Educational Psychology Exam Materials - 14792 Verified Questions

Educational Psychology Exam Materials

Course Introduction

Educational Psychology explores the scientific study of how people learn and develop in educational settings, examining the psychological principles that influence teaching, learning, and motivation. This course covers topics such as cognitive development, behavioral and social learning theories, assessment, individual differences, classroom management, and the impact of culture and environment on learning. Through analyzing research and applying theories to practical situations, students gain a deeper understanding of how to create effective learning environments that support diverse learners in achieving academic and personal growth.

Recommended Textbook

Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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82 Chapters

14792 Verified Questions

14792 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) Reflective learning depends on self-monitoring with exceptional learners keeping records of their progress toward learning goals,such as pages read,hours of studying,and assignments completed.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) You are vegging out in front of the TV set last night.The next day a friend asks what you watched on TV last night,and you cannot remember.You were engaging in _______ processing.

Answer: experiential

Q3) In class,you relate the new information you learn regarding the cognitive development of young children to experiences that you had while babysitting.You are exhibiting A)egocentrism.

B)transference.

C)self-projection.

D)self-reference.

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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Q1) One way to overlearn is to approach all tests as if they will be

A)multiple choice.

B)true-false.

C)matching.

D)essay.

Answer: D

Q2) The most important way to actively interact with your textbook as you read is to

A)outline the Chapter .

B)ask yourself a lot of questions.

C)use experiential processing.

D)read continuously without stopping.

Answer: B

Q3) Regarding taking and using class notes,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Students who take accurate lecture notes tend to do well on tests.

B)Very few students take reasonably good notes.

C)Many students wait until just before exams to review their notes.

D)As students review their notes,they should try to link new ideas to what they already know.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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Q1) When people use critical thinking,they

A)validate conventional wisdom.

B)constantly revise their understanding of the world.

C)give greater weight to the overall amount of evidence than specific credible facts.

D)show such a strong conviction to their beliefs that they rarely admit they are wrong about their ideas.

Answer: B

Q2) If one reads all 12 of the daily horoscopes found in newspapers for several days,one will find that the predictions made are so general that they will fit events that happen every day as well as being applicable to anybody regardless of their sign.This illustrates the

A)Guilford effect.

B)phenologist's fallacy.

C)Barnum effect.

D)Gall fallacy.

Answer: C

Q3) In order for covert behaviors to be observed and studied scientifically,they must be ______ defined.

Answer: operationally

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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Q1) Jeremy is a psychologist working with a team of archeologists.By working with this team,he hopes to piece together the changes that have occurred in human parenting since the dawn of time.Jeremy is most likely a(n) ______ psychologist.

A)social

B)forensic

C)evolutionary

D)environmental

Q2) Which psychologist advanced the theory that a "designed culture" based on positive reinforcement could encourage desirable behavior?

A)William James

B)B.F.Skinner

C)Max Wertheimer

D)Carl Rogers

Q3) Sigmund Freud's approach to psychotherapy is known as

A)Gestalt therapy.

B)psychoanalysis.

C)behavior modification.

D)client-centered therapy.

Q4) William James was the founder of the school of thought known as ______.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Q1) The independent variable in an experiment is

A)the subject him or herself.

B)a measure of the subject's behavior.

C)the variable that the experimenter chooses to manipulate.

D)any unwanted variable that may adversely affect the subject's performance.

Q2) A double-blind experiment would be used for all of the following EXCEPT to A)minimize researcher bias.

B)minimize changes in subjects' behavior caused by the unintended influence of an experimenter's actions.

C)control for research participant bias.

D)eliminate the need for randomly assigning participants to experimental and control groups.

Q3) A variable,such as the personality of a subject,that might affect the outcome of an experiment would be controlled by

A)random assignment of subjects.

B)assuming the effects of the variable are negligible.

C)manipulating the dependent variables simultaneously.

D)repeating the experiment several times until the results are consistent.

Q4) The participants exposed to the independent variable would be in the ______ group.

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Q1) A psychologist using the method of naturalistic observation would A)carefully design controlled situations in which to observe behavior.

B)rely on observations of subjects' responses to questionnaires.

C)observe behavior as it happens in actual settings outside the laboratory or clinic.

D)make careful records of the behavior of clients treated during the course of therapy.

Q2) An in-depth focus on a single individual best describes the A)single-blind experiment.

B)double-blind experiment.

C)correlational method.

D)case study.

Q3) Both the hereditary as well as environmental influences on the development of schizophrenia in the Genain quadruplets were documented using which research method?

A)case study

B)experimental method

C)survey method

D)correlational study

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Q1) If students who complete a study skills course raised their grade point averages,can we conclude that the course caused their improvement?

A)Yes,because the scientific data was collected.

B)Yes,because a negative correlation exists between these students' grade point averages before and after taking the course.

C)Yes,because the course resulted in a self-fulfilling prophecy.

D)No,because there was no control group.

Q2) Because reports in the popular media tend to be made uncritically and with a definite bias toward reporting "astonishing" findings and telling interesting stories,a critical reader must be _______.

Q3) A theater reported that their highest beverage sales this year occurred during showings of The Great African Desert.However,we cannot conclude that the film affected beverage consumption because

A)the placebo effect was not considered.

B)only a correlation can establish causation.

C)no correlation was computed.

D)there was no control group.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Once information is received at the dendrites,it next flows into the A)soma.

B)axon.

C)myelin sheath.

D)glial cell.

Q2) In which condition are the prospects for recovery poor due to the brain damage being extensive as well as a subsequent disease process being triggered that continues to damage the brain long after the original traumas have ended?

A)neoplastic autism

B)multiple sclerosis

C)chronic traumatic encephalopathy

D)constraint-induced movement disorder.

Q3) The branch of the autonomic nervous system that is called the "fight­or­flight" system because of its importance in responding to emotional events is the _______ branch.

Q4) A neuron's resting potential is raised and lowered

A)by messages arriving from other neurons.

B)by the occurrence of neurogenesis.

C)through a process known as neuroplasticity.

D)when lateralization occurs.

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Q1) Which of the following is an imaging technique that results in a computer-generated image of brain activity and is based on glucose consumption in the brain?

A)computed tomographic scan (CT scan).

B)electroencephalography (EEG).

C)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

D)positron emission tomography (PET).

Q2) The study of how biological processes,the brain,and the nervous system are related to behavior is called

A)neuroinduction.

B)biopsychology.

C)physiological behaviorism.

D)ablation.

Q3) When a researcher tries to identify which structures in the brain control specific psychological or behavioral functions,such as recognizing faces or moving the hands,the basic research strategy is called

A)localization of function.

B)constraint-induced analysis.

C)extrapolated functional analysis.

D)neuroplasticity.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Q1) Due to neuroplasticity,violin,viola,and cello players have a larger proportion of which of the following areas devoted to their hands?

A)association cortex

B)primary motor cortex

C)reticular formation

D)limbic system

Q2) Autism may arise in infants whose mirror neuron system has been damaged by genetic defects or environmental risk factors.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Persons are able to read Braille with their fingers because more of which brain part is devoted to the fingers?

A)primary somatosensory cortex.

B)primary temporal cortex.

C)hypothalamus

D)amygdala

Q4) The increased size and wrinkling of the cerebral cortex in higher animals is referred to as _______.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Q1) The outer portion of the adrenal glands that secretes corticoids is called the adrenal A)medulla.

B)dorsal.

C)cortex.

D)ventricle.

Q2) Weeks after an automobile accident,a friend continues to have difficulty maintaining balance and coordinating movements.You should suspect that damage may have occurred to the A)corpus callosum.

B)cerebellum.

C)medulla.

D)thalamus.

Q3) Unconscious fear produced by which part of the brain seems to explain why people who survive horrible experiences,such as a plane crash or combat during war,can have debilitating fears years later?

A)amygdala

B)hypothalamus

C)reticular activating system

D)somatosensory cortex

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Q1) If you are right-handed,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Your right hand has more strength and dexterity than your left hand.

B)You have more area on the left side of your brain devoted to controlling your right hand.

C)You have more area on the right side of your brain devoted to controlling your right hand.

D)You have a larger corpus callosum than if you were left-handed.

Q2) Regarding handedness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)A small minority of lefties owe their hand preferences to birth traumas,such as prematurity,low birth weight,and breech birth.

B)Left-handed persons have a significantly lower incidence of allergies and learning disorders than right-handed persons.

C)People with mixed handedness may be at risk for more immune-related diseases than persons who are consistently left-handed.

D)Collectivist cultures where left-handedness is viewed as especially negative have about half the proportion of left-handed persons as individualist cultures.

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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Q1) Substances capable of causing birth defects are known as _______.

Q2) Because of the rapid growth of basic structures,the developing fetus is sensitive to a variety of diseases,drugs,and sources of radiation,especially during which part of the pregnancy?

A)first trimester

B)second trimester

C)third trimester

D)neonatal period

Q3) The uniting of the egg and sperm is referred to as A)development.

B)transformation.

C)conception.

D)developmental sequencing.

Q4) The part of a chromosome that contains instructions that affect a particular process or personal characteristic is called a(n) A)isotope.

B)gene. C)soma.

D)autosome.

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Q5) Within the nucleus of each sperm or each ovum,there are _______ chromosomes.

Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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Q1) Many researchers believe that our first attachments to our parents

A)influence how we relate to our friends and lovers.

B)occur during the first hours of life during a critical period.

C)are influenced by an evolutionary pattern that cannot be altered.

D)have little influence on our social behaviors as adults.

Q2) Many modern parents in trying to empower their children,imposed few limits on their behavior and gave them everything they wanted.This type of parenting produced children who

A)were independent,self-controlled,and self-reliant.

B)had artificially high levels of self-esteem and a sense of entitlement.

C)had low self-esteem and became the victims of bullies.

D)became highly competitive Type A personalities.

Q3) When Sidney misbehaves,his mother takes away his phone privileges or his video game system.Sidney's mother is using which discipline approach?

A)management techniques

B)legalistic

C)power assertion

D)withdrawal of love

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Q1) The false-belief task is used to assess whether a child has developed A)animism.

B)theory of mind.

C)conservation.

D)hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

Q2) Two­year­old Teshonda is eating her breakfast and tells her mother,"All gone milk."According to Noam Chomsky, Teshonda is exhibiting which pattern of speech?

A)identification

B)nonexistence

C)negation

D)agent-action

Q3) Describe the characteristics,age range,and behaviors displayed during Piaget's formal operational stage,and explain why scientists believe that formal thinking is based more on learning and culture than maturation.

Q4) During language development,the interactions between the adult and infant that include touching,vocalizing,gazing,and smiling are referred to as shared transformations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Q1) Studies suggest that the healthiest,happiest older people

A)exercise as they did when a young adult.

B)have never used any alcohol or tobacco.

C)were average in intelligence,but creative.

D)show an interest in the future.

Q2) The period of time that stretches from the late teens to the mid-twenties in which young people actively explore love,work,and world views and take longer to settle into their adult roles is called

A)generativity.

B)disengagement.

C)emerging adulthood.

D)late adolescence.

Q3) The culturally-defined period of life between childhood and adulthood is known as A)puberty.

B)adolescence.

C)andropause.

D)early life transition.

Q4) One cost of early maturation during adolescence is that it may force premature _____ formation.

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Q1) Although Jack's childhood was impoverished and difficult,Jack is presently working his way through college.His friends say that Jack is "good at dodging life's hard knocks" and has made his own "luck." According to the research on subjective well-being,Jack

A)would be considered low in subjective well-being.

B)is using denial to get through life and probably suffers from depression.

C)is most likely happier than most people and will be good at negotiating life's demands.

D)has developed a sociopathic personality and is most likely a con artist.

Q2) Regarding the relationship of wealth to happiness,which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

A)More resources can bring happiness to people living in poverty.

B)The overall association between money and happiness is quite strong.

C)The positive effects of wealth tend to cancel out the new life stresses that instant riches usually bring into a person's life.

D)All of these statements are true.

Q3) Explain how and why each of the following factors influences one's happiness: (a)life events; (b)income,including the effects of "instant riches"; (c)education; (d)marital status; (e)religion; (f)age; (g)gender;and (h)work.

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Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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Q1) Being able to focus on the traffic signals among all the neon signs and lights illustrates

A)sensory gating.

B)selective attention.

C)control biasing.

D)physiological nystagmus.

Q2) When our attention is narrowly focused,we may experience A)sane hallucinations.

B)habituation.

C)retinal disparity.

D)inattentional blindness.

Q3) Experiments with cats raised in environments which emphasized one feature over another showed that

A)even though cats did not have experience with some features,they could easily learn about them.

B)there was an actual decrease in brain cells tuned to the missing feature.

C)when returned to a normal environment,the cats became frightened and refused to move around.

D)there was an actual increase in brain cells tuned to the missing feature.

Q4) Light sensations caused by pressure applied to the eye are referred to as _____.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Q1) Presbyopia is a condition of the eyes caused by aging in which the person cannot

A)focus on distant objects.

B)see very well in bright illumination.

C)focus on objects near the eyes.

D)see clearly because the lens is pigmented.

Q2) Because each form of iodopsin is most sensitive to light in roughly the red,green,or blue region,the three types of cones fire nerve impulses at different rates to produce various color sensations,according to which theory of color vision?

A)gate-control

B)opponent-process

C)primary stage

D)trichromatic

Q3) The spread of electromagnetic energies to which the eyes respond is called the _____.

Q4) Bifocal lenses are used to correct

A)near vision.

B)distance vision.

C)presbyopia.

D)both near vision and distance vision.

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Q1) Sound energy is converted to nerve impulses by the hair cells inside the A)tympanic membrane.

B)cochlea.

C)otolith organs.

D)pinna.

Q2) The proposed fifth basic taste is referred to by the Japanese as A)etherish.

B)metalli. C)umami.

D)origami.

Q3) Marian has been diagnosed with a sensorineural hearing loss,which was most likely caused by A)damage to the auditory ossicles.

B)a puncture to her eardrum.

C)chronic ear infections that led to fluid build-up in her middle ear.

D)damage to the hair cells in the cochlea.

Q4) Name the four basic taste sensations,describe the new fifth taste,tell how sensitive humans are to each taste and how this difference in sensitivity may have prevented poisonings,and explain why there are so many different flavors if only four (or five)tastes exist.

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Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Q1) Ambiguous stimuli allow us to hold more than one

A)texture gradient.

B)motion parallax.

C)perceptual constancy.

D)perceptual hypothesis.

Q2) You look through an old photographic slide-viewer toy,which creates the impression of seeing a three-dimensional scene by one photograph of the scene being displayed to one eye and a slightly different view of this scene being presented to the other eye.When these two images are fused into one overall image,which of the following occurs?

A)the motion parallax

B)stereoscopic vision

C)an aerial perspective

D)visual assimilation

Q3) Figure and ground can be switched in

A)shape perception.

B)depth perception.

C)reversible figures.

D)nonlinear figures.

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Q1) Because Orlando knows that his perceptions are not automatically accurate,he tries to actively look for additional evidence to check his perceptions by asking questions,seeking clarifications,and finding alternate channels of information.Orlando is engaged in A)habituation.

B)sensory assimilation.

C)reality testing.

D)forming perceptual sets.

Q2) Regarding the Müller­Lyer illusion,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)This illusion can be explained by our experience with the edges and corners of rooms and buildings.

B)This illusion can be explained by size-distance relationships.

C)The San bushmen,who live in a "round" culture,experience this illusion in exactly the same way as Americans,who live in a "square" culture.

D)Cues that suggest a three-dimensional space alter the perception of this two-dimensional design.

Q3) If two objects make images of the same size,the more distant object must be larger.This is known formally as the

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Q1) Professional magician and skeptic James Randi has offered a $1 million prize to anyone who can demonstrate evidence of psi events under standardized conditions,but no one has yet claimed the prize.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Cold readings rely on all of the following EXCEPT

A)uncritical acceptance.

B)the Barnum effect.

C)the confirmation bias.

D)dishabituation.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of parapsychology research studies?

A)inconsistent results

B)a replication of findings

C)the "decline effect"

D)a run of luck

Q4) Describe the three basic forms of extrasensory perception and the psi phenomenon known as psychokinesis.

Q5) Events that seem to defy accepted scientific laws are known as _______.

Q6) The purported ability to predict future events is called _______.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a component of the Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale?

A)eye closure

B)finger lock

C)amnesia test

D)eyebrow raise

Q2) In describing his hypnotic session,Jarrod said that he felt like he was floating,like his feet were about to leave the floor,and that his arms were so light it was like balloons were pulling them toward the ceiling without Jarrod having to do anything to raise his own arms.Jarrod is describing

A)hypnotic autosusceptibility.

B)hypnotic psychokinesis.

C)the basic suggestion effect.

D)the relaxation response.

Q3) Concerning hypnosis,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)People generally remain in control of their behavior while under hypnosis.

B)People are usually aware of what is going on around them while under hypnosis.

C)Most people will act out the hypnotic suggestion to disrobe or to harm someone.

D)You must cooperate to become hypnotized.

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Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Q1) The hidden,symbolic meaning is called the _______ content.

A)manifest

B)latent

C)lucid

D)actualized

Q2) Rhonda remembers that she had a dream last night about walking on a beach and picking up shells,while the sun was bright and warm.These remembered parts of the dream are known as the _______ content.

A)NREM

B)REM

C)manifest

D)latent

Q3) John's EEG pattern as he reads his textbook indicates that he's alert and awake.This means that his brain is generating __________ waves.

A)alpha

B)beta

C)theta

D)delta

Q4) Short bursts of brain activity in Stage 2 sleep are called _______.

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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Q1) Which of the following is considered a hallucinogen?

A)GHB

B)marijuana

C)valium

D)Rohypnol ("roofies")

Q2) Drugs with names like Xanax,Halcion,and Valium are

A)barbiturates.

B)stimulants.

C)hallucinogens.

D)tranquilizers.

Q3) Regarding tranquilizers,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Benzodiazepine tranquilizers are used to lower anxiety and reduce tension.

B)When tranquilizers are used at too high a dosage or for too long,addiction can occur.

C)Large doses of Rohypnol induce short-term amnesia and sleep.

D)Valium is ten times more potent than Rohypnol.

Q4) Addictive drugs stimulate a brain region called the reticular formation causing it to release the neurotransmitter serotonin.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Q1) Which of the following theorists identified four dream processes that were believed to disguise the hidden meanings of dream images?

A)Sigmund Freud

B)Ernest Hartmann

C)Fritz Perls

D)Otto Loewi

Q2) According to Freud,the dream process in which a single character in a dream may represent several people at once is

A)secondary elaboration.

B)condensation.

C)displacement.

D)symbolization.

Q3) According to Freud,the four dream processes include condensation,displacement,secondary elaboration,and A)symbolization.

B)fixations.

C)ego ideals.

D)self-efficacies.

Q4) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.

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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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Q1) If you wear a particular tie and get teased and laughed at,you are less likely to wear this tie again.This illustrates

A)an automatic,nonlearned response.

B)learning by an association of stimuli.

C)operant conditioning.

D)classical conditioning.

Q2) The effects of modeling and imitation underlie

A)classical conditioning.

B)discovery learning.

C)observational learning.

D)response chaining.

Q3) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to _______.

Q4) An English teacher encourages her students to write the main aspects of the short story the class is reading into ovals and then draw lines connecting the various themes and concepts.Thus,for this short story,this teacher is encouraging her students to make a(n)

A)ablation.

B)behavioral contract.

C)cognitive map.

D)projective assessment.

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) It has been widely accepted that that many phobias begin as a(n)

A)spontaneous recovery.

B)operant reinforcer.

C)response chain.

D)conditioned emotional response.

Q2) The reappearance of a previously extinguished response is known as

A)a stimulus generalization.

B)a spontaneous recovery.

C)shaping.

D)latent learning.

Q3) Which of the following is a fear that persists even when no realistic danger exists?

A)compulsion

B)unconditioned reaction

C)phobia

D)neurosis

Q4) With most classical conditioning,the optimal delay between CS and US is from half a second to about five seconds.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding one's behavior,discriminative stimuli would be considered A)antecedents.

B)cognitive maps.

C)negative reinforcers. D)punishers.

Q2) Negative attention-seeking will develop in some children because A)punishment is always ineffective and teaches aggression.

B)the parents reward the children's correct social behaviors in only limited situations. C)punishment was not used to get rid of the negative attention-seeking in the children. D)the children receive attention when they are ill-behaved but are ignored when they are well-behaved.

Q3) Which psychologist developed a conditioning apparatus for animals and provided various practical applications of operant conditioning?

A)B.F.Skinner

B)Ivan Pavlov

C)John B.Watson

D)Carl Rogers

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Q1) Secondary reinforcers are originally neutral,but gain their reinforcing properties by being associated with __________ reinforcers.

A)negative

B)positive

C)primary

D)conditional

Q2) In laboratory experiments,a recorder,which consists of a moving strip of paper and a mechanical pen,is connected to a Skinner box.Rapid responding by the animal in this experiment will cause the pen on the recorder to

A)draw a steep line.

B)draw a horizontal line.

C)draw small tick marks.

D)leave empty spaces.

Q3) Which of the following reinforcers are used to provide immediate incentives for learning and to avoid the problem of satiation?

A)tokens

B)candy

C)conditional reinforcers

D)primary reinforcers

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Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Q1) The Premack principle states that

A)primary reinforcers are the best rewards.

B)secondary reinforcers are the best rewards.

C)things you like to do can act as rewards.

D)the entire response must be completed before rewards are most effective.

Q2) Select a behavior that you would like to increase or decrease;describe how you would set up a behavioral self- management program for this behavior;and explain how the Premack principle could be used.

Q3) The strategy for breaking bad habits that consists of trying to discover what is reinforcing an unwanted response and removing,avoiding,or delaying the reinforcement involves the use of the operant conditioning principle of

Q4) Which of the following involves a simple tally of response frequencies that can help you break undesirable behavior patterns and provides feedback about your progress in developing desirable behaviors?

A)cognitive mapping

B)cumulative charting

C)self-recording

D)response chaining

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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following techniques uses various cues and strategies to improve the memory of eyewitnesses and produces 35 percent more correct information than standard questioning with this improvement occurring without the addition of false memories?

A)retroactive priming procedure

B)progressive part method

C)cognitive interview

D)forensic hypnosis procedure

Q2) Students can get a teacher off the subject by asking one slightly off-topic question,which sets up an association with another topic and then to another topic and so on until the teacher is "miles" from what she was originally teaching.This illustrates which model of memory?

A)consolidation model

B)eidetic model

C)pseudoassociation model

D)network model

Q3) Short-term memories are stored most often phonetically.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does "memory jamming" work in advertising?

Page 35

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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Q1) The mnemonist Mr.S.had such an exceptional memory that he had to devise ways to A)forget.

B)remember accurately with his eyes open if prohibited from closing his eyes.

C)learn more mnemonics.

D)study meaningless words and random digits.

Q2) Memories currently stored in memory would be considered

A)available.

B)accessible.

C)procedural.

D)redintegrated.

Q3) Which of the following would be the best explanation for why many soldiers do not remember some of the horrors they saw during combat?

A)repression

B)encoding failure

C)retroactive interference

D)proactive interference

Q4) Lasting images that are frozen in memory at times of personal tragedy,accident,or other significant events are called _______ memories.

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Q1) A child is shown a picture,the picture is taken away,and the child is asked questions about minute details within the picture.The child is able to answer these questions because he tells you that he can look down at the white table and still see the picture.This child is probably using A)mental images.

B)eidetic images.

C)flashbulb memories.

D)mnemonic images.

Q2) The term photographic memory is most often used to describe a memory ability called

A)explicit memory.

B)implicit memory.

C)flashbulb memories.

D)eidetic imagery.

Q3) Successful retrieval is usually the result of A)massed practice.

B)whole learning.

C)rote rehearsal.

D)a planned search of memory.

Q4) Explain the differences in mental images and eidetic imagery.

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) In using mnemonics,words are generally easier to remember than visual pictures or images.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In research studies,rote learning has been shown to be superior to the use of mnemonics in learning technical terms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Mnemonic memories work best in the short run and are more fragile than conventional memories.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If a familiar word or image is used to link two other words or items,you are using the type of mnemonic known as the keyword method.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss the four basic principles of mnemonics,and explain how each is able to improve your memory.

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Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Q1) The fact that "dog bites man" has a very different meaning from "man bites dog" demonstrates the importance of A)connotation.

B)syntax.

C)conditional relationships.

D)linguistic determinism.

Q2) The Stroop interference task,which involves a person naming colors that are printed in a different color ink,illustrates the effects of A)syntax.

B)context.

C)denotative meanings.

D)prototypes.

Q3) Jeffrey would be classified as a majority child and is presently learning a second language.Jeffrey will most likely

A)experience additive bilingualism.

B)fall behind educationally.

C)become less competent in both languages as confusion results.

D)experience all of these.

Q4) The basic units of thought: concepts,language,and _______.

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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Sample Questions

Q1) Selective combination is the

A)ability to evaluate new problems by associating them with old information or with problems already solved.

B)ability to choose information that is relevant to a problem while ignoring distractions.

C)ability to bring together seemingly unrelated bits of useful information.

D)tendency to get "hung up" on wrong solutions or to become blind to alternatives.

Q2) In an example from your textbook,subjects were exposed to the following problem: A $5 bill is placed on a table and a stack of objects is balanced precariously on top of the bill.The problem is to remove the $5 bill without touching or moving any of the objects on top of it.The best solution to this problem involves tearing the money.People who fail to solve this problem because they were taught that it is "taboo" to destroy "things of value" are probably experiencing which barrier to problem-solving?

A)pragmatic

B)learned

C)perceptual

D)emotional

Q3) Describe and give an example of each of the four barriers to problem-solving.

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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Q1) Cary excels on open-ended essays and creative art projects.Cary performs well on measures of _______ thought.

A)divergent

B)algorithmic

C)convergent

D)denotative

Q2) The way a question is stated before problem-solving begins can affect decision making and is known as

A)the representativeness heuristic.

B)framing.

C)incubation.

D)defining the base rate.

Q3) According to Ambady,what was the shortest amount of time that subjects had to observe a teacher in order for their intuitive ratings to match the ratings of students who were in the teacher's class for the whole semester?

A)six seconds

B)90 seconds

C)five minutes

D)10 minutes

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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which psychologist followed 1,500 California children with IQs above 140 from the time they were in elementary school through adulthood?

A)David Wechsler

B)Alfred Binet

C)Howard Gardner

D)Lewis Terman

Q2) IQ is a good predictor of success in the occupation of science and in leadership. A)True

B)False

Q3) Jorge's chronological age is nine,and his mental age is 11.His IQ is A)102.

B)82.

C)132.

D)122.

Q4) If you take an IQ test today,the test examiner will convert your relative standing on this test for your age group to a(n)__________ IQ.

Q5) Will has a mental age of nine and a chronological age of ten.Will's IQ is _______.

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) According to your textbook,which of the following questions would be the LEAST likely to lead to a creative solution?

A)What can I extract from the known information?

B)Is any part of the problem pretty or ugly or stupid or friendly?

C)What is the one best answer to this problem?

D)Is this in any way like a problem I've solved before?

Q2) Regarding how to live creatively,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)People who think in conventional ways cannot live intelligent,successful,or fulfilling lives.

B)Creative thinking can add spice to life and lead to exciting personal insights.

C)To live creatively,one must start doing more of what you really enjoy,less of what you dislike.

D)To live more creatively,you must be ready to seek new ways of doing things.

Q3) If you wanted to enhance creativity,you should

A)isolate yourself and focus intently and persistently on the problem.

B)make a very quick decision since intuitive thinking is very creative.

C)dig deeper into a problem with logic.

D)look for analogies to represent the problem in a different way.

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43

Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scientists have long known that body activity is guided by internal "biological clocks" known as

A)biofeedback.

B)stimulus motives.

C)circadian rhythms.

D)homeostatic equilibrium.

Q2) Extrinsic motivation in the form of increased salaries and bonuses tend to increase A)the quality of the employees' work.

B)the likelihood of the employees solving problems and coming up with innovative ideas.

C)the amount of work done.

D)all of these.

Q3) An energized motivational state is referred to as A)a drive.

B)a goal.

C)a need.

D)homeostasis.

Q4) Describe the three elements of emotion,and explain how emotions are linked to to many basic adaptive behaviors.

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most adults try to vary their activities to maintain which level of arousal?

A)zero

B)high

C)low

D)moderate

Q2) By setting specific and attainable goals,visualizing the steps to reach that goal,focusing on one's progress,and getting expert instruction,one can enhance one's A)need for power.

B)self-confidence.

C)chances of becoming "burned­out."

D)chances of becoming a Type A personality.

Q3) Regarding the human sex drive,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)The sex drive in human females is directly tied to her menstrual cycle.

B)The human sex drive is homeostatic.

C)The sex drive in humans can be aroused at virtually any time by almost anything.

D)Recent sexual activity prevents sexual desire from occurring again until after a certain amount of deprivation time has occurred.

Q4) Taste aversions usually develop through _______ conditioning.

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) When traveling outside of one's homeland where a different language is spoken and the cultural values are much different,one could best communicate his or her happiness to members of different cultures by A)making the hand signal for "Okay" using the finger and thumb.

B)smiling.

C)nodding one's head.

D)maintaining eye contact.

Q2) The general emotional feelings telegraphed by body positioning include A)pleasantness-unpleasantness.

B)attention-rejection.

C)liking-disliking.

D)activation (arousal).

Q3) Which two psychologists advocate the facial feedback hypothesis?

A)James and Schachter

B)Cannon and Bard

C)Izard and Ekman

D)Maslow and Rogers

Q4) If you are feeling happy and joyful,research into brain activity would indicate that processing of those emotions occurs primarily in the _______ hemisphere.

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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) LaTara is very good at sensing what her friends are feeling,but she tends to have difficulty interpreting her own emotions.In terms of emotional intelligence,LaTara is able to exhibit

A)empathy but has difficulty perceiving her own emotions.

B)bidirectional communication but has difficulty exhibiting empathy.

C)emotional flexibility but has difficulty with emotional conceptualization.

D)bidirectional awareness but has difficulty with cognitions related to self-control.

Q2) Emotions that are associated with actions that helped our ancestors save their lives are our _______ emotions.

A)unconscious

B)negative

C)positive

D)suppressed

Q3) Unlike alexithymic people,emotionally intelligent people

A)use objective,rational approaches to make decisions.

B)are aware and are able to recognize their own emotions.

C)focus on positive emotions and suppress negative emotions.

D)do all of these.

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Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the problems faced by male homosexuals and lesbians and the false stereotypes that have participated in many of these problems.

Q2) An intersexual person has A)no androgens present.

B)no internal sexual organs.

C)no external reproductive organs.

D)ambiguous sexual anatomy.

Q3) The release of ova (eggs)from the ovaries is called A)endometriosis.

B)ovulation.

C)menopause.

D)menarche.

Q4) Marian's sexual orientation is asexual,which means that she

A)has sexual feelings but has chosen not to act on them.

B)is distressed by her lack of sexual desire.

C)has a treatable sexual dysfunction.

D)experiences little or no sexual attraction.

Q5) Brandon has a deep conflict between his biological sex of being a male and his preferred psychological and social gender role of a female.Brandon would be considered a(n) _______.

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender Variance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recent research with the Scholastic Assessment Test indicates that the differences in verbal and math abilities that do exist between men and women are based on A)averages.

B)the biological biasing effect.

C)the superiority of the left brain for certain tasks and the right brain for other ones.

D)test bias effects that penalize males.

Q2) The researcher who created a sex role inventory that consists of 20 "masculine" traits,20 "feminine" traits,and 20 "neutral" traits was _______.

Q3) Jake believes that women should be nurses or teachers,but not doctors,lawyers,fighter pilots,or mechanics.Jake is exhibiting oversimplified beliefs about the characterstics of men and women,which are referred to as __________.

Q4) In Western cultures,girls are encouraged to do all of the following EXCEPT for A)being goal-directed.

B)being indirectly aggressive.

C)displaying expressive behaviors.

D)preparing for motherhood.

Q5) Your personal,private sense of maleness or femaleness is your _______.

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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Sample Questions

Q1) One's sex drive is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT

A)attitudes toward sex.

B)the recency of sexual activity.

C)sexual experience.

D)sexual orientation.

Q2) Forcible rapists

A)act without concern for the feelings of their victims ot guilt over the rape.

B)often harbor resentments or outright hatred of women.

C)carry out an act that is more brutal than sexual in nature.

D)are characterized by all of these.

Q3) In the human sexual response cycle,orgasm is immediately preceded in most cases by a(n) _______ phase.

A)excitement

B)plateau

C)tension

D)refractory

Q4) Sexually touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person,usually in a public place,such as a crowded bar,is called _______ disorder.

Page 50

Q5) Explain how gender role stereotyping and rape myths may encourage the act of rape.

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) Which of the following techniques would NOT be used to treat female sexual interest/arousal disorder?

A)sensate focus

B)the squeeze technique

C)genital stimulation by the woman's partner

D)"nondemanding" intercourse controlled by the woman

Q2) Always being pleasant and pretending everything is okay,always keeping busy,never arguing,never compromising,and making your partner guess what you want are ways to avoid _______.

Q3) Treatment for premature ejaculation usually involves

A)sensate focus.

B)the squeeze technique.

C)drugs,such as Viagra.

D)systematic desensitization.

Q4) Vaginal dryness in women and an inability to maintain an erection are signs of disorders.

A)desire

B)arousal

C)orgasm

D)sexual pain

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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Sample Questions

Q1) People who have personality traits that increase their chance of suffering a heart attack are considered _______ personalities.

A)extroverted

B)introverted

C)Type A

D)Type B

Q2) When desirable or undesirable characteristics of personality are evaluated,we are assessing

A)temperament.

B)character.

C)personality types.

D)popular stereotypes.

Q3) You are asked by a psychologist to describe what you see in a set of ten inkblots that vary in color,shading,form,and complexity.This psychologist is using the

A)Thematic Apperception Test.

B)Rorschach Test.

C)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2.

D)16 PF.

Q4) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her _______.

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) People who are cheerful,conventional,extroverted,reliable,helpful,and conservative and who tend to enjoy upbeat conventional music,such as country,pop,religious,and rock­n­roll,fit into Rentfrow's music­personality category called __________.

Q2) Raymond Cattell called the core of a person's personality,that is,the person's underlying personality characteristics, _______ traits,or factors.

A)surface

B)source

C)common

D)cardinal

Q3) Approximately how many English words refer to personal characteristics?

A)8,000

B)10,200

C)15,000

D)18,000

Q4) Describe your personality using the five dimensions of the Big Five Personality Model.

Q5) Raymond Cattell called the visible or observable traits of your personality _______ traits.

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53

Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Q1) In Freudian theory,which part of the personality acts as a judge or censor for one's thoughts and actions,acting as an "internalized parent" to bring behavior under control?

A)id

B)ego

C)eros

D)superego

Q2) According to Freud,which of the following begins at puberty and ends with the person having a mature capacity for love and the realization of full adult sexuality?

A)genital stage

B)organismic valuing

C)phallic stage

D)self-actualization

Q3) Which theorists believe humans have free will and that human nature is inherently good?

A)humanists

B)behaviorists

C)psychoanalysts

D)trait theorists

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) Which of the following is defined by the hereditary aspects of one's emotional nature?

A)character

B)personanlity

C)ego ideal

D)temperament

Q2) According to behavioral personality theorists,the external conditions that strongly influence behavior are known as _______ determinants.

Q3) Personality starts to stabilize around age

A)three.

B)seven.

C)11.

D)20.

Q4) According to Julian Rotter's social learning theory,which of the following is perceived and interpreted by the individual subjectively rather than objectively?

A)a personality trait

B)a psychological situation

C)self-actualization

D)a habit

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) Uneasiness and strain when socializing is known as social _______.

Q2) Shy individuals tend to

A)be unnecessarily self-critical in social situations.

B)blame circumstances for social failures.

C)give themselves credit for social successes.

D)do all of these.

Q3) Which of the following techniques is recommended for overcoming shyness?

A)Accept that shyness is a basic personality trait that cannot be changed.

B)Avoid asking open-ended questions of acquaintances.

C)At first,one should avoid situations that lead to social contact to decrease one's private self­consciousness.

D)Practice social skills and be willing to take some social risks.

Q4) Shyness is most often triggered by which type of social situations?

A)small group

B)large group

C)novel or unfamiliar

D)informal

Q5) Describe three ways that a person can reduce his or her shyness.

Q6) Fears of being inadequate,embarrassed,ridiculed,or rejected by others are referred to as _______ fears.

Page 56

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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Q1) The concept of lifestyle illness is associated with

A)the causes of death at the turn of the century.

B)infectious diseases and accidents.

C)the probability of being pressured into committing suicide.

D)modern causes of death.

Q2) The study of the ways in which cognitive and behavioral principles can be used to prevent illness and promote health is called _______ psychology.

Q3) If a good friend quits smoking,what percent of people are more likely to quit smoking?

A)90 percent

B)72 percent

C)67 percent

D)36 percent

Q4) High levels of stress,overeating,and unsafe sexual behavior increase the chance of injury or illness and are considered _______ risk factors.

A)refusal skills

B)moderate

C)behavioral

D)emotional

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Chapter

56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict

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Q1) Which of the following responses to frustration is most similar to scapegoating?

A)leaving the field

B)displaced aggression

C)circumvention

D)reaction formation

Q2) In the experiment in which college students breathed air with increased amounts of carbon dioxide through a mask,the students found it much LESS stressful if they

A)were surprised by the trials that contained the increased amount of carbon dioxide.

B)were told which trial would contain an increased amount of carbon dioxide.

C)did not have to control the amount of carbon dioxide entering the mask.

D)experienced repeated trials of the "surprise whiffs" of carbon dioxide in increased amounts.

Q3) Redirecting anger toward safer targets is called

A)repression.

B)displaced aggression.

C)withdrawal.

D)circumvention.

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Page 58

Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression

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Q1) Mark repeatedly failed at school and was retained twice.He has begun to believe that there is nothing he can do to improve his grades,so he gives up and eventually drops out of school in the tenth grade.Mark's school experience illustrates the concept of _______.

Q2) One thing that can be done to help combat depression is to

A)reduce cognitive dissonance.

B)increase the use of self-criticism.

C)make a daily schedule.

D)try to sleep it off.

Q3) Although Ken uses unethical and deceptive business practices during the work week,he is known as a hardworking volunteer by his church and his community on the weekend.By keeping these two sides of himself in "logic­tight" mental compartments so they do not come in conflict,Ken will experience very little anxiety because he is using the defense mechanism known as A)compensation.

B)isolation.

C)intellectualization.

D)identification.

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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Q1) A Type A personality exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A)time urgency.

B)believing that they can overcome any obstacle.

C)a poor attention span.

D)being achievement-oriented.

Q2) Salvadore Maddi studied two groups of managers at a large utility company.One group of managers had which of the following characteristics that the other group did not exhibit?

A)held high stress positions at the company

B)had Type A personalities

C)got sick after stressful events

D)all of these characteristics

Q3) When we manage our stress,we

A)cause the body to release substances that increase inflammation.

B)can reduce the severity of cold and flu symptoms.

C)tend to prolong infections and delay healing.

D)actually put a strain on our immune system.

Q4) A person who complains about illnesses that appear to be imaginary is referred to as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Q1) Rachel tends to be a perfectionist regarding her college work.She also has volunteered many times for campus projects.Toward the end of the semester,Rachel has several tests and term paper deadlines coming up,when club sponsors ask her to volunteer for several new projects.Rachel is feeling very stressed and guilty because she does not have time for these added projects.Which would be the best course of action for Rachel?

A)She should set a rigid schedule and finish the term papers as quickly as possible so her stress levels will drop,and she will be able to volunteer.

B)She should do the volunteer projects in order not to feel guilty and destroy her relationships with these club sponsors,and then work on her term papers.

C)She should try to set reasonable,less perfectionistic goals,and learn to say "no" to added demands and responsibilities that would cause her stress at this time.

D)She should stop working on the term papers for a week and go home or on a short trip to get away and relax.

Q2) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective _______.

Q3) Self-critical thoughts that increase anxiety and lower performance are called _______.

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) While reading this module,a student notices what seems to be abnormal tendencies in his own behavior.This

A)indicates that the student is exhibiting psychopathology.

B)illustrates that pathological behavior is an exaggeration of normal defenses and reactions.

C)means that the student's behavior is clearly abnormal,but has not reached the severity or chronic nature that requires treatment,but may soon.

D)indicates that the student should seek psychological help immediately.

Q2) Statistical approaches to abnormality define as "abnormal" those who

A)show evidence of loss of contact with reality.

B)are unhappy,withdrawn,and depressed.

C)deviate from typical or average patterns of behavior.

D)are disabled by anxiety.

Q3) In judging normality,social class is probably the most common source of bias.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The simultaneous presence in a person of two or more mental disorders is referred to as _______.

Page 62

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) An extreme form of schizophrenia sometimes called disorganized schizophrenia typically develops in adolescence or young adulthood with these individuals usually exhibiting extreme social impairment and their chances of improvement being limited.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the DSM-5,which of the following is NOT classified as a psychotic disorder?

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Dissociative Disorder

C)Catatonia

D)Delusional Disorder

Q3) In delusions of influence,persons believe that

A)they have committed horrible or sinful deeds.

B)unrelated events have special personal significance.

C)they are extremely important persons whose acts influence events.

D)they are being controlled by others or by unseen forces.

Q4) Even if he doesn't suffer from schizophrenia,the older a man is when he fathers a child the more likely it is that the child will develop schizophrenia due to the aging male reproductive cells having genetic _______.

Page 63

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) Regarding SAD,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Phototherapy treatment is usually necessary from fall through spring.

B)The best time to administer phototherapy is early in the morning.

C)Seasonal depressions are related to the release of less melatonin during the winter.

D)Thirteen percent of college students living in northern New England show signs of SAD,with this condition being especially prevalent among the students from the South.

Q2) An estimated 25 to 50 percent of women experience maternity blues,a mild depression that usually lasts from

A)one to two days after childbirth.

B)one to three months after childbirth.

C)three to six months after childbirth.

D)two to 12 months after childbirth.

Q3) In any given year,what percent of the U.S.population suffers from a mood disorder?

A)3.8 percent

B)5.6 percent

C)9.5 percent

D)14.7 percent

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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Q1) A minister who finds profanities popping into her mind starts counting her heartbeats in order to prevent thinking about the "dirty" words.She most likely has

A)agoraphobia.

B)somatic symptom disorder.

C)a social phobia.

D)obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Q2) By comparison with anxiety disorders,trauma- and stressor-related disorders

A)are more severe and disruptive.

B)involve a break with reality.

C)tend to persist even when a person's life circumstances improve.

D)are rooted in a person's specific life circumstances and may improve as life circumstances improve.

Q3) For almost three weeks after being in an violent earthquake,Mark experienced nightmares,wariness,poor concentration,and irritability.However,he is now getting back to normal.Mark experienced the trauma- and stressor-related disorder called _______ disorder.

Q4) The closest match for "nervous breakdown" to a DSM­5 clinical diagnosis would be a(n) _______ disorder.

Page 65

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) Which of the following ethnic groups currently has the highest rate of suicide in the United States?

A)European Americans

B)Native Americans

C)African Americans

D)Hispanic Americans

Q2) Suicidal people usually have

A)a history of trouble with family or sexual adjustment problems.

B)drinking or drug abuse problems.

C)job difficulties.

D)problems in any one or all of these areas.

Q3) For every ten potential suicides,how many people give warning beforehand?

A)one

B)three

C)six

D)eight

Q4) In 90 percent of all suicides,a diagnosable mental disorder was a factor,usually depression or a(n) _______ disorder.

Q5) In North America,for every three people who die by homicide,the number who kill themselves is _______.

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) Constructive reenactments are provided by A)psychodrama.

B)existential therapy.

C)psychoanalysis.

D)brief psychodynamic therapy.

Q2) Regarding the effectiveness of psychotherapy,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)There is ample evidence that suggests that therapy is beneficial for most people.

B)Nearly nine out of ten people reported improved lives as a result of therapy.

C)Therapy is not equally effective for all people.

D)The results of therapy for people with the same problems can be expected to be the same.

Q3) Currently,psychological services are available through A)the radio and television.

B)the telephone.

C)the Internet.

D)all of these.

Q4) A brief dynamic psychotherapy designed to help people by improving their relationships with other people is known as __________.

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Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) A psychoanalyst who believes in the theories of Freud would see psychopathology as caused by

A)birth trauma.

B)deeply hidden unconscious conflicts.

C)bizarre dreams.

D)immature personal relationships.

Q2) When Freud referred to the "royal road to the unconscious," he was talking about one's _______.

Q3) Following the death of a family member,Gestalt therapists would urge family members to maintain their mental health by

A)finding meaning in the person's death.

B)repressing the strongest of their feelings.

C)expressing their feelings no matter how unpleasant the feelings are.

D)considering carefully what cultural norms prescribe in this situation.

Q4) Unconditional positive regard is an essential condition of what therapy?

A)REBT

B)psychoanalysis

C)client-centered therapy

D)Beck's cognitive therapy

Page 68

Q5) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) Vicarious desensitization occurs when the client

A)observes a model performing the feared behavior.

B)is coached into performing feared behavior in front of the therapist.

C)engages in behaviors similar to the feared behavior.

D)uses selective perception in coping with a feared object.

Q2) In cases where it may be impractical for the client to act out or observe models performing a feared behavior,desensitization works well if the A)therapist uses aversive conditioning.

B)therapist films the client.

C)client understands the causes of the feared behavior.

D)client vividly imagines each step in the fear hierarchy.

Q3) When the rewards that maintain undesirable behaviors are identified and removed,these undesirable behaviors will undergo A)operant shaping.

B)extinction.

C)respondent aversion.

D)token inhibition.

Q4) What is a token economy and how could it be used in an institutional setting,such as a mental hospital?

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Q1) Regarding mental hospitalization,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Without hospitalization,people with drug addictions may find it nearly impossible to resist the temptation for drug abuse in their daily lives.

B)In 2008,about 7.5 percent of all Americans received inpatient treatment for a mental health problem.

C)Psychiatric units in general hospitals and private psychiatric hospitals tend to be sanctuaries that provide support,refuge,and therapy.

D)In general,full hospitalization is much more effective than partial hospitalization.

Q2) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is considered by many professionals to be a valid treatment for selected cases of severe __________.

Q3) The procedure that has been shown to be effective in treating both depression and obsessive-compulsive disorders,when drug therapy has been ineffective,is

A)ECT.

B)EMDR.

C)DBS.

D)systematic desensitization.

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Q1) Your friend is talking to you about a problem he is having with his parents,and he seems to be at a loss for words. You should

A)ask specific closed questions to keep the conversation going.

B)restate or paraphrase your friend's last sentence.

C)try to guess at what your friend is trying to say and finish his thought for him.

D)assume that he now wants you to give him your opinion.

Q2) The best definition of a peer counselor is a

A)graduate student finishing his or her internship in counseling.

B)nonprofessional person who has learned basic counseling skills.

C)member of a self-help group who has the same type of problem as you do.

D)counselor with training and qualifications similar to a licensed psychotherapist.

Q3) In 2008,what percent of all Americans received treatment for a mental health problem?

A)2.8 percent

B)7.6 percent

C)13.4 percent

D)20.2 percent

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Page 71

Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) You tell yourself that you were late starting your psychology project because of the demands of your other courses and your job,but your roommate was late because he is a procrastinator.You are displaying

A)an actor-observer bias.

B)perceptual discrimination.

C)groupthink.

D)social stereotyping.

Q2) Because we seldom know the real reasons for others' actions,we tend to infer causes from A)intuition.

B)objective facts.

C)circumstances.

D)subjective emotions.

Q3) Language,marriage customs,sex roles,and concepts of ownership are all part of an ongoing pattern of life that is passed from one generation to the next and is referred to as

A)conformity.

B)group standardization.

C)group cohesion.

D)culture.

Page 72

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) In 1898,the first published social psychology experiment was on the topic of A)compliance and was conducted by William James.

B)conformity and was conducted by Solomon Asch.

C)social facilitation and was conducted by Norman Triplett.

D)obedience and was conducted by Stanley Milgram.

Q2) Conversion to a cult often includes all of the following EXCEPT

A)intense displays of affection and understanding toward the convert.

B)isolation of the convert from noncult members.

C)drills,disciplines,and rituals.

D)having the convert reflect on his or her own ideas and beliefs.

Q3) When people interact,they almost always affect each other's behavior.This illustrates social

A)influence.

B)diffusion.

C)reciprocity.

D)exchange.

Q4) The lowball technique consists of getting a person committed to act and then making the terms of the request less desirable.

A)True

B)False

Page 73

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Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Q1) While watching the evening news,LaTanya sees the suffering of a community that was hit by a tornado and feels the fear and anguish these people must be feeling.She immediately calls the pastor of her church to ask if she can organize a relief program to collect money and supplies to send to this community.LaTanya was motivated to help when she felt this community's pain,a condition known as

A)empathic arousal.

B)a diffusion of responsibility.

C)cognitive dissonance.

D)social comparison.

Q2) Robert Sternberg created the influential

A)"liking" and "love" scales.

B)social exchange theory.

C)triangular theory of love.

D)social comparison theory.

Q3) Reciprocity is defined as

A)a stable and positive emotional bond.

B)the similar exchange of feelings,thoughts,or things between people.

C)the personal standard used to evaluate rewards and costs in a social exchange.

D)a relationship based on intimacy but lacking passion and commitment.

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) The use of alcohol and drugs make hostile behavior more likely to occur because the alcohol and drugs

A)lower one's threshold for aggression.

B)increase one's frustration level.

C)create a state of learned helplessness.

D)serve as direct cue for aggressiveness.

Q2) The belief that one's own culture or ethnic group is superior to all others and the tendency to use one's own culture as a standard by which to judge other cultures is called

A)altruism.

B)conservatism.

C)liberalism.

D)ethnocentrism.

Q3) If it is easier for European Americans to get a bank loan than it is for Hispanic Americans,then Hispanic Americans have experienced A)discrimination.

B)scapegoating.

C)ethnocentrism.

D)personal prejudice.

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Page 75

Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) The concept of "openness to the other" involves

A)genuinely appreciating those who differ from us culturally.

B)tolerating cultural differences without appreciating them.

C)agreeing with the different cultural values.

D)turning your back on your own culture.

Q2) Giving equal status,recognition,and acceptance to different ethnic and cultural groups is referred to as

Q3) If Janie wants to learn to be more tolerant,she should

A)decrease individuating information.

B)actively inhibit stereotypes.

C)believe in a fair and just world.

D)look for things that are different between herself and other people.

Q4) A person who believes that members of another ethnic group are hostile and unfriendly will probably treat people in that group in ways that will actually provoke the hostile and unfriendly responses that the person originally expected,which illustrates a(n) _______.

Q5) Describe implicit prejudice and why it occurs,and explain how becoming less prejudiced involves developing an "openness to the other."

Page 76

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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) Situations that arise in a job,with which a competent worker must be able to cope are known as

A)proxemics.

B)biodata.

C)critical incidents.

D)job aptitudes.

Q2) Higher job satisfaction cultivates positive moods,which are associated with all of the following EXCEPT

A)increased absenteeism.

B)increased creative problem-solving.

C)more cooperation.

D)better performance.

Q3) On an interest inventory,Greg's highest score was within the social theme.According to your textbook,which of the following college majors best matches Greg's interests?

A)music

B)education

C)business

D)economics

Q4) Detailed biographical information about a job applicant is known as _______.

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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) Formal speeches,lectures,and business meetings are usually conducted at a(n) _______ distance.

A)intimate

B)personal

C)social

D)public

Q2) For every year of human resource consumption it will take Earth how many years to recover?

A)one year

B)1.5 years

C)two years

D)2.5 years

Q3) Physical settings can be

A)social or solitary.

B)natural or constructed.

C)implicit or explicit.

D)endogenous or exogenous.

Q4) Describe the four spatial norms observed in North America,and explain how these can affect our interactions with people from other cultures.

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Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) The concepts of mental practice,motor learning,peak performance,and control of attention would be of the most interest to a(n) _______ psychologist.

A)social

B)sports

C)forensic

D)environmental

Q2) Community surveys are used

A)to find out how local citizens feel about the case since jurors will probably have the same attitudes.

B)to differentiate jurors who can be persuaded by emotion from those most likely to be persuaded by reason.

C)to exclude jurors from the pool of potential jurors so they will not be called for jury duty on particular cases.

D)for none of these reasons.

Q3) When athletes feel as if they are in a trance and experience intense concentration,detachment,and feelings of unusual power or control,then the athletes are experiencing a state known as "flow" or _______.

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors

Psychology

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Q1) Regarding the environment of a space station,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)There should be some flexibility in the use of living and work areas.

B)The lack of any noise on a space station is a significant stressor for many astronauts.

C)It is beneficial for astronauts to have some privacy with most preferring solitary pastimes,such as reading,writing,or watching movies.

D)Eating at least one meal together each day can help keep crew members working as a social unit.

Q2) Human factors psychology is also known as A)cybernetics.

B)heuristics.

C)ergonomics.

D)humanistics.

Q3) Topics of interest for human factors psychologists would include furniture design,augmented cognition,and technology and aging.

A)True

B)False

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Page 80

Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Q1) There are ten students in the pre-kindergarten class.Each student is shown eight colors and asked to name them.The number of colors correctly named by each student was: 8,8,8,8,7,7,6,6,5,4.What would be the mean?

A)4.0

B)5.7

C)6.7

D)8.0

Q2) A researcher wants to find out if a new math program is superior to the old math program that is used to teach college algebra at a community college.She selects 400 students from the total student body of 4,000 students to participate in this study.The 400 students would be considered the A)sample.

B)experimental group.

C)population.

D)control group.

Q3) The range and standard deviation are measures of _______.

Q4) An estimate of how often experimental results could have occurred by chance alone are provided by using tests of

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) In determining one's specialty area in psychology and the career opportunities available,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)To provide information regarding a specialty area in psychology,one can read The Insider's Guide to the Psychology Major: Everything You Need to Know about the Degree and Profession.

B)The American Psychological Association has a list of approximately 30 specialized divisions with some of them having associated websites.

C)Students can attend departmental activities,such as the colloquia.

D)Students can become student members of the American Psychological Association.

Q2) Llam,a freshman psychology major,is attending a talk by a guest speaker,who is a human factors psychologist,a specialty area that Llam is interested in exploring as a future career.This talk by the guest speaker is part of his psychology department's activities known as the _______.

Q3) Along with other skills,effective travel agents must be able to search through various databases for the best combination of accommodation and transportation options for their clients.According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,psychology majors are required to complete a competency that would allow them to perform this skill,which is _______ literacy.

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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Q1) Kayla wants to create an organized summary of the number of people interested in each of the fifteen new products her company has designed.She should construct a A)frequency distribution.

B)range table.

C)variability matrix.

D)standard deviation scale.

Q2) Which of the following is made by breaking down the entire range of possible scores into classes of equal size and then recording the number of scores falling into each class?

A)scatter diagram

B)variability plot

C)correlational matrix

D)frequency distribution

Q3) Correlations allow us to determine causation between two variables.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Dr.Molto wants to graphically visualize the correlational relationship between the variables in his study.He should use a(n)___________.

Q5) The range and standard deviation are measures of _______.

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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

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Q1) According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,being able to display open-mindedness and healthy skepticism in evaluating the quality and credibility of information would most fully meet the competency of _______ skills in psychology.

Q2) Employers need employees who can think for themselves.The development of which skill set would most readily meet employers' expectations?

A)intuitive thinking skills

B)experiential cognition skills

C)critical thinking skills

D)personal skills

Q3) In Module 1 of Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition),the authors introduced the concept of reflective processing and discussed how to overcome procrastination in order to develop the students' _______ skills.

Q4) List the ten major goals that college psychology programs try to meet in teaching their students,according to the APA's Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,and discuss how these goals are met through the five sets of skills emphasized throughout Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition).

Q5) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

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