Ecology is the scientific study of the interactions between living organisms and their environments, encompassing the relationships that organisms have with each other, with other species, and with their physical surroundings. This course explores fundamental ecological principles such as energy flow, nutrient cycling, population dynamics, community structure, and ecosystem function. It also examines the impact of human activities on natural systems and the importance of biodiversity and conservation. Through lectures, discussions, and field investigations, students will develop a comprehensive understanding of ecological processes and their significance in sustaining life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology.
Answer: individual organism
Q2) Whether abiotic or biotic, environmental factors fall into one of three categories
A)resources, conditions, or hazards.
B)animal, vegetable, or mineral.
C)food, water, or mates.
D)individual, population, or community.
Answer: A
Q3) Science is a process of testing and correcting concepts in order to explain the world around us.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) An abstract, simplified representation of a real system is referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: model
Q5) At the ________ level, an ecologist might focus on the factors that affect the relative abundance of various populations in the area.
Answer: community
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Q1) The rate of adiabatic cooling depends on the A)amount of moisture in the air.
B)temperature of the air.
C)latitude.
D)season.
Answer: A
Q2) In the vicinity of the Equator, air typically
A)rises, cools, and precipitates.
B)descends, warms, and precipitates.
C)rises, cools, and is dry.
D)descends, warms, and is dry.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A)equatorial low: rising air heated in the equatorial zone
B)subtropical high: semipermanent high-pressure belt of air at 30° north and south of the equator
C)Coriolis effect: deflection in the pattern of wind flow
D)subpolar low: right-deflected, southward-flowing stream of air
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The turnover rate of water in the atmosphere is nearly 3000 years.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Major tides are influenced by only the Moon, not the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Temperatures fluctuate less in aquatic habitats than in terrestrial habitats.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The gravitational pull of the Moon on Earth's oceans cause ________ to form on opposite sides of the Earth.
A)intertidal zones
B)estuaries
C)fluctuations
D)tidal bulges
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is agreed that soil is teeming with life and is a three-dimensional unit, having length, ________, and depth.
Q2) Air is less dense than water and, as a result, decreases the effect of gravity on terrestrial organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The formation of well-developed soils takes approximately 500 years. A)True
B)False
Q4) The layer of unconsolidated debris overlaying the layer of hard, unweathered rock is called the ________.
Q5) The parent material of soils may originate from underlying bedrock or be deposited by glacial, eolian (wind), gravitational, or ________ processes.
Q6) Soil particles are classified based on A)age. B)colour.
C)water content. D)size.
Q7) ________ particles control the water-holding capacity of soil and ion exchange.
6
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Q1) A bimodal distribution of a trait in a population is the result of A)stabilizing selection.
B)natural selection.
C)directional selection.
D)disruptive selection.
Q2) The effect of positive assortative mating is to
A)increase the number of homozygotes in the population.
B)increase the number of heterozygotes in the population.
C)reduce the number of individuals with diseases in the population.
D)increase the fertility of individuals in the population.
Q3) The simplest response an individual organism can make to a change in environmental conditions is to A)remain still.
B)move to a more suitable location.
C)produce offspring that are better suited to the new conditions.
D)reduce foraging activity.
Q4) Peter and Rosemary Grant documented natural selection and evolution in a population of finches in the Galapagos Islands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why a plant growing in waterlogged soil suffers similar symptoms to a plant exposed to drought conditions. Describe the responses these plants can make to survive in such extreme environments.
Q2) Halophytes accumulate high levels of ions within their cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how the allocation of carbon to plant roots influences net carbon gain by plants.
Q4) Many plants adapted to arid environments utilize the ________ photosynthetic pathway to fix CO during the night.
Q5) Compared with plants growing in high light, plants growing in shaded environments tend to produce ________ Rubisco.
A)equal amounts of B)more
C)less
D)a different type of
Q6) The process of water loss by plants through stomata is called ________.
Q7) Plants determine when to flower based on environmental cues. Identify three categories of plants and what cues they use.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liquid water is the sole source of water for terrestrial animals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ectotherm has a lower caloric requirement than an endotherm of similar size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following characterize a hibernating homeotherm, EXCEPT
A)low blood pH.
B)high CO level in blood.
C)increased heart rate.
D)decrease in body temperature.
Q4) Which of the following is incorrect?
A)A grazer has a high cellulose diet.
B)By itself, a browser is unable to extract all the nutrients from woody material.
C)An herbivore may also be a frugivore.
D)A granivore feeds on fruits.
Q5) ________ are less dense than seawater and are present in fish that lack swim bladders.
Q6) What are the risks associated with basking? How can they be mitigated?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Q1) The amount of time and energy that an organism allocates to reproduction is called
Q2) Asynchronous hatching
A)ensures survival of all offspring in times of limited resources.
B)is practiced by many insect species.
C)favours the survival of the early hatched young.
D)is the same as siblicide.
Q3) An r-strategist is characterized by
A)slow population growth.
B)a slow rate of development.
C)a long life expectancy.
D)density-independent mortality.
Q4) Dioecious plants have both male and female parts on the same plant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mating system most prevalent in birds is ________.
Q6) In birds, siblicide is more likely to occur when the hatching of eggs is asynchronous rather than synchronous.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) The most widely used technique to estimate the size of animal populations is A)quadrat sampling.
B)mark-recapture.
C)counts of animal scat.
D)direct counts of all individuals.
Q2) For plants, the distribution of age classes in an age pyramid is often highly skewed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A population reaches a stable-age distribution when
A)the population stops growing.
B)the birthrate is less than the deathrate.
C)the net reproductive rate (R )is zero.
D)the proportion of individuals in each age group remains the same.
Q4) A module developed asexually from a genet is known as a ________.
Q5) ________ defines the size of a population.
Q6) A graph that compares the relative size of different age groups within a population is called a(n)________.
Q7) Describe several ways that plants disperse.
Q8) In most cases, population density must be estimated by ________.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Survivorship curves plot ________ against x.
A)d
B)l
C)log l
D)q
Q2) In a life table, the value l represents the
A)age-specific mortality rate.
B)age-specific life expectancy.
C)age-specific mortality.
D)the probability at birth of surviving to any given age.
Q3) A ________ life table is constructed by sampling the population to obtain a distribution of age classes during a single time period.
Q4) A small population is at a greater risk of extinction because A)there is less competition within the population.
B)of an increase in the genetic diversity within the population.
C)most of the individuals would likely die in a stochastic event (e.g., wildfire).
D)females can no longer reproduce.
Q5) A group of individuals born in the same period of time is called a(n)________.
Q6) Adult birds exhibit a type ________ survivorship curve.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home range of an animal is usually larger for
A)a carnivorous species than for a herbivorous species of the same body size.
B)females than males of the same species.
C)an immature male than for an adult male of the same species.
D)a smaller species than for a larger species.
Q2) The rate of aggressive interactions among individuals increases as population density increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resource availability is the only density-dependent factor affecting a population. A)True
B)False
Q4) Individual organisms spaced out more than is expected from a random occupancy of suitable habitat is an alternate (and appropriate)definition of ________.
Q5) Factors that influence population growth that do not change systematically with the density of the population are called ________ factors.
Q6) Explain how altruism may not be in conflict with the principles of natural selection.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Q1) ________ rate is affected by fecundity and mode of reproduction.
Q2) Increasing patch size has the potential to increase environmental ________.
Q3) As the habitat heterogeneity of a patch increases
A)environmental stochasticity has a greater impact.
B)the probability of extinction decreases.
C)the probability of colonization decreases.
D)birth rates decrease.
Q4) In a typical metapopulation
A)suitable habitat is relatively uniform rather than patchy.
B)even the largest subpopulations are at risk of extinction.
C)the isolation of habitat patches prevent recolonization after local extinction.
D)the dynamics of local populations are synchronized.
Q5) In a metapopulation, within-patch population dynamics are governed primarily by A)birth and death rates.
B)dispersal and colonization.
C)predation and parasitism.
D)stochastic processes.
Q6) A ________ consists of a group of local, interacting subpopulations that are linked by dispersal.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because all plants require the same few resources (light, water, essential nutrients), resource partitioning is rarely observed for plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how the outcome of competition between two species is a function of both species and environmental characteristics.
Q3) The portion of potential resources and conditions that an organism actually exploits as a result of interactions with other species is its A)home range.
B)territory.
C)realized niche.
D)fundamental niche.
Q4) Competition rarely influences the evolution of species' niches.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the idea of "ghosts of competition past" coined by ecologist J. Connell. What does this concept refer to and why is it important to our understanding of evolution and diversity?
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carnivores can have an indirect, positive effect on plants by reducing populations of herbivores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the costs and benefits of each of the three hunting methods employed by predators.
Q3) ________ mimicry involves a non-toxic species that resembles a toxic species while ________ mimicry is the shared colour pattern of unpalatable or toxic species.
Q4) Some plants are able to attract beneficial insects that act as predators on the herbivores of that plant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Predators have three general methods of hunting: ambush, ________, and ________.
Q6) ________ is the consumption of one living organism by another.
Q7) What is the primary prediction of the basic Lotka-Volterra equations of predator-prey interactions? Is this prediction realistic? Does it fit with our observations of predators and prey in nature?
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Q8) The concept of ________ energy is the basis for models of optimal foraging.
Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Q1) A relationship between two species in which both species benefit is called ________.
Q2) Whitebark pine rust can reduce the number of Clark's nutcrackers in a given habitat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the differences between direct and indirect transmission of a parasite.
Q4) Plants benefit from frugivores, which aid in the dispersal of their seeds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ transmission is the transfer of a parasite from one host to another without the involvement of an intermediate organism.
Q6) Pre-agricultural humans were mostly bothered by ________ parasites.
A)viral
B)bacterial
C)uncommon
D)macro-
Q7) Plants often react to attacks on the leaf, stem, fruit, or seed by forming abnormal structures called ________.
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benthic zone of a lake is where most of the decomposition takes place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The control of an herbivore population by a parasitoid is an example of top-down control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain what an indirect interaction is, and give an example of an indirect interaction that has a strong effect on a specific species in a community.
Q4) In aquatic habitats, the bottom zone where decomposition is most active is referred to as the ________ zone.
Q5) A species that has a disproportionate effect on other species in its community relative to its abundance is referred to as a keystone species.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Food webs are useful for depicting ________ interactions among species in which the interaction between two species is mediated by an intermediate species.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organismal concept of communities argues that species distributions along environmental gradients form clusters because they are interdependent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The inhibition model of succession involves strong competitive interactions with the first species to arrive maintaining its position until it is weakened or dies, after which it yields space to another species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define the intermediate disturbance hypothesis.
Q4) Pollen preserved within lake sediments can be used to reconstruct historical changes in the geographic ranges of plant species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using a specific example, discuss the ecological differences between early successional species and late successional species within a sere.
Q6) Explain how a chronosequence can be used to understand succession.
Q7) ________ is a temporal change in community composition and structure.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) A wide transition zone between one patch and another, in which the characteristics of one patch blend gradually with the characteristics of the other, is called a(n)________.
Q2) The ________ mosaic view of the landscape considers landscapes as composed of multiple patches or communities, each in a different phase of successional development due to disturbances.
Q3) The study of the causes and ecological consequences of spatial patterns on the landscape is called ________.
Q4) The theory of island biogeography predicts that the extinction rate is greater on large islands than on small islands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A set of spatially separated subpopulations connected by the movement of individuals, is referred to as a(n)________.
Q6) In the theory of island biogeography, species diversity on an island is determined by the ________ of an island, as well as its distance from the mainland.
Q7) The patchwork of different types of land cover is called a ________.
Q8) Strips of habitat that connect habitat patches are referred to as ________.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the ecosystem concept. How is it different from population ecology?
Q2) Briefly explain the difference in above and below ground plant competition.
Q3) The BEF hypothesis is depicted by which of the following equations?
A)S = ( S,A, )
B)F = ( S,A, )
C)F = ( F,A, )
D)A = ( S,F, )
Q4) David Tilman's study on grassland communities showed that productivity and biomass ________ with increased species richness.
A)increased
B)decreased
C)remained stable
D)followed no trend
Q5) Generally ________ limits productivity.
A)number of primary producers
B)number of predators
C)resource availability
D)interspecific competition
Q6) Outline the three levels of diversity considered in the modern concept of biodiversity.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) ________ efficiency is the ratio of productivity in a given trophic level to the productivity of the trophic level on which it feeds.
Q2) In terrestrial ecosystems, most of the primary production goes into the grazing food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of accumulated organic matter found in an area at a given time is the ________ crop biomass.
Q4) In a grazing food chain, energy flow is unidirectional, whereas in a detrital food chain, energy is recycled.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In most ecosystems, the biomass of carnivores is greater than the biomass of producers.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The net energy going into growth of new tissues and production of young in heterotrophs is called ________ production.
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) Describe one major difference between nutrient cycling in a river and nutrient cycling in a lake.
Q2) Decomposition proceeds faster in moist environments than in dry environments. A)True B)False
Q3) Outline the decomposition sequence for leaf litter and which functional groups are responsible for which stages.
Q4) The major decomposers of dead plant tissues are A)amoeba. B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)insects.
Q5) In open water ecosystems, decomposition occurs primarily in the A)thermocline. B)hypolimnion. C)epilimnion.
D)benthic zone.
Q6) Litterbags can be used to estimate the rate of decomposition. A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Carbon is released into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide as the result of the process of
A)photosynthesis.
B)primary production.
C)respiration.
D)fixation.
Q2) Biological nitrogen fixation is accomplished by A)protozoans.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)plants.
Q3) Which of the following represents the largest natural source of sulfur gases released to the atmosphere?
A)volcanoes
B)terrestrial organisms
C)freshwater organisms
D)oceans
Q4) The atmosphere is the largest pool of nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) The independent evolution of a similar characteristic in two different species, not derived from a recent, common ancestor is referred to as A)microevolution.
B)divergent evolution.
C)convergent evolution.
D)macroevolution.
Q2) Net primary productivity of boreal forest is generally lower than in temperate deciduous forest.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Large grazing ungulates and burrowing animals are most abundant in A)deserts.
B)tropical rain forest.
C)temperate shrubland.
D)temperate grassland.
Q4) In the tropical latitudes, the length of the dry season increases with distance from the equator.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) Smaller than diatoms, the ________, which include tiny cyanobacteria, haptophytes, and coccolithophores, make up the largest biomass in temperate and tropical water.
Q2) Non-flowing water bodies, such as lakes, are referred to as lotic ecosystems.
A)True B)False
Q3) The community that colonizes submerged substrate (plants, rocks etc.), making them feel slimy, is known as A)Aufwuchs.
B)benthos.
C)collectors.
D)nekton.
Q4) Streams generally have a ________ temperature at their headwaters than toward their outlet.
Q5) In lakes and ponds, the primary place of decomposition occurs in the ________ zone.
Q6) Describe the types of organisms and biological activities that occur within the littoral, limnetic, and benthic zones of a lake.
Q7) ________ refers to the plants and animals living on the bottom of the ocean.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Wetlands dominated by emergent herbaceous vegetation are called swamps.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Peatlands differ from other wetlands in that
A)the rate of organic production exceeds the rate of decomposition.
B)there is no outflow of water, resulting in increasing salinities.
C)they are seasonal, filling with water during the wet season and drying out during the dry season.
D)they have a two-way flow of water due to tidal action.
Q3) The epifauna of sand and muddy beaches refers to organisms
A)living on the surface of sediments.
B)attached to grains of sand and mud.
C)migrating seasonally between the subtidal and intertidal zones.
D)living between particles of sand and mud.
Q4) In salt marshes, predatory fish move in when
A)the tide is high.
B)migratory fishes are spawning.
C)the sun goes down.
D)salinity is low.
Q5) Explain the different phenotypes observed in Spartina alternifolia.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Nitrate is a commonly used chemical fertilizer that is harmless to human health. A)True
B)False
Q2) Using an example from farming, forestry, or fisheries, discuss the concept of discounting and how it is used to economically justify the overexploitation of a resource.
Q3) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using chemical fertilizers such as nitrates and phosphates.
Q4) The technique of adding and comparing costs and benefits at different points in time is referred to as
A)benefit-cost analysis. B)discounting.
C)external analysis.
D)profit-debt analysis.
Q5) The amount of a resource harvested per unit time is called ________.
Q6) Species characterized by a very high rate of population growth often lose much of their production due to high density-independent mortality.
A)True
B)False
28
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) A mass extinction of large mammals occurred at the end of the Pleistocene Epoch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A species found to naturally occur in a single geographic area and nowhere else is regarded as ________ to that location.
Q3) The primary cause of modern extinctions is
A)overhunting.
B)introduction of non-native species.
C)pollution.
D)habitat destruction.
Q4) Over the past 600 million years, the overall trend in the number of species has been ________.
Q5) Species richness in both terrestrial and marine environments generally declines with latitude.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the difference between conservation and preservation. Identify and explain the rationales for maintaining biodiversity.
Q7) As latitude increases, the number of marine species ________.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide are rising.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a consequence of global climate change, crop production is likely to
A)increase in both developed and developing countries.
B)increase in developed countries and decrease in developing countries.
C)decrease in developed countries and increase in developing countries.
D)decrease in both developed and developing countries.
Q3) Minimum, or night, temperatures have increased more dramatically than maximum, or day, temperatures within the past century.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Greenhouse gases existed naturally in the atmosphere before the industrial revolution.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When carbon dioxide dissolves in ocean water, much of it is transformed into
Q6) Describe the potential impacts of global climate change on agricultural production.
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