ donation can compromise the donor's immune system.
C) Living donors can sometimes donate a kidney or a portion of their liver for transplant.
D) Organ donation poses minimal risks for the recipient who may receive one or more organs from donors.
Q4) What is the purpose of a living will?
Q5) How do bereavement, grief, and mourning differ?
Q6) What is death and how is it defined?
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