Ecology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Ecology is the scientific study of interactions between organisms and their environment, encompassing the relationships among living beings as well as their interactions with physical and chemical aspects of their surroundings. This course introduces fundamental concepts such as energy flow, nutrient cycling, population dynamics, community structure, and ecosystem function. Students will also examine the impact of human activities on natural systems and explore strategies for conservation and sustainability. Through lectures, fieldwork, and laboratory activities, learners will develop a comprehensive understanding of ecological principles and their applications to real-world environmental issues.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ecology is an interdisciplinary science that relies heavily on many different branches of science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Ecology is the same as environmentalism.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) An ecologist who adds different amounts of nitrogen to specific plots of grasses uses a(n)________ to answer her research question.
Answer: field experiment
Q4) Whether abiotic or biotic, environmental factors fall into one of three categories
A)resources, conditions, or hazards.
B)animal, vegetable, or mineral.
C)food, water, or mates.
D)individual, population, or community.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why air temperature decreases as one moves further from Earth's surface into higher altitudes.
Answer: Air temperature decreases as one moves further from Earth's surface into higher altitudes due to the decrease in air pressure with increasing altitude. As altitude increases, the air becomes less dense and the molecules are more spread out. This means that there are fewer air molecules to absorb and retain heat, leading to a decrease in temperature. Additionally, the higher altitudes receive less direct sunlight, which also contributes to the decrease in temperature. This phenomenon is known as the lapse rate, where for every 1000 feet increase in altitude, the temperature typically decreases by about 3.5°F. Overall, the combination of lower air pressure, reduced air density, and decreased sunlight at higher altitudes results in a decrease in air temperature as one moves further from Earth's surface.
Q2) Air loses most of its water content as it moves up and over a mountain range and causes a ________ to form on the leeward side of the same range.
Answer: rain shadow
Q3) As altitude above sea level increases, both air pressure and density ________.
Answer: decrease
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solar radiation is the driving force behind the water cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Individual water molecules are joined together by ________ bonds. Answer: hydrogen
Q3) The density of seawater increases when
A)temperature and salinity decrease.
B)temperature and salinity increase.
C)temperature increases and salinity decreases.
D)temperature decreases and salinity increases.
Answer: D
Q4) Precipitation that reaches the soil moves into the ground by ________. Answer: infiltration
Q5) Of the visible light spectrum, green wavelengths penetrate the deepest into water. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) You examine a soil that is quite dark, even black. Because of this, you know that this soil has a high content of A)iron.
B)calcium.
C)humus.
D)gypsum.
Q2) Clay particles and salts tend to accumulate in the ________ horizon.
A)A
B)B
C)C D)O
Q3) The bedrock lies above the C horizon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A collective sequence of horizontal layers in soil is a ________.
Q5) Each of the following is a challenge faced by a terrestrial plant EXCEPT A)buoyancy.
B)desiccation.
C)cells and tissues to maintain structure.
D)variability in air temperature.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following conditions would genetic drift exert the greatest influence?
A)a population with a large range
B)a small population
C)a very large population
D)a population that has access to sufficient resources
Q2) An organism that derives its energy from sunlight is a(n)________.
Q3) Explain the concept of a trade-off and suggest how this idea relates to the diversity of species we see among different habitats.
Q4) Which of the following characteristics is an example of a qualitative trait?
A)flower colour
B)arm length
C)body weight
D)root length
Q5) Charles Darwin advocated a theory of evolution by individuals acquiring useful characteristics during their lifetimes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the movement of individuals between local populations.
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enters a plant via its stomata?
A)CO
B)H O
C)phosphorus
D)O
Q2) Carbon balance focuses on the balance between
A)uptake of CO in photosynthesis and loss of heat via evapotranspiration.
B)loss of CO through respiration and gain of nutrients.
C)loss of H O balanced with the gain of CO via transpiration.
D)uptake of CO in photosynthesis balanced with the loss of CO during respiration.
Q3) Features of the physical environment that directly influence plants, such as light and temperature, typically act on plants independently from each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spongy passages, or ________, allow for the transport of oxygen and other gases to submerged roots.
Q5) Draw a graph to illustrate how gross photosynthesis and respiration respond to temperature change. Label T pt on the graph.
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factor is known to constrain animal body shape and size?
A)access to water
B)atmospheric pressure
C)oxygen diffusion rate
D)nitrogen availability
Q2) Which of the following is unique to some small mammals in order to increase heat production?
A)fur
B)brown fat
C)shivering
D)evaporative cooling
Q3) Living tissue is ________ dense than water.
Q4) Compare and contrast the torpor states of a bat, chipmunk, and black bear.
Q5) Describe the physiological consequences suffered by ruminants when the mineral content of vegetation is low (e.g., springtime).
Q6) An organism that obtains its energy and most nutrients from consuming plants or animals is called a(n)________.
Q7) Use an example to explain how poikilotherms change behaviour and exploit microclimates to regulate body temperature.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Q1) Explain why siblicide is common among bird species when resources are rare. Why is this an effective strategy under these conditions?
Q2) Individual organisms that possess both male and female organs are considered ________.
Q3) The mating system most prevalent in birds is ________.
Q4) Offspring that are produced via asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the parent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Generally, female peacocks prefer a male peacock with a larger ________.
Q6) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)Perennial plants generally delay reproduction until they have attained a certain size.
B)Fecundity in poikilothermic animals, such as fish, increases with age.
C)The number of eggs produced by a female loggerhead sea turtle is constrained by her body size.
D)Fecundity generally declines with body size in endotherms.
Q7) Seed number is negatively correlated with seed ________.
Q8) The production of offspring, or ________, generally increases with size.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collective of local subpopulations is called a(n)
A)genet.
B)ramet.
C)metapopulation.
D)ecogroup.
Q2) The age of a fish can be determined by counting the annual rings of otoliths (ear stones).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The age of a tree is commonly determined by
A)estimating tree height.
B)assessing the rate of CO consumption.
C)measuring the diameter of a trunk at breast height (dbh).
D)counting the number of leaves.
Q4) The most widely used technique to estimate the size of animal populations is A)quadrat sampling.
B)mark-recapture.
C)counts of animal scat.
D)direct counts of all individuals.
Q5) When individuals move out of a subpopulation, it is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Q1) Compare and contrast the two basic types of life tables. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each.
Q2) Movement in and out of a population does not occur in a(n)________ population.
Q3) What is the difference between exponential growth and logistic growth? Under what ecological conditions does each occur?
Q4) Colonizing populations generally exhibit ________ population growth while they establish in a new environment.
A)exponential
B)logistic
C)tangential
D)dynamic
Q5) Explain a population cycle. What factors contribute to this phenomenon?
Q6) In a given life table, x represents the age classes of that population.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A population in which equals one has reached a stable-age distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The per capita death rate (d)________ with population size.
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the impact of high-density conditions on non-modular organisms using amphibians as examples.
Q2) Competition among individuals of the same species is referred to as ________ competition.
Q3) In general, the size of an animal's territory
A)is smaller when food is abundant and concentrated.
B)is larger when food is abundant and concentrated.
C)is unrelated to animal body size.
D)is unrelated to food availability.
Q4) In the wild, the regional population size of wolves is controlled by
A)alpha male dominance.
B)beta female reproduction.
C)other predators.
D)food supply.
Q5) Which of the following factors is most likely to be a density-independent regulator of population growth?
A)drought
B)disease
C)starvation
D)parasites
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conversion of natural ecosystems to agricultural production tends to synchronize metapopulation dynamics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The probability of colonization increases with increasing patch size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Increasing patch size has the potential to increase environmental ________.
Q4) The rate of dispersal is greater in species occupying temporary habitats than in stable habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of the population concept?
A)local population < metapopulation < subspecies < species
B)metapopulation < local population < subspecies < species
C)local population < metapopulation < species < subspecies
D)metapopulation < local population < species < subspecies
Q6) A ________ population cannot support a positive population growth and is only able to persist when individuals immigrate from elsewhere.
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Q1) The ________ coefficients represent the per capita effect of an individual of one species on the other.
Q2) Competition rarely influences the evolution of species' niches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a competitive interaction in which species 1 has a higher carrying capacity (K )than species 2 (K ), it is expected that species ________ will go extinct.
Q4) Explain what is meant by a transplant experiment.
Q5) Explain how it is possible for a diversity of potential competitors to coexist in the same community, despite the competitive exclusion principle.
Q6) ________ competition results when nonterritorial behavioural interactions between species result in negative effects on one or both species.
A)Consumption
B)Preemption
C)Encounter
D)Overgrowth
Q7) The ________ principle states that two "complete competitors" cannot coexist.
Q8) How can a disturbance influence interspecific competition?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pursuit hunting is typical of reptile and amphibian species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Quantitative inhibitors may constitute up to 60% of the dry weight of a leaf.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A predator's ________ is the increase in predator reproduction in response to an increase in the consumption of prey.
Q4) Predators can influence prey only through lethal, rather than nonlethal, effects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A type ________ functional response occurs when the number of prey taken per predator increases quickly at first with prey density and then increases at a much slower rate as prey density continues to increase.
Q6) Object resemblance is an effective but very uncommon predator avoidance strategy among insects.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lichen is a symbiotic mutualism between a fungus and an alga.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mutualism in which two species must live together and cannot survive when apart is referred to as a(n)
A)obligatory mutualism.
B)trophic mutualism.
C)dispersive mutualism.
D)facultative mutualism.
Q3) Which of the following is a potential response by a plant host to a parasite?
A)formation of a gall
B)allelopathy
C)production of lymphocytes
D)growing more rapidly
Q4) Which of the following is likely to be the first response of an animal host to a new parasite?
A)formation of a cyst
B)allelopathy
C)inflammatory response
D)immune response
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competition among plant species rarely involves only a single resource.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between the organismal concept of communities and the individualistic continuum concept. Which of these concepts best describes the majority of communities? Explain your answer.
Q3) A(n)________ model of community structure assumes that interactions among species have no impact on community structure.
Q4) The species diversity of a community is defined by both the number of species and the evenness of the species' relative abundances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The two major determinants of regional and global patterns of vegetation distribution include
A)soil and temperature.
B)soil and moisture.
C)temperature and moisture.
D)temperature and animal communities.
Q6) ________ describes the number of trophic links in a food web.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) Succession usually involves only autotrophic species such as plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In primary succession, only ________ species function as pioneers.
A)invertebrate
B)plant
C)generalist
D)stress-tolerant
Q3) In the early stages of plant succession, shade-intolerant species are often common.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using a specific example, discuss the ecological differences between early successional species and late successional species within a sere.
Q5) Succession involves
A)only autotrophic species.
B)only heterotrophic species.
C)both autotrophic and heterotrophic species.
D)only plants.
Q6) ________ is a temporal change in community composition and structure.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wind can function as an agent of disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patch size is generally more important for plant populations than for animal populations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The variety and density of life is usually greatest in and around habitat edges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The intensity of a disturbance is measured by the proportion of total biomass or the population of a species that is killed or eliminated by a disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) MacArthur and Wilson's theory of ________ was developed to explain the number of species on islands, but it has been applied to patches of habitat as well.
Q6) Plants adapted to living at the edges of forests are usually tolerant of shade. A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define positive and negative feedback. Using examples, explain how these function in an ecosystem
Q2) Stress thresholds that, once surpassed, shift an ecosystem into an alternative stable state are known as
A)critical variables.
B)essential nutrients.
C)tipping points.
D)tolerance limits.
Q3) ________ is the ability of a system to remain the same when confronted with a disturbance.
A)Resistance
B)Resilience
C)Reliance
D)Relativity
Q4) Explain the Gaia hypothesis in the context of cybernetics.
Q5) Define the concepts of dynamic equilibrium and pulsing states as they apply to ecosystems.
Q6) Define the diversity-stability hypothesis and the biodiversity-ecosystem functioning (BEF)hypothesis.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Net primary productivity is greater in warm climates than in cold climates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endotherms typically have a higher assimilation efficiency than ectotherms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In terrestrial and shallow-water ecosystems, the grazing food chain is dominant over the detrital food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most terrestrial and many aquatic ecosystems, the ________ food chain is the dominant pathway of energy flow.
A)detrital
B)grazing
C)consumer
D)heterotroph
Q5) Within any ecosystem, there are two major food chains: the ________ food chain and the grazing food chain.
Q6) ________ is the primary factor that limits productivity in aquatic ecosystems.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) In a process known as the ________, the rise and fall of water depth with tidal cycles brings nutrients into coastal marshes from coastal ocean waters.
Q2) In open water ecosystems, decomposition occurs primarily in the A)thermocline.
B)hypolimnion.
C)epilimnion.
D)benthic zone.
Q3) Outline the decomposition sequence for leaf litter and which functional groups are responsible for which stages.
Q4) The last organic compound to be decomposed in plant matter is A)cellulose.
B)lignin.
C)sugar.
D)humus.
Q5) The breakdown of chemical bonds that were formed during the construction of plant and animal tissues is called ________.
Q6) Describe three different processes that are important for decomposition. Explain which organisms are important for each of the processes.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) The biogeochemical cycles of one ecosystem are typically independent from those of other ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The element ________ is a basic constituent of all organic compounds and is involved in the fixation of energy by photosynthesis.
Q3) Much of the problem associated with forest die-back is a direct result of
A)high heavy metal levels.
B)denitrifying bacteria.
C)soil acidification.
D)global climate change.
Q4) Phosphorus is typically in short supply in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. A)True
B)False
Q5) The difference between the rate of carbon uptake in photosynthesis and the rate of carbon loss due to autotrophic and heterotrophic respiration is the net ________ productivity.
Q6) There are two basic types of biogeochemical cycles: gaseous and ________.
Q7) The main reservoirs of oxygen are water and ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following is the predominant leaf form of environments where the growing season is very short or where nutrient availability severely constrains photosynthesis and plant growth?
A)winter-deciduous leaves
B)drought-deciduous leaves
C)broad-leaf evergreen leaves
D)needle-leaf evergreen leaves
Q2) The independent evolution of a similar characteristic in two different species, not derived from a recent, common ancestor is referred to as
A)microevolution.
B)divergent evolution.
C)convergent evolution.
D)macroevolution.
Q3) The dominant biome in Mediterranean climates with hot, dry summers and cool, moist winters is
A)temperate shrubland.
B)temperate deciduous forest.
C)desert.
D)tropical savannah.
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) The organisms living on the bottom of the ocean are collectively referred to as A)nekton.
B)benthos.
C)meiofauna.
D)epifauna.
Q2) Coral reefs occur in nutrient-poor areas of the ocean.
A)True B)False
Q3) The zone in the ocean from the surface to approximately 200 metres deep is called the ________, or photic, zone.
Q4) ________ refers to the nutrient enrichment of aquatic ecosystems.
Q5) In streams and rivers, decomposition occurs primarily in A)the benthic zone.
B)riffles.
C)pools.
D)the lotic zone.
Q6) In the profundal zone of a lake or pond, the rate of photosynthesis exceeds the rate of respiration.
A)True B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Freshwater wetlands dominated by woody vegetation are referred to as A)swamps.
B)marshes.
C)mangrove forests, or mangals.
D)prairie potholes.
Q2) Organisms living on the sediment surface of sandy and muddy beaches are collectively referred to as ________.
Q3) Outline the interacting components that have led to the degradation of the Coote's Paradise Marsh in Lake Ontario. Can it recover?
Q4) Salinity is more variable in the intertidal zone of rocky shores than in sandy and muddy shores.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Because bogs depend on precipitation for nutrient inputs, they are highly deficient in mineral salts and are low in pH.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The root extensions of mangroves are called ________.
Q7) Discuss the flow of water and nutrients in three topographic types of wetlands.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) A field of corn is an example of polyculture. A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ agriculture refers to maintaining agriculture production indefinitely while minimizing environmental impacts.
Q3) ________-cutting is the complete removal of a forest during harvest.
Q4) ________ occur when the actions of one individual (or group of individuals)affect another individual's well-being, but the relevant costs (or benefits)are not reflected in market prices.
Q5) ________ is a technique employed to add and compare costs and benefits that occur at different points in time.
Q6) Different agricultural methods represent a trade-off between sustainability and ________.
Q7) Selective cutting usually involves leaving a small number of seed-bearing trees, which are a source of seed for establishment of natural vegetation after harvest. A)True
B)False
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Q8) The amount of a resource harvested per unit time is called ________.
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) Degraded habitats cannot be restored even close to their original condition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As latitude increases, the number of terrestrial species ________.
Q3) The species richness of terrestrial plants and animals generally increases with elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the difference between conservation and preservation. Identify and explain the rationales for maintaining biodiversity.
Q5) The number of individuals necessary to ensure the long-term survival of a species is called the minimum ________ population.
Q6) The end of the Pleistocene epoch was marked by a mass extinction of A)shallow-water marine invertebrates.
B)dinosaurs and other large reptiles.
C)small mammals.
D)large mammals.
Q7) As latitude increases, the number of marine species ________.
Q8) As latitude increases, marine productivity ________.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas that is increasing as a result of human activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) General circulation models predict that global warming will be greatest during the winter months and in northern latitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to occur as a consequence of global climate change?
A)increases in sea levels, coastal erosion, flooding, and salinity of aquifers
B)increases in sea levels, coastal erosion, flooding, and a decrease in salinity of aquifers
C)increases in sea levels and coastal erosion and decreases in flooding and salinity of aquifers
D)an increase in sea levels and decreases in coastal erosion, flooding, and salinity of aquifers
Q4) How do plants respond to elevated atmospheric carbon dioxide? Do all plants respond the same way?
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