Ecosystem Ecology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Ecosystem Ecology explores the complex interactions among living organisms and their physical environment, focusing on the flow of energy and cycling of nutrients within ecosystems. This course examines fundamental ecological processes such as primary production, food web dynamics, decomposition, and nutrient cycling across terrestrial, freshwater, and marine systems. Students will analyze how ecosystems respond to natural and human-induced disturbances, global change, and biodiversity loss. The course emphasizes analytical and conceptual tools to understand ecosystem structure, function, and resilience, preparing students to critically assess ecological research and apply ecosystem principles in real-world contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas
M. Smith
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biotic and abiotic components of the environment interacting together are referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: ecosystem
Q2) The mechanism that allowed the science of ecology to go beyond just descriptive natural history and instead study the processes which control distribution and abundance of organisms is
A)Lyell's theory on the age of the Earth.
B)Haeckel's study of botany.
C)Malthus' work on populations.
D)Darwin's theory of natural selection.
Answer: D
Q3) An ecologist who adds different amounts of nitrogen to specific plots of grasses uses a(n)________ to answer her research question.
Answer: field experiment
Q4) The number of seeds produced by a single flower affects the birth rate of that population of flowers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is used by plants to power photosynthesis.
Answer: Visible light or Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
Q2) Most of the energy from the sun that strikes Earth is used to power living systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Water vapour and ________ are the two major atmospheric gases that absorb energy from the sun.
A)oxygen
B)nitrogen
C)hydrogen
D)carbon dioxide
Answer: D
Q4) Mean global temperatures change with latitude and season.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution with a pH of 3
A)is more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 2.
B)has a higher concentration of OH than a solution with a pH of 4.
C)is neutral.
D)is more acidic than a solution with a pH of 3.5.
Answer: A
Q2) An aquifer refers to
A)an intermittent spring that flows during only part of the year.
B)a layer of water-bearing permeable rock, sand, or gravel.
C)any freshwater body of water.
D)the cool, dense layer of water at the bottom of a body of water.
Answer: B
Q3) Tidal overmixing
A)is influenced by density differences of salt and freshwater.
B)rarely occurs in an estuary.
C)is primarily influenced by freshwater input from upstream of the estuary.
D)has minimal effect on the organisms living in an estuary.
Answer: A
Q4) Water is a(n)________ molecule.
Answer: polar
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wavelength of light penetrates through plant cover the furthest?
A)violet (400 nm)
B)far-red (730 nm)
C)red (660 nm)
D)green (500 nm)
Q2) You examine a soil that is quite dark, even black. Because of this, you know that this soil has a high content of A)iron.
B)calcium.
C)humus.
D)gypsum.
Q3) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A)Topography affects the erosion of parent material.
B)Soil develops very rapidly, within several years.
C)Plants move nutrients from deep in the soil to the surface.
D)Plant roots stabilize the soil surface.
Q4) ________ particles control the water-holding capacity of soil and ion exchange.
Q5) In low-lying areas with poor drainage, ________ results in a black or bluish-grey soil with a high organic content.
Page 6
Q6) Draw a typical soil profile. Label and describe each of the four horizons.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the movement of individuals between local populations.
Q2) Humans have contributed to the prevalence of resistant bacteria by inappropriate use of antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researcher Beren Robinson has documented divergent natural selection in several populations of A)stickleback.
B)salamander.
C)finch.
D)white-tailed deer.
Q4) If the physical expression of a heterozygous individual is intermediate between those of the homozygotes, the alleles are ________.
Q5) Explain the ecotype concept.
Q6) The specific traits of a particular organism in a given environment are called A)mutations.
B)genes.
C)adaptations. D)phenotypes.
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two plant adaptations to low light and explain why these adaptations are unsuitable for plants in high-light environments.
Q2) Total carbon loss through respiration is a function of the total mass of living tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Organisms that derive their energy from sunlight are referred to as A)heterotrophs.
B)chemotrophs.
C)autotrophs.
D)none of the above.
Q4) The primary drawback of the C photosynthetic pathway is that
A)it requires large amounts of phosphorus and potassium.
B)it requires a large amount of nitrogen.
C)the enzyme Rubisco can also act as an oxygenase.
D)the enzyme Rubisco is subject to damage by UV radiation.
Q5) Photosynthesis transforms oxygen and carbon dioxide into carbohydrates and water.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss and describe several different strategies that herbivores use to extract nutrients from a cellulose-rich diet.
Q2) Homeotherms can sustain a higher level of physical activity for longer periods of time than poikilotherms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Detritivores
A)feed exclusively on live plant material.
B)eat other live animals.
C)drink only water.
D)feed on dead plant and animal material.
Q4) Animals that maintain a fairly constant internal temperature independent of external temperatures are called ________.
Q5) The homeothermic respiration rate is proportional to
A)surface area to volume ratio (SA/V).
B)nitrogen availability.
C)body mass.
D)air temperature.
Q6) Contrast the advantages of a fur coat on a camel and a squirrel.
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of time and energy that an organism allocates to reproduction is called
Q2) Offspring that are produced via asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the parent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In general, parental investment has a positive correlation with the number of young produced.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The more energy an organism spends on reproduction, the less it has available for growth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A lek is characterized by
A)females displaying in small, clumped territories lacking resources.
B)males defending resources in small, clumped territories.
C)females mating with only a small percentage of displaying males.
D)a group of females defended by a single dominant male.
Q6) Little parental care is required by ________ offspring.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe several ways that plants disperse.
Q2) Some animals migrate daily while others migrate seasonally. Give an example of each migration pattern and explain the benefit of this lifestyle to the organisms that you present.
Q3) The clumping of individuals into scattered groups can result from all the following, EXCEPT
A)resource availability.
B)social behaviour.
C)electromagnetic force.
D)geography.
Q4) The age of a tree is commonly determined by A)estimating tree height.
B)assessing the rate of CO consumption.
C)measuring the diameter of a trunk at breast height (dbh).
D)counting the number of leaves.
Q5) A round-trip movement of an individual from one place to another and back again is called ________.
Q6) When individuals move out of a subpopulation, it is referred to as ________.
Q7) An ________ is the proportion of individuals in the various age classes for any one year.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following equations is used to calculate generation time?
A)N(t)= b - d
B)Tc = xl b / l b
C)N(t)= N(0)e
D)dN/dt = rN
Q2) The maximum sustainable population size for the prevailing environment is called the ________.
Q3) There are two general types of survivorship curves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Life expectancy (e)is the same for an individual regardless of age.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A population in which equals one has reached a stable-age distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Exponential growth is characteristic of populations that inhabit favourable environments at high densities.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Density-independent population regulation
A)is usually catastrophic.
B)primarily affects large populations.
C)may involve disease transmission among individuals of the population.
D)is the result of the competition for available resources.
Q2) When a given area is saturated with territories, excluded individuals who lack a territory soon die of starvation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resource availability is the only density-dependent factor affecting a population. A)True
B)False
Q4) As the density of a population increases, the rate of reproduction increases. A)True
B)False
Q5) Give a specific example of how a density-independent factor affects a population. Explain why density-independent factors are less predictable in their effects than density-dependent factors.
Q6) Compare and contrast space capture in plants and territoriality in animals.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the four conditions necessary for the term metapopulation to apply to a system of local populations.
Q2) Increasing patch size has the potential to increase environmental ________.
Q3) At the ________, or within-patch scale, individuals move and interact with each other in the course of their routine feeding and breeding activities.
Q4) A ________ population cannot support a positive population growth and is only able to persist when individuals immigrate from elsewhere.
Q5) Describe the assumptions made to mathematically model metapopulation dynamics. Are these assumptions appropriate? Why or why not?
Q6) A collection of local subpopulations which can interact with each other is known as a A)megapopulation.
B)metapopulation.
C)suprapopulation.
D)community.
Q7) Metapopulation persistence is a dynamic balance between the ________ and (re)colonization of empty habitat patches.
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to T. Schoener, there are six types of competitive interactions among species. Use examples to describe four types of these competitive interactions.
Q2) Explain how the outcome of competition between two species is a function of both species and environmental characteristics.
Q3) The ________ principle states that two "complete competitors" cannot coexist.
Q4) A study which moves potential competitors in or out of sample plots is known as ________ experiments.
A)competitive
B)transplant
C)removal
D)null
Q5) Explain what is meant by a transplant experiment.
Q6) In the Lotka-Volterra equations, the zero ________ represent the combined values of species 1 and species 2 under which population growth is zero (dN/dt = 0).
Q7) In a competitive interaction in which species 1 has a higher carrying capacity (K )than species 2 (K ), it is expected that species ________ will go extinct.
Q8) How can a disturbance influence interspecific competition?
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defoliation kills deciduous plant species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Red Queen hypothesis refers to A)Hardy-Weinberg evolution. B)coevolution.
C)directional selection.
D)predator-prey oscillation.
Q3) Discuss the costs and benefits of each of the three hunting methods employed by predators.
Q4) Compare and contrast the role of jasmonic acid in plants and alarm calls in animals?
Q5) ________, or the amount of biomass eaten, is not necessarily the best measure of the importance of herbivory within a community.
Q6) According to the marginal value theorem, the amount of time a predator spends foraging in a patch will vary with resource quality and the time required to extract the resource.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) The concept of ________ energy is the basis for models of optimal foraging.
Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following symbiotic mutualisms involves a fungus?
A)lichens
B)legume-Rhizobium interactions
C)corals and zooxanthellae
D)gut microbe-ruminant interactions
Q2) Explain how the consumption of seeds or fruit by an animal could result in either parasitism or mutualism.
Q3) Parasites may regulate host populations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parasites that live on the skin of their host are called ________-parasites.
Q5) Animal parasites can be either ecto- or endoparasites, whereas all plant parasites live inside the plant tissue as endoparasites.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Plants often react to attacks on the leaf, stem, fruit, or seed by forming abnormal structures called ________.
Q7) An outbreak of canine distemper occurred in Toronto in 2010. Briefly explain why this may have happened and what the outcome was.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect interactions occur when
A)one species is influenced by interactions with many species.
B)one species does not interact with a second species but influences a third species, which interacts directly with the second.
C)a prey species is controlled by a predator species.
D)a predator species is controlled by a prey species.
Q2) The view developed by H. A. Gleason that communities result from similarities in species' requirements and tolerances for environmental factors is referred to as the ________ concept of communities.
Q3) Most communities have a few common species and many rare species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In aquatic ecosystems, the thermocline occurs in the epilimnion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)________ model of community structure assumes that interactions among species have no impact on community structure.
Q6) The ________ is a group of plant and animal species that inhabit a given area.
Q7) In a forest community, the upper layer is called the ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) A good example of succession involving heterotrophic species occurs when dead organic matter is decomposed over long periods of time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Autogenic environmental change is a direct result of the organisms within a community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The inhibition model of succession involves strong competitive interactions with the first species to arrive maintaining its position until it is weakened or dies, after which it yields space to another species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Succession usually involves only autotrophic species such as plants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Succession that occurs on a site that was previously occupied by another community is called ________ succession.
Q6) Outline and describe the three proposed mechanisms used in early succession.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the contrast between two adjoining habitat patches, the greater the diversity of species living along the border between the two patches.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly explain how silviculture practises could reduce devastating spruce budworm outbreaks. What are the disadvantages of this method and what are the alternative treatment options?
Q3) The variety and density of life is usually greatest in and around habitat edges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give two examples of disturbance, and explain how disturbance can alter a community.
Q5) Fire is a human-caused disturbance that is not a natural part of ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Strips of habitat that connect habitat patches are referred to as ________.
Q7) Discuss the major ecological differences between edge species and interior species.
Q8) Explain the role of disturbances in the shifting-mosaic view of the landscape.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the ecosystem can be considered the basic unit of nature.
Q2) Define the concepts of dynamic equilibrium and pulsing states as they apply to ecosystems.
Q3) Regional diversity is also known as beta diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The science of system regulation is called
A)cybernetics.
B)ecology.
C)intelligent design.
D)industrialisation.
Q5) ________ is the ability of a system to re-establish its former state after a disturbance.
A)Resistance
B)Resilience
C)Reliance
D)Relativity
Q6) Outline the three levels of diversity considered in the modern concept of biodiversity.
Q7) Briefly explain the difference in above and below ground plant competition.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) Allochthonous carbon input is most commonly found in ________ ecosystems.
A)terrestrial
B)stream
C)desert
D)ocean
Q2) Which organism is most likely to have the highest assimilation efficiency?
A)an endothermic carnivore, such as a lion
B)an ectothermic carnivore, such as a snake
C)an endothermic herbivore, such as a deer
D)an ectothermic herbivore, such as a grasshopper
Q3) In plants, low water availability favours the allocation of energy to the roots.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)________ chemical reaction must absorb energy in order to proceed.
Q5) Consumption efficiency is the ratio of ingestion to production.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The amount of accumulated organic matter found in an area at a given time is the ________ crop biomass.
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Q7) ________ is the primary factor that limits productivity in aquatic ecosystems.
Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compounds resistant to decomposition are known as A)labile.
B)recalcitrant.
C)cellulose.
D)humus.
Q2) Roots can alter the chemical environment of the rhizosphere by exuding A)carbon. B)nitrogen. C)enzymes.
D)nothing. Toots can only absorb, they cannot exude.
Q3) The release of organically bound nutrients into an inorganic form is called immobilization.
A)True B)False
Q4) Describe the soil microbial loop.
Q5) Describe three different processes that are important for decomposition. Explain which organisms are important for each of the processes.
Q6) The rate of nutrient cycling in an ecosystem depends on the rates of two key processes: primary productivity and ________.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Seasonal fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations are greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main reservoir for phosphorus is organic matter in the soil.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The biogeochemical cycles of one ecosystem are typically independent from those of other ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ is the largest pool of nitrogen.
Q5) There is more carbon per unit of soil in cold polar regions than in the warm tropics.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The source of all carbon in both living organisms and fossil deposits is carbon ________ in the atmosphere and in all the waters of the Earth.
Q7) Nitrogen is available to plants in two forms: ammonium and ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) The largest terrestrial biome on Earth is the A)tropical rainforest.
B)desert.
C)tundra.
D)boreal forest.
Q2) The dry forests of tropical regions are referred to as tropical savannahs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Frozen, treeless plains dominated by sedges, heaths, and willows at high latitudes and elevations are referred to as ________.
Q4) The highest diversity of plant and animal life occurs in A)tropical savannahs.
B)tropical rain forests.
C)temperate deciduous forests.
D)boreal forests.
Q5) Explain why the soils of rain forests are poor for agriculture.
Q6) Deciduous trees and shrubs occur in some areas of the tropics.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Leaves that live for more than a year are classified as ________.
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) When rivers flow into the ocean, they create a zone of mixing of freshwater with saltwater referred to as a(n)________.
Q2) Coral reefs occur in nutrient-poor areas of the ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As a stream or river descends, it generally grows
A)faster and cooler.
B)slower and warmer.
C)faster and warmer.
D)slower and cooler.
Q4) Phytoplankton thrive in the limnetic zone of lakes and ponds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Non-flowing water bodies, such as lakes, are referred to as lotic ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Reef-building corals have a symbiotic relationship with algal cells called ________ that live within the cells of corals.
Q7) Describe three different types of reefs and how they are formed.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Outline the interacting components that have led to the degradation of the Coote's Paradise Marsh in Lake Ontario. Can it recover?
Q2) Salt marshes
A)occur mostly in temperate latitudes.
B)are inhabited by plants that often have root extensions rising above the water.
C)are always submerged, except during the lowest of low tides.
D)are important nurseries for fishes.
Q3) Compare the physical conditions to which intertidal organisms must be adapted to in sandy and rocky shores.
Q4) Bird and mammal predators are more common in salt marshes during low tide than during high tide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In peatlands, the rate of decomposition exceeds the rate of organic production. A)True
B)False
Q6) Name three ecological zones within a rocky shore and discuss the different forms of life that occur in each.
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Outline the four critical components identified in variable retention harvesting practised on coastal BC forests. Briefly state why they are critical.
Q2) What are the pros and cons of aquaculture? What do you think is the solution to the cons?
Q3) Marine life that is caught, but is unwanted and discarded, is referred to as A)disposable.
B)excess.
C)bycatch.
D)refuse.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using chemical fertilizers such as nitrates and phosphates.
Q5) Traditional agriculture is dominated by ________ agriculture in which primarily human labor and draft animals are used to produce only enough crops or livestock for a family to survive.
Q6) List and describe three examples of sustainable farming practices used today.
Q7) The vast majority of human food resources are derived from agriculture.
A)True B)False
Q8) Explain how a natural ecosystem 'manages' its nutrients. Page 28
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) Briefly outline the evolution of vascular plants.
Q2) A species with a 20% or greater probability of extinction within 20 years or 5 generations, whichever is longer, is considered to be a(n)________ species.
Q3) The dispersal of plants and animals from one reserve to another within a network of reserves is best accomplished by
A)establishing buffer zones around reserves.
B)linking reserves with habitat corridors.
C)reintroducing individuals born and raised in captivity.
D)relocating individuals captured within their natural habitat.
Q4) The species richness of terrestrial plants and animals generally increases with elevation.
A)True B)False
Q5) A mass extinction of large mammals occurred during the ________ epoch.
Q6) The primary cause of modern extinctions is habitat destruction.
A)True B)False
Q7) Over the past 600 million years, the overall trend in the number of species has been
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) The atmospheric concentration of ________ has increased by more than 25% in the past century, largely due to the burning of fossil fuels.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur as a consequence of global climate change?
A)The distributions of plants and animals will move closer toward the equator.
B)The distributions of plants and animals in mountains will move downward to lower elevations.
C)The rates of decomposition and microbial activity will increase, thus increasing emissions of carbon dioxide.
D)The distribution of tropical rain forests will increase.
Q3) Which of the following biomes is most likely to increase its primary productivity in response to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide?
A)temperate coniferous forest
B)tropical rainforest
C)temperate grassland
D)temperate deciduous forest
Q4) Describe the potential impacts of global climate change on agricultural production.
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