Course Introduction
Educational Psychology Exam Preparation Guide
Educational Psychology explores how individuals learn and develop within educational settings, examining the psychological principles, theories, and research that inform teaching and learning processes. The course covers key topics such as cognitive and emotional development, motivation, classroom management, assessment, and individual differences among learners. Students will gain insights into how psychological factors influence learning outcomes and will develop skills to apply evidence-based strategies to enhance educational practices, address diverse learner needs, and create supportive and effective learning environments.
Recommended Textbook
Life Span Development 15th Edition by John W Santrock
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Briefly explain the independent variable and the dependent variable in an experiment.Describe the relationship between them.
Answer: Experiments include two types of changeable factors,or variables: independent and dependent.An independent variable is a manipulated,influential,experimental factor.It is a potential cause.The label "independent" is used because this variable can be manipulated independently of other factors to determine its effect.An experiment may include one independent variable or several of them.A dependent variable is a factor that can change in an experiment,in response to changes in the independent variable.As researchers manipulate the independent variable,they measure the dependent variable for any resulting effect.
Q2) Xavier believes that we can study scientifically only what can be directly observed and measured.He argues that affective and cognitive explanations are circular.Which theoretical orientation is most akin to his views?
Answer: Behavioral orientation
Q3) Which theorist developed the theory of operant conditioning?
Answer: B.F.Skinner
Q4) Identify the term that refers to the capacity for change.
Answer: Plasticity
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the activity of genes is TRUE?
A) Genes are not collaborative.
B) A single gene codes for a single,specific protein.
C) Genetic expression is unaffected by environmental factors.
D) Events that occur inside of the cell can excite or inhibit genetic expression.
Answer: D
Q2) Marly describes her friend Gina as having blonde hair,green eyes,and fair skin with freckles.Marly has described Gina's _____.
A) genotype
B) genetic imprint
C) phenotype
D) X-linked inheritance
Answer: C
Q3) Klinefelter syndrome occurs approximately _____ live male births.
A) once in every 100
B) once in every 600
C) once in every 10,000
D) once in every 100,000
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Q1) Describe the three main periods of prenatal development,and the major steps for developing into a person for each stage.
Answer: Typical prenatal development can be divided into three periods: germinal,embryonic,and fetal.The first period is called the germinal period.During this time,the zygote is created,cell division takes place,and the zygote attaches to the uterine wall.The second period is called the embryonic period.During this time,the rate of cell differentiation intensifies,support systems for the cells form,and organs appear.The embryo is composed of the endoderm,ectoderm,and mesoderm.Life-support systems form.These include the placenta,the umbilical cord,and the amnion.Organogenesis (the process of organ formation)takes place.The third period is called the fetal period.During this time,dramatic growth and development occur.The mother can feel leg movements.The sex of the baby can be determined.
Q2) _____ refers to the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall.
A) Implantation
B) Conception
C) Fertilization
D) Involution
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Physical Development in Infancy
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Q1) Caleb is 14 months old.Which of the following activities would you expect that Caleb might be able to do?
A) Climb up steps using his hands and legs
B) Stand and throw a ball
C) Run
D) Jump in place
Q2) In the "sticky mittens" research project,it was found that:
A) the infants in the mitten group developed grasping skills earlier.
B) the infants in the group without mittens developed grasping skills faster.
C) both groups developed grasping skills at the same pace.
D) the group without mittens developed better object manipulation skills.
Q3) _____ refers to the process of encasing axons with fat cells.
A) Myelination
B) Lateralization
C) Habituation
D) Transmission
Q4) Identify the theorist who believed that infants assemble motor skills for perceiving and acting.He/she proposed the dynamic systems theory to explain these findings.
Q5) Define gross and fine motor skills,and give an example of each.
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) _____ involves the way words are combined to form acceptable phrases and sentences.
A) Semantics
B) Phraseology
C) Syntax
D) Phonology
Q2) The rules of _____ describe the way meaningful units can be combined in words.
A) morphology
B) phonology
C) syntax
D) pragmatics
Q3) The rules that govern _____ describe the sound sequences that can occur in a language.
A) pragmatics
B) phonology
C) syntax
D) morphology
Q4) Define schemes.What are the processes of accommodation and assimilation? How are they related to schemes?
Q5) Distinguish between explicit memory and implicit memory.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Socioemotional Development in Infancy
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Q1) What is the opinion of experts on infant socioemotional development,such as Jerome Kagan,on the infant's capacity to display emotions like guilt,pride,despair,shame,empathy,and jealousy in the first year?
A) The structural immaturity of the infant brain makes it unlikely that such emotions can be experienced in the first year.
B) Infants characterized by negative affectivity are more prone to experience such emotions in the first year.
C) The excitability of the amygdala plays an important role in the development of such emotions.
D) Cultural differences in temperament prevent Asian infants from experiencing such emotions in the first year.
Q2) Sakura isn't a particularly active child,and he tends to be wary of new situations and people.Although he doesn't cry,he dislikes dealing with novel situations.According to Thomas & Chess,he would be classified as:
A) an easy child.
B) a difficult child.
C) a slow-to-warm-up child.
D) a slow child.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) What are the two most important contributors to height differences among children the world over?
A) Nationality and culture
B) Education and exercise
C) Prenatal care and emotional challenges
D) Ethnic origin and nutrition
Q2) Zone of proximal development (ZPD)is Vygotsky's term for:
A) a young adult's cognitive development achieved through interaction with children. B) the variety of work that a child can do with ease at a particular stage of cognitive development.
C) how the environment and a child's genetically programmed learning ability interact during a critical period.
D) the range of tasks difficult for a child to master alone but that can be learned with help from adults.
Q3) Identify an Italian physician-turned-educator who at the beginning of the twentieth-century crafted a revolutionary approach to young children's education.In this approach,children are given considerable freedom and spontaneity in choosing activities.
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Chapter 8: Socioemotional Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Cultural changes that occur when one culture comes in contact with another is known as _____.
A) affiliation
B) acculturation
C) accommodation
D) adaptation
Q2) Young children tend to believe that if a rule is broken,punishment will be meted out immediately.This indicates a belief in the concept of:
A) immanent justice.
B) swift justice.
C) concrete justice.
D) authoritative justice.
Q3) Cultures around the world tend to give mothers and fathers different roles in parenting.Describe the different socializing strategies that mothers and fathers use in raising their children.
Q4) What is the term for the support that parents provide one another in jointly raising a child?
Q5) What are some of the differences between emotion-coaching and emotion-dismissing parents?
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) Which type of cancer is most prevalent in children?
A) Leukemia
B) Lung cancer
C) Brain cancer
D) Melanoma
Q2) If intelligence is assumed to be normally distributed,which of the following would you expect to find in the overall population?
A) More people of high intelligence than of low intelligence
B) More people of moderate intelligence than of high or low intelligence
C) More people of high intelligence than of moderate or low intelligence
D) More people of low intelligence than of moderate or high intelligence
Q3) Sabine has a severe impairment in reading and spelling ability.Identify the condition that Sabine has.
A) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyslexia
D) Dyscalculia
Q4) What are the barriers to creating culture-fair tests?
Q6) Identify and describe the most common type of cancer in children. Page 11
Q5) Identify the theorist who developed the triarchic theory of intelligence.
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Chapter 10: Socioemotional Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) At which stage of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development does a person understand that values,rights,and principles undergird or transcend the law?
A) Individualism,instrumental purpose,and exchange
B) Mutual interpersonal expectations,relationships,and interpersonal conformity
C) Social systems morality
D) Social contract or utility and individual rights
Q2) How can rejected children be trained to interact more effectively with their peers?
A) They should be kept isolated from their peers to prevent aggressive outbursts.
B) They should be taught to more accurately assess whether the intentions of their peers are negative.
C) They should be taught to stay away from their peers in order to prevent confrontations.
D) They should be subjected to corporal punishment whenever they exhibit aggressive behavior toward their peers.
Q3) How does the development of self-understanding change from middle to late childhood? Illustrate your answer with examples.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Jordan is very afraid of gaining weight but she cannot control her eating habits.She has been making up for her eating binges by vomiting immediately after a meal or by purging with laxatives.This pattern of behavior has been occurring thrice a week for the past four months.Jordan is most likely suffering from:
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) hypochondria.
Q2) The _____ is adolescents' belief that others are as interested in them as they themselves are,as well as attention-getting behavior-attempts to be noticed,visible,and "on stage."
A) personal fable
B) stage fear
C) imaginary audience
D) collective myth
Q3) Which famous theorist proposed that adolescence was a turbulent time of "storm-and-stress" in 1904?
G.Stanley Hall
Q4) What are the characteristics of the formal operational stage?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Priscilla is in the 8th grade.Her group of friends has recently started shoplifting at departmental stores.According to research into peer relations,what is Priscilla most likely to do in this scenario?
A) Priscilla will use her moral reasoning to determine if the behavior should be copied or not.
B) Priscilla will reject the behavior of her peers.
C) Priscilla will join her friends in the antisocial behavior.
D) Priscilla will report the behavior to her friends' parents.
Q2) What is the difference between cliques and crowds?
A) Cliques are more personal than crowds.
B) Cliques contain more members than crowds.
C) The formation of crowds is based on friendship,while cliques are based on reputation.
D) The members of crowds spend a lot of time together,while the members of cliques do not.
Q3) _____ are larger than cliques and less personal.
A) Bands
B) Crowds
C) Teams
D) Squads
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is true of rape?
A) About two-thirds of college men usually deny that they fondle women against their will.
B) Usually only 1,500 rapes are reported each year in the United States.
C) Researchers point out that rapists in general are seldom angry with women.
D) Legal definitions of rape usually differ from state to state.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about sexual attitudes and behavior among men and women?
A) Men usually hold stronger permissive attitudes about casual sex than their female counterparts.
B) Women usually engage more in pornography use and casual sex than men.
C) Women have slightly more sexual experience than men for most aspects of sexuality.
D) Latino and Asian males have more permissive sexual attitudes than African males.
Q3) Which of the following is true of work patterns in the U.S.?
A) Most individuals spend half of their time at work.
B) Most Americans work less than 30 hours a week.
C) More than a third of Americans work 40 hours a week.
D) A majority of Americans work 51 hours or more per week.
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Chapter 14: Socioemotional Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Recent studies confirmed that _____ individuals showed strong ambivalence toward a romantic partner.
A) Attachment-anxious
B) Securely attached
C) Attachment-avoidant
D) Attachment-disorganized
Q2) Recent research suggests that:
A) cohabiting before marriage increases marital satisfaction.
B) cohabiting before marriage increases the likelihood of divorce.
C) cohabiting couples have less difficulty owning property jointly.
D) cohabiting couples face less disapproval from parents and other family members.
Q3) According to Erik Erikson,if individuals do not develop intimacy,they face:
A) low self-esteem.
B) insecure attachment.
C) narcissism.
D) isolation.
Q4) Briefly describe Erikson's stage of intimacy versus isolation.
Q5) What are some of the advantages of having children later in life?
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Q6) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of being single in early adulthood.
Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) What is the most common change in sleep patterns of adults during middle age?
A) Sleep-disordered breathing becomes less prevalent.
B) Wakeful periods become less frequent during the night.
C) The total number of hours slept dramatically increases.
D) There is a decrease in the deepest type of sleep.
Q2) Which of the following statements about menopause is NOT true?
A) The age at which menopause occurs has increased dramatically in recent years.
B) There is no correlation between the onset of menarche and the onset of menopause.
C) Perimenopause can take up to ten years.
D) Later menopause is linked with increased risk of breast cancer.
Q3) According to John Horn,_____ steadily declines from middle adulthood onward.
A) fluid intelligence
B) crystallized intelligence
C) verbal memory
D) kinesthetic intelligence
Q4) Distinguish between crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence with examples.Explain how they change in middle adulthood.
Q5) List the physical changes that take place during middle adulthood.
Q6) List four strategies that distinguish an expert from a novice.
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Chapter 16: Socioemotional Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is a shortcoming of stage theories of adult development?
A) They do not adequately address universals of adult personality development.
B) They do not adequately address individual variations in adult development.
C) They place far too much importance on cultural variations in adult development.
D) They place too much importance on individual variations in adult development.
Q2) According to Levinson,the _____ rests on how effectively an individual reduces the polarities and accepts each of them as an integral part of his or her being.
A) failure of adolescent transition
B) success of the midlife transition
C) success of transition into early adulthood
D) success of transition into late adulthood
Q3) Identify the theorist who conducted the "Grant Study" and suggested that only a minority of adults experience a midlife crisis.
Q4) Why have middle-aged adults been described as the "sandwich" generation? What is an alternative to this view?
Q5) Identify the term that is applied to young adults who return to their parents' homes to live.
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Chapter 17: Physical Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Cynthia is 91 years old.Doctors have found that Cynthis's optic nerves have been damaged due to accumulation of fluid in the eye.Cynthia is worried that she will lose her vision,but the doctor has told her that her condition can be treated with eye drops.The disease that has marred Cynthia's vision is:
A) glaucoma.
B) cataracts.
C) retinopathy.
D) macular degeneration.
Q2) Which of the following is the leading cause of death in the 75 to 84 and 85 and over age groups?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Kidney disease
C) Cancer
D) Hypertension
Q3) What is the difference between life span and life expectancy?
Q4) What are people who are 85 years and older called?
Q5) What is the term for the process of generation of new neurons?
Q6) Which disease of the eye is characterized by the deterioration of the macula of the retina that corresponds to the focal center of the visual field?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Cognitive Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following statements about retirement is true?
A) Men spend less time planning for retirement than women do.
B) Older adults with a long work history adjust to retirement more easily than those who have been in the workforce for a shorter period of time.
C) Higher levels of financial assets and job satisfaction were more strongly linked to men's higher psychological well-being in retirement.
D) Preretirement social contacts were more strongly related to men's psychological well-being in retirement than women's.
Q2) According to a longitudinal study by Barefoot and others,which of the following statements about gender differences in depression among adults is true?
A) In the childhood,adolescent,and early adulthood years,males show greater depression than females do.
B) The study found greater depression in men than women at 50 and 60 years of age,but not at 80 years of age.
C) Men showed increases in depressive symptoms from 60 to 80.
D) Women showed increases in depressive symptoms from 60 to 80.
Q3) Briefly describe Alzheimer disease.
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Chapter 19: Socioemotional Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the possible selves of older adults?
A) Acceptance of ideal selves increases
B) Acceptance of future selves increases
C) Acceptance of past selves increases
D) Acceptance of present selves increases
Q2) Which of the following statements about social support for older adults is NOT true?
A) Social support for older adults may vary across cultures.
B) Friends play a vital role in social support.
C) Married people need less formal social support than single people.
D) Social support has not been shown to affect depression in older adults.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of Internet usage among older adults?
A) Older adults are less likely to have a computer in their home.
B) Older adults are less likely to use the Internet than younger adults.
C) Older adults are the fastest-growing segment of Internet users.
D) Older adults spend less time going online than younger adults.
Q4) What are the two important classes of goals identified by socioemotional theory? How do they differ across different age periods?
Q5) According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory,what is the eighth and final stage of development?
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Chapter 20: Death,Dying,and Grieving
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Q1) Laws in _____ states (in the United States)accept advance directives/living wills as reflecting an individual's wishes.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 48
D) 50
Q2) Most psychologists believe that it is best for dying individuals to:
A) be unaware of their condition.
B) limit their interaction with others.
C) know that they are dying.
D) distance themselves from family and friends.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of active euthanasia?
A) Injecting a lethal dose of a drug
B) Turning off a respirator
C) Removing a heart-lung machine
D) Stopping antibiotics
Q4) Define grief and discuss its major dimensions.
Q5) In Jewish tradition,what is the term for the time between death and burial?
Q6) Discuss the definition of brain death and the criteria involved in its determination.
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