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Economics of Money and Banking Exam Practice Tests - 1812 Verified Questions

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Economics of Money and Banking Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

This course explores the fundamental concepts and mechanisms in the economics of money and banking, focusing on the roles that money, financial markets, and financial institutions play in the broader economy. Students will examine the creation and regulation of money, the operations and structure of banks and central banks, the conduct of monetary policy, and the interactions between financial institutions and macroeconomic stability. Key topics include interest rates, inflation, the money supply process, bank management, and the effects of monetary policy on economic growth and financial crises. Through theoretical models and real-world case studies, students will gain a deeper understanding of how the financial system supports economic activity and the challenges faced by policymakers in maintaining financial stability.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Money Banking and Financial Markets 12th Edition by Ritter

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29 Chapters

1812 Verified Questions

1812 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introducing Money, Banking, and Financial Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Institutional traders do not typically engage in which of the following activities?

A) Quote bids and offers for securities on a continuous basis

B) Accommodate incoming purchase and sale orders from financial institutions

C) Alter quotes in response to changing market conditions

D) Act as stockbrokers

Answer: D

Q2) __________ generate(s)prices whenever securities are bought or sold.

A) Financial markets

B) Financial institutions

C) The Federal Reserve

D) The Securities and Exchange Commission

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is not a reference to "banking" in "money, banking, and financial markets?"

A) Commercial banks

B) Savings banks

C) Financial intermediaries

D) Markets in which financial assets can be traded

Answer: D

Page 3

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Chapter 2: The Role of Money in the Macroeconomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) The flow of spending depends on the supply of money and the velocity of money.

B) A higher level of GDP can be caused by higher prices or by increased production.

C) The determinants of the velocity of money are well-known and can be easily influenced by the Fed.

D) The Fed's main job is to regulate the flow of spending.

Answer: C

Q2) Changes in the money supply do not always cause predictable changes in the level of spending because

A) the velocity of money is not always constant.

B) the inflation rate varies.

C) the economy's proximity to full employment varies.

D) the saving rate varies.

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Financial Instruments, Markets, and Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) An index fund

A) is a bond fund that provides diversification.

B) is a mutual fund that buys the stocks that compose a well-known index.

C) is a growth fund that reduces transaction costs.

D) produces information on the securities it invests in.

Answer: B

Q2) __________ is not a cash flow associated with a bond.

A) Payment to purchase a bond

B) Periodic interest payments

C) Periodic dividend payments

D) Repayment of the face value when the bond matures

Answer: C

Q3) When borrower-spenders raise funds in financial markets, they issue new securities in the

A) primary market.

B) secondary market.

C) third market.

D) fourth market.

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Interest Rate Measurement and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) If an individual received a total of $400 in simple interest payments on a $1,000 loan over four years, the annual simple interest rate was

A) 15 percent.

B) 5 percent.

C) 4 percent.

D) 10 percent.

Q2) The demand for loanable funds is equivalent to the A) supply of loanable funds.

B) supply of securities.

C) demand for securities.

D) supply of bonds.

Q3) The coupon rate is equal to the A) yield to maturity for all bonds.

B) present value of the bond.

C) real rate of return.

D) interest rate printed on the face of the bond.

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Chapter 5: The Term and Risk Structure of Interest Rates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compared with long-term securities, the prices of short-term securities are always A) more volatile.

B) less volatile.

C) higher.

D) lower.

Q2) If the yield on long-term securities is greater than the yield on comparable short-term securities, the yield curve will be A) negatively sloped.

B) positively sloped.

C) in the negative quadrant.

D) undefined.

Q3) The fact that yields on short-term securities fluctuate more over the course of the business cycle supports which theory of the term structure?

A) Pure expectations

B) Preferred habitat

C) Supply and demand

D) Liquidity premium

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7

Chapter 6: The Structure and Performance of Securities Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) A characteristic of an efficient market is that A) prices are equal for all securities.

B) bid-asked spreads are large.

C) prices reflect all available information.

D) all investors receive a positive rate of return.

Q2) A market in which orders exist in large volume is said to have A) depth.

B) breadth.

C) resiliency.

D) efficiency.

Q3) If orders exist in large volume, then the market has A) depth.

B) breadth.

C) resiliency.

D) None of the above.

Q4) A security with a high degree of marketability sells at a price that is A) highly volatile.

B) unpredictable.

C) lower than other securities.

D) higher than the equilibrium price of less marketable securities.

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Chapter 7: The Pricing of Risky Financial Assets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evidence that most investors are risk averse is that they

A) buy a diversified portfolio.

B) buy different bonds with the same yield and maturity.

C) put most of their funds in one company's stock.

D) like to gamble.

Q2) Assume that a security has two possible outcomes. There is a 50 percent chance that the yield will equal 12 percent and a 50 percent chance that the yield will equal 4 percent. The expected yield for this security is

A) 16 percent.

B) 12 percent.

C) 8 percent.

D) 4 percent.

Q3) If asset returns are less than perfectly correlated, portfolio diversification

A) reduces systematic risk.

B) reduces nonsystematic risk.

C) increases systematic yields.

D) reduces systematic yields.

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Chapter 8: Money and Capital Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ is always larger than the __________.

A) yield on a discount basis; coupon equivalent yield

B) yield on a discount basis; bond equivalent yield

C) coupon equivalent yield; yield on a discount basis

D) None of the above.

Q2) The federal funds rate is always __________ the repo rate.

A) above

B) below

C) the same as

D) None of the above.

Q3) A "Jumbo" CD is one in excess of A) $1,000.

B) $10,000.

C) $50,000.

D) $100,000.

Q4) The rate at which banks will lend Eurodollars is A) the prime rate.

B) LIBOR.

C) the discount rate.

D) LIBID.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Demystifying Derivatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a determinant of option premiums?

A) The volatility of the underlying stock

B) The price of the underlying stock

C) The time to expiration of the option

D) All of the above are determinants of option premiums.

Q2) Options on individual stocks are not listed on the

A) New York Stock Exchange.

B) American Stock Exchange.

C) Nasdaq.

D) Pacific Stock Exchange.

Q3) In the financial futures quotations, the total number of long positions outstanding is called

A) settlements.

B) market activity.

C) open interest.

D) arbitrage.

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Chapter 10: Understanding Foreign Exchange

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Sample Questions

Q1) The United States has a balance of payments surplus with Europe. We would therefore expect the supply of euros to be __________ the demand for euros. Consequently, the euro should __________.

A) less than; appreciate

B) greater than; depreciate

C) less than; depreciate

D) greater than; appreciate

Q2) A rise in foreign productivity tends to __________ foreign prices and causes the dollar to __________ relative to the foreign currency.

A) raise; appreciate B) raise; depreciate

C) lower; appreciate D) lower; depreciate

Q3) We would expect the euro to depreciate when there is a __________ shift in the euro demand curve or a __________ shift in the euro supply curve.

A) rightward; rightward

B) rightward; leftward

C) leftward; rightward

D) leftward; leftward

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Page 12

Chapter 11: The Nature of Financial Intermediation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the 1980s, banks lost many of their __________ borrowers, because these borrowers were able to sell their commercial paper to __________.

A) small; savings-and-loan associations

B) small; money market mutual funds

C) large; savings-and-loan associations

D) large; money market mutual funds

Q2) In 1981, the combined net worth of the entire savings-and-loan industry in the United States was estimated by economists to be

A) $150 billion.

B) close to zero.

C) -$20 billion.

D) -$150 billion.

Q3) Consumer finance companies, because of the __________-term nature of their liabilities, prefer to hold __________-term assets.

A) long; long

B) long; short

C) short; long

D) short; short

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13

Chapter 12: Depository Financial Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A package of nontraded financial instruments can be transformed into a traded financial instrument through the process of

A) collateralization.

B) repurchasing.

C) securitization.

D) underwriting.

Q2) The Glass-Steagall Act prevented commercial banks from

A) opening branches in other states unless the bank is part of a bank holding company. B) getting into investment banking.

C) selling shares in themselves in the open market.

D) issuing commercial paper.

Q3) In 1964 a certain foreign bank opened a branch in the United States. That branch

A) has always been allowed to underwrite securities.

B) has never been allowed to underwrite securities.

C) gained the right to underwrite securities by the International Banking Act of 1978.

D) lost the right to underwrite securities by the International Banking Act of 1978.

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Chapter 13: Nondepository Financial Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________ contributions to a defined __________ pension plan are tax-deferred until retirement.

A) Employer; benefit

B) Employer; contribution

C) Employee; benefit

D) Employee; contribution

Q2) By requiring minimum reporting, disclosure, vesting, funding, and investment standards, the __________ helps safeguard employee pension rights.

A) Employee Retirement Income Security Act

B) Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

C) Social Security Act

D) Federal Reserve

Q3) Mutual funds that offer limited shares that are not redeemable are referred to as

A) open-end.

B) closed-end.

C) negotiable.

D) nonnegotiable.

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Chapter 14: Understanding Financial Contracts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Private placements avoid

A) restrictive agreements.

B) public disclosure of financial information that is required of securities that are registered with the SEC.

C) the need for collateral.

D) the primary market.

Q2) In consumer lending, asymmetric information

A) happens only with securitization.

B) cannot be dealt with using the same techniques as in business lending.

C) can be partly offset using the same techniques as in business lending.

D) may be virtually eliminated as a problem by just a collateral requirement.

Q3) The existence of a "bought deal" in public offerings of bonds came about as a result of

A) shelf registration.

B) a narrow underwriting spread.

C) the need of investment banks to form syndicates before underwriting an issue.

D) the need by underwriters to avoid as much risk as possible.

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Chapter 15: The Regulation of Markets and Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ is a regulator of intermediated markets?

A) SEC

B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission

C) NYSE

D) FDIC

Q2) For federally chartered banks, the "primary" federal regulator is the

A) Federal Reserve.

B) FDIC.

C) House Banking Committee.

D) Comptroller of the Currency.

Q3) Which of the following is not a reason for regulation of U.S. financial markets?

A) Protection of individual investors

B) Disclosure of information about securities is the best way to safeguard investors

C) Full disclosure broadens investor's participation in the financial markets

D) The operation of financial markets requires government regulation if they are to be efficient in channeling funds from savers to borrowers.

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Chapter 16: Financial System Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) The two major types of financial systems are the __________-oriented systems.

A) federal- and local

B) banking- and markets

C) securities- and equities

D) contributor- and stockholder

Q2) Eastern Europe is an information-__________ environment, which __________ the use of securities markets for large-firm financing.

A) poor; encourages B) poor; discourages

C) rich; encourages

D) rich; discourages

Q3) Conflict resolution of the manager-stockholder conflict in larger market-oriented firms is most effectively accomplished by

A) financial intermediation (monitoring).

B) financial intermediation (ownership consolidation).

C) rating agencies.

D) managerial compensation.

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Chapter 17: Who's in Charge Here?

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a permanent member of the FOMC?

A) The president of the New York Fed

B) The president of the Philadelphia Fed

C) The chairman of the board of governors

D) All of the above are permanent members of the FOMC.

Q2) Federal law required that no two Federal Reserve Board Governors come from the same

A) state.

B) political party.

C) industry.

D) Federal Reserve district.

Q3) The President of the United States appoints the

A) directors of the Federal Reserve regional banks.

B) presidents of the Federal Reserve regional banks.

C) Federal Advisory Council.

D) members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve.

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Chapter 18: Bank Reserves and the Money Supply

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assume that the required reserve ratio is 10 percent. A bank has deposits of $1,000,000 and cash of $500,000 in the Fed. The bank has demand deposits equal to $1,500,000. Given this information, the bank has excess reserves of A) $850,000.

B) $350,000.

C) $1,350,000.

D) None of the above.

Q2) An initial deficiency in reserves of $20 and a required reserve ratio of .5 lead to a maximum demand deposit contraction of A) $8.

B) $40.

C) $50.

D) $80.

Q3) If the required reserve ratio is .10, the demand deposit expansion multiplier is A) .1.

B) 4.

C) 5.

D) 10.

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20

Chapter 19: The Instruments of Central Bankin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A sound policy to combat a temporary liquidity shortage in the banking system would be

A) a reduction in the discount rate.

B) a decrease in the discount rate.

C) the purchase of government securities by the Fed under a repurchase agreement.

D) the sale of government securities by the Fed under a repurchase agreement.

Q2) When a bank borrows from the Federal Reserve the bank

A) receives a new deposit of legal reserves at the Federal Reserve.

B) creates a new checkable deposit payable to the Federal Reserve.

C) normally will do so because it has excess reserves.

D) loses reserves equal to the amount of the loan.

Q3) A repurchase agreement of government securities by the Fed

A) permanently increases bank reserves.

B) temporarily increases bank reserves.

C) permanently reduces bank reserves.

D) temporarily reduces bank reserves.

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Chapter 20: Understanding Movements in Bank Reserves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the balance sheet of the Federal Reserve?

A) Fed assets = Fed liabilities + Federal Reserve notes

B) Fed assets = Fed liabilities + Fed capital accounts

C) Fed assets = Fed liabilities + bank reserves

D) Fed assets = bank reserves + Federal Reserve notes outstanding

Q2) When the Fed receives an inflow of Federal Reserve notes, its A) assets rise.

B) liabilities decline.

C) liabilities increase.

D) assets decline.

Q3) If the Treasury prints currency to finance an expenditure, the impact on the money supply is similar to when the Treasury borrows from the A) banking system when it is fully loaned-up.

B) banking system when it has excess reserves.

C) non-bank public.

D) Federal Reserve.

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Chapter 21: Monetary Policy Strategy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Until the year 2000, the Humphrey-Hawkins Act directed the Fed to pursue all of the following, except

A) maximum employment.

B) price stability.

C) high economic growth.

D) moderate long-term interest rates.

Q2) The effectiveness of the federal funds rate as an operating target is limited because A) the Treasury often uses federal funds market.

B) reserve requirements often change.

C) the demand for reserves is difficult to predict.

D) the deposit expansion multiplier is difficult to predict.

Q3) The FOMC directive contains a target growth rate for A) nominal GDP.

B) real GDP.

C) the inflation rate.

D) M2.

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Chapter 22: The Classical Foundations

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Q1) Monetarists differ from Classical economists in that they argue that A) changes in the money supply affect only the price level in the long run.

B) velocity is not fixed but is predictable.

C) the economy tends to be stable around full employment.

D) the demand for money is a fixed fraction of nominal GDP.

Q2) In the Classical view, the money supply determines A) interest rates.

B) the saving rate.

C) aggregate supply.

D) the price level.

Q3) If I = S, then

A) C + I = S + I.

B) C + S = S + I.

C) C + S = C + I.

D) C - S = S - I.

Q4) In the Classical view, inflation is the result of A) excessive monetary growth.

B) speculation.

C) government spending.

D) natural disasters.

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Chapter 23: The Keynesian Framework

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Q1) If consumption equals $1,000 when income is $1,000 and increases to $1,900 when income increases to $2,000, then the marginal propensity to consume is

A) 0.50.

B) 0.90.

C) 1.00.

D) 2.00.

Q2) In the standard consumption function of C = a + bY, a change in corporate stock prices would be reflected by a change in A) Y.

B) b.

C) a.

D) both A and B.

Q3) Unlike the Classical economists, Keynes believed that money could affect real economic activity through its effects on A) the price level.

B) the interest rate.

C) savings.

D) velocity.

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25

Chapter 24: The ISLM World

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Q1) Along an IS curve as income levels __________, saving is smaller, so the interest rate must be __________ to reduce the level of investment so it will be equal to saving.

A) increase; higher

B) increase; lower

C) decrease; higher

D) decrease; lower

Q2) The slope of the IS curve will be flatter the __________ is the sensitivity of investment to a unit change in the interest rate and the __________ is marginal propensity to save.

A) greater; larger

B) greater; smaller

C) less; larger

D) less; smaller

Q3) Suppose k = 0.2. With a $200 billion increase in the money supply, the LM curve shifts

A) to the right by $40 billion.

B) to the left by $160 billion.

C) to the left by $200 billion.

D) to the right by $1000 billion.

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Chapter 25: Money and Economic Stability in the ISLM World

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Q1) Monetarists believe in a relatively unstable __________ curve, and thus recommend a monetary policy targeting the __________.

A) IS; money supply

B) IS; interest rate

C) LM; money supply

D) LM; interest rate

Q2) The LM curve automatically shifts to the right when the intersection point of the IS and LM curves occurs at a point

A) beyond full-employment income.

B) in the liquidity trap.

C) less than full-employment income.

D) where planned saving is less than planned investment.

Q3) The quantity of money demanded increases at every combination of GDP and interest rate. If the Fed holds to an unchanged interest rate target, the interest rate __________ and GDP __________.

A) rises; falls

B) rises; remains unchanged

C) remains unchanged; remains unchanged

D) remains unchanged; falls

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Chapter 26: An Aggregate Supply and Demand Perspective on Money and Economic Stability

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Q1) Abandonment of continual active discretionary counter-cyclical policies is advocated by

A) Keynesians.

B) Monetarists.

C) both Keynesians and Monetarists.

D) neither Keynesians nor Monetarists.

Q2) __________ argue that any exogenous decrease in investment spending would be countered automatically by either increased consumption or interest-sensitive investment spending.

A) Monetarists

B) Keynesians

C) Classical economists

D) None of the above.

Q3) A decrease in the money supply will immediately __________ the __________ interest rate, according to the "liquidity effect."

A) raise; natural

B) raise; nominal

C) lower; natural

D) lower; nominal

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Chapter 27: Rational Expectations: Theory and Policy

Implications

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Q1) If an inflation forecast is based on expected monetary growth, it is likely to be A) historical.

B) rational.

C) logical.

D) adaptive.

Q2) Real wages will decline if

A) money supply growth exceeds expectations.

B) real interest rates rise.

C) aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply.

D) money supply growth exceeds the inflation rate.

Q3) The primary incentive for economic agents to formulate expectations rationally is to A) increase earnings.

B) increase prices.

C) reduce prices.

D) ensure that all expectations are realized.

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Chapter 28: Empirical Evidence on the Effectiveness of Monetary Policy

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Q1) Approximately __________ of the impact of monetary policy on GDP after one year stems from the effective of changes in wealth on consumer spending.

A) 10 percent

B) 25 percent

C) 50 percent

D) 75 percent

Q2) A Keynesian econometric model is likely to emphasize that monetary policy affects economic activity through changes in

A) the money supply.

B) reserve requirements.

C) interest rates.

D) currency holding by the public.

Q3) The inability of the Federal Reserve to explain movements in M1 demand has led to

A) less emphasis on money growth as a policy tool.

B) the Federal Reserve's targeting V1 growth more closely.

C) the Federal Reserve's switching to M2 and M3 targets.

D) All of the above.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Tying It All Together

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Q1) In the stock valuation formula "good news" affects both the numerator and denominator. Conventional wisdom on Wall Street is that the effect on the __________ is __________ the effect on the __________.

A) numerator; less than; denominator

B) numerator; greater than; denominator

C) numerator; the same as; denominator

D) None of the above.

Q2) An unexpected fall in the Producer Price Index should send bond prices __________ and stock prices __________.

A) up; up

B) up; down

C) down; up

D) down; down

Q3) News about __________ sends stock and bond prices in the same direction.

A) some expenditure indicators

B) GDP

C) inflation

D) capacity utilization

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