Educational Psychology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Educational Psychology explores the scientific study of how people learn and develop in educational settings, considering both individual differences and the influence of social, emotional, and cognitive factors. This course examines major theories of learning, motivation, and development, and their application to classroom practices. Topics include cognitive development, behaviorism, constructivism, assessment strategies, classroom management, and the role of culture and diversity in learning. Students will gain a deeper understanding of how psychological principles inform effective teaching, support learners with diverse needs, and foster environments that promote academic and personal growth.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
2228 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nature-nurture debate is concerned with:
A) the question of why genes are more influential in development than environment. B) the question of why the environment is more important in development than evolution.
C) the relationship between heredity and environmental influences on human development.
D) the claim that females are more intelligent for genetic reasons.
Answer: C
Q2) Discuss the limitations of Correlational information?
Answer: Answers will vary. Correlational information can reveal relationships between variables, but it does not show cause and effect. It may seem logical to assume that exposure to violent media makes people more aggressive, but it may also be that more aggressive people choose violent media. This research bias is termed a selection factor. Similarly, studies report that children (especially boys) in divorced families tend to show more behavioral problems than children in intact families (Potter, 2010; Vélez et al., 2011). These studies, however, do not show that divorce causes these adjustment problems.
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3
Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) takes the form of a:
A) single spiral.
B) double helix.
C) sphere.
D) cube.
Answer: B
Q2) According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:
A) she will bear only monozygotic (MZ) twins.
B) the chances of her becoming pregnant decrease.
C) she is likely to be a healthy mother.
D) the chances rise that she will bear twins.
Answer: D
Q3) _________is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age.
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C) Hemophilia
D) Huntington's disease
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of a neonate's reflexes?
A) They provide information about a neonate's neural functioning.
B) They disappear within hours after birth.
C) They are produced by a neonate's complex thought processes and are conscious.
D) They are replaced by corresponding involuntary actions.
Answer: A
Q2) Mothers suffering from _____ experience command hallucinations.
A) postpartum anxiety
B) postpartum psychosis
C) depression with perinatal onset
D) postnatal depression
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the palmar reflex observed in infants?
A) It is replaced by voluntary grasping within five to six months of age.
B) It facilitates finding the mother's nipple in preparation for sucking.
C) It begins three months after the birth of the baby.
D) It can be elicited by loud noises and sudden movements.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) List some guidelines for infant nutrition set by the U.S. Department of Agriculture in 2011.
Q2) The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during:
A) prenatal development.
B) adolescence.
C) infancy.
D) the first few hours of birth.
Q3) The cerebellum is the part of the brain involved in coordination and balance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Billy is a four-year-old boy. He has trouble walking and running like other children his age, and he sleeps through most of the day. He is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Billy's condition is the result of _____.
A) the abnormal lengths of the axons
B) a disruption in his myelin sheaths
C) the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21
D) a disruption in his rapid eye movement sleep
Q5) Discuss the process of differentiation.
Q6) Describe the benefits and problems associated with breast-feeding.
Q7) Briefly explain the structures of the brain.
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between primary and secondary circular reactions?
A) Primary circular reactions involve only reflexes, while secondary circular reactions involve only thoughts.
B) Primary circular reactions involve complex actions, while secondary circular reactions involve simple actions.
C) Primary circular reactions focus on an infant's own body, while secondary circular reactions focus on the environment.
D) Primary circular reactions involve voluntary actions, while secondary circular reactions involve involuntary actions.
Q2) A researcher who contradicts Piaget's theory on cognitive development is most likely to state that:
A) infants show deferred imitation as early as nine months of age.
B) deferred imitation appears at about 18 months after birth.
C) the sensorimotor stage is the first stage of cognitive development.
D) the second substage of the sensorimotor stage lasts from about one to four months of age.
Q3) Discuss the critical period for language acquisition in children.
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following views of the development of attachment first suggested that attachment is learned through conditioning?
A) The biological view
B) The psychoanalytic view
C) The cognitive view
D) The behavioral view
Q2) Anna is a 7-month-old baby. Her mother is a drug user, and she often leaves her infant unattended for several hours whenever she is under the influence of drugs. Anna is a victim of _____.
A) emotional abuse
B) emotional neglect
C) educational neglect
D) sexual abuse
Q3) According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, the _________lasts from birth to about three months.
A) selective attachment phase
B) clear-cut-attachment phase
C) attachment-in-the-making phase
D) initial-preattachment phase
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gross motor skills are those skills that:
A) are used in manipulation and coordination involving small and precise movements.
B) are used in locomotion that involve large muscle groups.
C) are used by children when drawing images or playing a musical instrument.
D) are acquired in late childhood or early adolescence.
Q2) American children between the ages of one and three average eight to nine minor illnesses a year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caitlin thinks that all people love dolls because she loves dolls. Caitlin is displaying
A) egocentrism
B) sociocentrism
C) symbolic thinking
D) cognitive flexibility
Q4) Explain how language and cognitive development are interwoven.
Q5) Describe the cognitive abilities and limitations of preoperational children.
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Q6) Discuss the development of memory in early childhood. Explain the various factors that influence memory in early childhood.
Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child playing hopscotch with a friend is engaged in _____.
A) formal games
B) symbolic play
C) functional play
D) board games
Q2) What is gender-schema theory?
Q3) Cynthia's daughter asks her if she can go out to play with a friend. Cynthia says, "Do whatever you want. I have work to finish. Do not bother me." In this scenario, Cynthia uses a(n) _____ parenting style.
A) rejecting-neglecting
B) permissive-indulgent
C) authoritarian
D) authoritative
Q4) Children with high self-esteem are:
A) more likely to be desensitized to violence.
B) more likely to have parents who are attentive to their needs.
C) less likely to show prosocial behavior.
D) less likely to be securely attached.
Q5) Describe the authoritative parenting style.
Page 10
Q6) Explain how peer interactions foster social skills.
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Which of the following processes is used to assess whether a child understands the principle of transitivity?
A) Seriation
B) Mainstreaming
C) Encoding
D) Rehearsal
Q2) Children in the concrete operational period of development can focus on more than one dimension of a problem at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly explain grammar and vocabulary development in children.
Q4) John and Jean are taking notes in class. John can write faster than Jean when the teacher dictates the lesson. This is because John responds faster to auditory stimuli than Jean does. This illustrates the difference in John's and Jean's:
A) gross motor skills.
B) reaction time.
C) objective morality.
D) moral reasoning abilities.
Q5) Explain how attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) can be treated.
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children in _________are more egocentric than children in the other levels.
A) level 0
B) level 1
C) level 2
D) level 3
Q2) Discuss conduct disorders that are noticed in middle childhood.
Q3) Children with conduct disorders _________.
A) have high self-esteem
B) have authoritative parents
C) are unlikely to be involved in sexual activity before puberty
D) are often involved in substance abuse
Q4) According to research by Rice in 2014 and Hankin in 2015, on a neurological level, evidence suggests that depressed people "underutilize" the neurotransmitter _____.
A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) adenosine
D) epinephrine
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Victor, a boy in high school, has matured earlier than his other male friends. He plays on many of the sports teams with his seniors. In this scenario, Victor is:
A) more likely to be dependent and insecure.
B) more likely to be bullied and dominated.
C) less likely to be aggressive and involved in delinquent behavior.
D) more likely to be poised, relaxed, and good-natured.
Q2) For adolescents, the transition to the new school setting is often accompanied by:
A) an increased participation in school activities.
B) a decline in grades.
C) an increase in self-esteem.
D) a decrease in stress.
Q3) Discuss some common characteristics of programs designed to prevent dropping out of school.
Q4) The secondary sex characteristics are the structures that make reproduction possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the pros and cons of adolescent employment.
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage in which an adolescent embarks on an ethnic identity search is similar to Marcia's _________.
A) identity diffusion
B) moratorium
C) foreclosure
D) identity achievement
Q2) Antonio is a studious high school student. He is taking into account his parents' and teachers' opinions when deciding which college he should choose. Antonio is also speaking to a career counselor to weigh his options. In the context of James Marcia's identity statuses, Antonio is most likely in the _____ stage.
A) identity diffusion
B) foreclosure
C) identity achievement
D) moratorium
Q3) Identify a true statement about adolescent suicides in the United States.
A) About seven in ten adolescents have attempted suicide at least once.
B) Since 1960, the suicide rate has decreased for young people aged 15 to 24.
C) About one to two U.S.adolescents in 10,000 commit suicide each year.
D) Suicide is the leading cause of death among adolescents in the United States.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss sexual harassment.
Q2) Describe substance use and abuse in early adulthood.
Q3) Liza's boss, Thomas, often asks her to sleep with him and once when she refused, he tried to hit her. These occurrences have made the workplace a hostile setting for Liza. This scenario illustrates _____ at the workplace.
A) red-tapeism
B) racial discrimination
C) nepotism
D) sexual harassment
Q4) Which of the following is the most accurate statement about rape?
A) Penile-vaginal penetration is always necessary to fit the definition of rape.
B) Most states in the United States permit the prosecution of husbands who rape their wives.
C) Only about 10 percent of rape victims are women, and their assailants are generally men.
D) Women aged 30 to 44 are two to three times more likely to be raped than younger women.
Q5) Describe the various menstrual problems that women experience in adulthood. Explain their symptoms and methods of treatment.
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Michael recently graduated from college and is working currently to pay back his college loans. He lives in an apartment. He has a girlfriend whom he wants to marry, and he is also wondering if he wants to have children someday. In the context of Levinson's theory on seasons a person goes through, all of these underlying factors contribute to Michael's _____.
A) life structure
B) social cognition
C) separation anxiety
D) self-concept
Q2) Today, single people:
A) are happy as they receive more benefits from the government.
B) have the same sexual interests and lifestyles as those who are not single.
C) encounter more social stigma as compared to the past.
D) are less likely to be perceived as socially inadequate.
Q3) According to Sternberg, liking someone is associated with intimacy alone, without passion or long-term commitment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
Q5) Describe the single life of young adults.
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of inflammation?
A) It is the primary function of the cardiovascular system.
B) It is characterized by unpleasant sensations, such as hot flushes and night sweats.
C) It leads to an increase in the brittleness and porosity of bones.
D) It increases the supply of white blood cells that combat antigens at the points of damage.
Q2) Which of the following best defines amenorrhea?
A) It is the lack of menstruation.
B) It is the recurring problem in reaching an orgasm.
C) It is the lack of sexual desire in women.
D) It is the onset of menstruation.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of a heart attack?
A) It can be fatal if the victim is not attended to within the first two hours.
B) It is caused by a deficiency of estrogen in the body.
C) It is caused by the uncontrollable division of cells.
D) It is treated by methods such as radiation and chemotherapy.
Q4) Does stress influence immunity levels in human beings?
Q5) Describe learning among people of middle adult age.
Q6) Discuss the physical changes in middle adulthood.
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following is true of people who experience a midlife crisis according to Levinson?
A) People experience enhanced self-confidence and self-esteem in middle adulthood.
B) People remain unaffected by marker events such as menopause or the death of a parent or a friend.
C) People engage in age-denying behaviors, such as having an extramarital affair.
D) People take on additional duties such as civic responsibilities to enhance their sense of being generative.
Q2) Kimberly is keenly observant of things around her and uses her information to craft imaginative stories. Her writings showcase her creativity with language. According to the "big five" model of personality factors, Kimberly displays _____.
A) openness to experience
B) hyperactivity
C) conscientiousness
D) attention deficit
Q3) Discuss how parent-child relationships evolve during middle adulthood.
Q4) Discuss the shifts in personality during middle adulthood.
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial temporal lobe is the executive center of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye.
A) Myopia
B) Cataract
C) Nystagmus
D) Glaucoma
Q3) Which of the following is true of free radicals?
A) They are produced during metabolism by oxidation.
B) They elongate telomeres.
C) They loosen body proteins and tissues.
D) They accelerate the secretion of enzymes by the endocrine system.
Q4) Which of the following statements is true in the context of cognitive development in older adults?
A) Aging is unlikely to affect the processing speed of individuals.
B) Aging has little effect on the retrospective memory of individuals.
C) Aging tends to affect explicit memory more than implicit memory.
D) Aging has a more detrimental effect on memory for single items than on associative memory.
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following allows older adults to reshape their lives to maximize their gains while minimizing their losses?
A) Ego transcendence
B) Ego identity achievement
C) Identity diffusion
D) Selective optimization with compensation
Q2) Leonora, a 75-year-old woman, has had a legal will prepared. She has bequeathed her life's savings to the charity of her choice. Her physical assets, such as her two homes, will be shared by her two daughters. Leonora's scenario illustrates _____.
A) ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation
B) denial of current decline and the approach of death
C) ego preoccupation and body preoccupation
D) an incoherent and self-contradictory life review
Q3) How do Robert Peck's three developmental tasks associated with late adulthood amplify Erikson's stage of ego integrity versus despair?
Q4) What is selective optimization with compensation?
Q5) In the context of late adulthood, discuss the validity of disengagement theory.
Q6) Discuss socioemotional selectivity theory.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Q1) Today, only a small minority of Americans die in their own homes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true with respect to grief?
A) There is usually a fixed period of time for which grief should last.
B) Grief usually tends to increase over time.
C) Young children and adolescents are unlikely to experience grief.
D) Different cultures prescribe different rituals for expressing grief.
Q3) According to Kübler-Ross's stages of dying, the stage of denial is usually followed by the stage of _________.
A) acceptance
B) depression
C) anger
D) bargaining
Q4) Which of the following is likely to help individuals depart their lives with dignity and integrity?
A) Choosing work-role preoccupation rather than ego differentiation
B) Gradually disengaging from society after middle adulthood
C) Stagnation rather than generativity in middle adulthood
D) Meeting squarely the challenges of their adult lives
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