Ecology and the Environment Final
Exam
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive introduction to the principles of ecology and the complex interrelationships between organisms and their environment. Topics include ecosystem structure and function, energy flow, nutrient cycling, population and community dynamics, adaptation, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on ecological systems. Through case studies and current research, students will explore pressing environmental issues such as climate change, habitat destruction, and conservation strategies, gaining a foundational understanding of the scientific, ethical, and practical challenges involved in sustaining our planets life-support systems.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
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Q1) How does wealth inequality impede sustainable growth?
A) Poorer nations lack natural resources.
B) Underprivileged people sometimes exploit the environment in order to survive.
C) Wealthier nations are very affected by resource availability and must pay high costs to access them.
D) People with the most money and power are the first to succumb to environmental problems.
E) The world's natural resources are controlled by the vast majority of the population. Answer: B
Q2) What is environmental science, and what fields of study does it rely on?
Answer: Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural (for example, ecology) and social sciences (for example, anthropology) and the humanities (for example, literature) in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it.
Q3) What does an environment include?
Answer: An environment includes the biological (living) and physical (nonliving) surroundings in which any given living organism exists.
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a possible explanation for what is observed that is based on some previous knowledge.
A) peer review
B) prediction
C) hypothesis
D) theory
E) anecdote
Answer: C
Q2) Refer to the right-hand panel of Infographic 2.7. The Montréal Protocol and its amendments have phased out the use of CFCs worldwide. Still, the protective ozone layer over Antarctica continues to shrink. Please give several reasons why this occurs and why it will continue to occur for some time.
Answer: It takes time for ozone levels to return to normal despite the strides made in CFC reductions. Much of the CFCs released into the troposphere have not yet diffused up into the stratosphere. Also, in junkyards around the world CFCs are likely leaking from old refrigerators or auto air conditioners. There is some limited legal use of CFCs, as well.
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Your uncle Barney goes with you to the gas station to fuel up your car. He strongly indicates his disapproval of ethanol-blended gasoline. His good friend used ethanol fuel once and it "killed the engine." He went on to add that his friend's fuel efficiency (miles per gallon) was at least 30% worse than gasoline with the additive. Use critical thinking skills to assess Uncle Barney's input. What additional information do you need in order to decide which fuel to use in your vehicle?
Answer: The input from Barney is anecdotal. It is likely that something else may have been wrong with his friend's car or it may have not been approved to use flex fuels. You should consult reliable sources to investigate if ethanol can be used in your fuel tank and what is the expected mpg with or without ethanol blending. You might also be interested in researching the level of emissions generated by your car with each fuel type. In addition, you might wish to consider how much energy was required to make the ethanol. Is that enough to offset potential benefits of burning a cleaner fuel?
Q2) What is a toxin?
Answer: A toxin is something that causes damage after exposure. For example, arsenic can leach into ground water and cause cancer and damage the nervous system. Asbestos, another good example, is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population
Control
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 4.1. As an emergency food supply in World War II, 20 reindeer were taken to an island in the Pacific, along with troops stationed there. Shortly thereafter, the war ended and the troops returned home, leaving the reindeer behind. After 10 years, the population of reindeer had increased to 6,000. However, with no predators and limited food and space available on the island, the population crashed, with no reindeer remaining after 10 more years. Describe what lessons can be learned from this as it applies to human populations on Earth.
Q2) Which of the following is an issue that a country with a top-heavy age structure diagram would face?
A) younger members of the population being forced to care for a large number of older relatives
B) a shrinking workforce
C) higher wages, better working conditions, and more jobs to choose from for younger members of the population
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) How does overconsumption in developed countries, such as the United States, affect countries in other regions, such as Asia?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) Infectious diseases are a type of ______.
A) physical hazard
B) chemical hazard
C) biological hazard
D) human-caused hazard
E) Infectious diseases are not hazardous.
Q2) Why does urbanization sometimes lead to the increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?
Q3) What might be some reasons why diarrheal disease is not one of the top 10 causes of death in high-income countries?
Q4) What do you think has had the greatest impact on eradicating Guinea worm disease?
Q5) How might poor water quality be a result of all the variable types of a population-that is, cultural and social factors, economic stability or instability, and environmental factors?
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Q6) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a sexually transmitted disease, is especially prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa. Given what you know about the variables affecting
health threats, why do you think passing out free condoms, which would prevent the spread of the virus, may not be an effective strategy?
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Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 6.5. You can find a double cheeseburger on the "dollar menu" at many fast-food chains. Use the infographic to describe how the true cost of that food product is not reflected by the sale price.
Q2) Mainstream economics makes the inaccurate assumption that natural resources are _______ and that substitutes can be found if needed.
A) finite
B) unimportant C) limited
D) infinite
E) fixed
Q3) While placing a monetary value on ecosystem services can help us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable services, critics say that it is dangerous to put a price on ecosystem services. What are the limitations of such valuation of ecosystems?
Q4) The company you are currently working for follows a linear (one-way) system. Explain why this system will eventually fail.
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Q5) Compare and contrast technology as a variable that increases and decreases a population's overall impact.
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Chapter
Teeming With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) Waste is _____________.
A) anything that humans do not deem valuable to survival
B) a human term used to describe things we throw away
C) any discarded item that can be naturally degraded in the environment
D) common in natural ecosystems
E) all of the above
Q2) __________ is harmful to humans; it is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, and/or radioactive.
A) Biodegradable waste
B) Sanitary landfill waste
C) Municipal waste
D) Hazardous waste
E) Industrial waste
Q3) Disassembling equipment, machinery, and appliances into components which can be salvaged or reused is an example of ___________.
A) refusing
B) reducing
C) negative feedback
D) limited growth
E) de-manufacturing
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) What is biomass?
A) the total weight of the Earth
B) all non-living components of an ecosystem
C) the resulting mass of nutrients after a portion has left the system
D) all organic material that makes up an ecosystem
E) all organic material in an ecosystem minus the energy lost in production
Q2) In the carbon cycle, plants release carbon back to the environment through the process of _________.
A) photosynthesis
B) cellular respiration
C) oxidation
D) transpiration
E) evaporation
Q3) Why is it difficult or impossible for ecologists to study the biosphere as a whole? Why is it useful to break down the biosphere into sections such as ecosystems, communities, and populations?
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Q4) Several years ago, you planted a pine tree at the base of a mountain and another on the summit of the mountain. On a recent hike, you photographed each tree. Do you expect to see any differences in their appearance? Explain.
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Which species' population size is closer to its carrying capacity at any given time?
A) r-selected species
B) K-selected species
C) Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive
D) Neither r-selected species and K-selected species would survive
Q2) If a population size is determined by food availability and not predation pressures, it is likely under which regulation type?
A) top-down regulation
B) bottom-up regulation
C) global warming
D) boom-and-bust regulation
E) keystone species pressure
Q3) The minimum viable population is _____________.
A) the smallest number of individuals that allows the population to survive long term
B) the smallest number of populations required to make up an ecosystem
C) the same number of individuals for each population
D) the smallest area required for a mating ritual
E) the smallest flock size that would protect against predators
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Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) The concept of the trophic pyramid reflects ________________.
A) the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 90%
B) the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 10%
C) the fact that biomass increases as you move up the food web
D) the number of decomposers found in a system
E) none of the above
Q2) Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem?
Q3) In mutualism, one organism is ________________ and the other organism is ________________.
A) harmed; harmed
B) harmed; benefited
C) benefited; benefited
D) benefited; harmed
E) neither benefited nor harmed; neither benefited nor harmed
Q4) How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator-prey relationship?
Q5) Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems? Page 13
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Based on the information in Infographic 11.1, come up with an example of natural selection for a population (either real or fictional), and describe which kind of natural selection is at work. Be sure to describe the population in its original state and its evolved state.
Q2) If some members of a bird population had been able to escape Guam and colonize another island, which genetic concept would likely have happened?
A) genetic drift
B) the founder effect
C) speciation
D) the bottleneck effect
E) genetic recombination
Q3) Different versions of genes in a population are called ___________.
A) alleles
B) memes
C) individuals
D) directors
E) assortments
Q4) Why is the sixth mass extinction event different from previous mass extinction events, and why is it so important?
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Chapter 12: Biodiversity- Palm Planet:
Common Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) It is common for fast food restaurants to use a particular species of potato to make their French fries. This species has a characteristic shape and size that fits nicely in the potato cutting machines. They also have the desired taste and color the fast food restaurants, and their patrons, prefer. You can image that potato farming for fast food restaurants is a lucrative business. Given what you know about the Irish Potato Famine, how are fast food restaurants endangering potato crops and farming?
Q2) Biodiversity has many benefits, which includes:
A) the regulation of ecosystems.
B) the selection of particular species to survive.
C) the ability to predict which species will go extinct in an ecosystem.
D) the propagation of disease-carrying organisms.
E) none of the above.
Q3) Which groupings of organisms are ordered most diverse to least diverse?
A) plants > fungi > bacteria > insects > vertebrates
B) insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates > bacteria
C) fungi > insects > bacteria > vertebrates > plants
D) insects > vertebrates > plants > fungi > bacteria
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E) bacteria > insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates
Q4) What are some ways that you can protect biodiversity?
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) Why do experts think that protected areas, even though they have been successful in the past, are not a long-term solution for endangered species?
A) There are not enough nature preserves, which has the highest level of protection.
B) Populations within these areas will become inbred after a while, which decreases the genetic diversity and makes the population more vulnerable to disturbances.
C) The areas themselves are being degraded due to factors like global warming and human construction, so the populations within the areas have to go outside of them, in unprotected areas, to find suitable habitats.
D) There is not enough species diversity within these areas.
E) Experts actually think that these kinds of protected areas are the solution for long-term management of endangered species.
Q2) What information can be obtained through DNA fingerprinting, and why is it important that DNA fingerprinting be done using microsatellite DNA regions? What is special about these regions?
Q3) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive?
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Chapter
14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Groundwater in aquifers is naturally replenished by _____________.
A) runoff
B) transpiration
C) infiltration
D) seepage from sewers
E) evaporation
Q2) Which of the following is the closest to the World Health Organization's estimates for those without access to clean water?
A) 10%
B) 18%
C) 33%
D) 53%
E) none of these answers
Q3) Gravity "powers" all of the following processes of the hydrological cycle except ________________.
A) runoff
B) infiltration
C) precipitation
D) transpiration
E) all of these answers
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) Which is an example of a point source pollution source?
A) farm water runoff
B) a ruptured sewer pipe
C) acid rain
D) sediment pollution
E) none of the above
Q2) A watershed area covered by concrete will do what to the quantity of groundwater?
A) It will increase it.
B) It will decrease it.
C) It will not affect the quantity of the groundwater, but it will affect the quality.
Q3) What plant nutrients are found in animal waste and fertilizer that can cause eutrophication?
A) nitrogen
B) phosphorous
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
E) both A and B
Q4) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
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Chapter
Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) Do GMOs raise or lower the overall crop biodiversity?
A) raise
B) lower
C) Biodiversity remains the same.
Q2) Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
A) In the United States, GMOs are limited to a few corn products.
B) GMOs will almost certainly be part of the solution to meeting future food demands as the global population swells.
C) GMOs are cheap and therefore a popular option for developing countries.
D) Since DNA is unique for each species, it is not possible to move genes from one species to another.
E) In the United States, less than 1% of processed foods contain GMOs.
Q3) In transgenic organisms, what step(s) would a gene gun replace?
A) isolation and replication of a desired gene
B) insertion of a desired gene into a plasmid
C) plasmid delivering a desired gene to the host nucleus
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q4) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?
Q5) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Genetic diversity decreases in what type of farming?
A) sustainable
B) organic
C) commercial
D) monocultural
E) global
Q2) Refer to Infographic 17.4. Use the infographic to describe integrated farming at Takao Furuno's duck/rice farm.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 17.2. How do industrial agricultural methods lead to eutrophication and "dead zones"?
Q4) The 1930s Dust Bowl was caused by severe drought in prairie lands, coupled with farming techniques that left the bare soil vulnerable to wind erosion. Which of the following sustainable farming techniques would help prevent such a phenomenon from happening again?
A) contour farming
B) depression farming
C) reduced tillage
D) terrace farming
E) strip cropping
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Chapter 18: Coal- Bringing Down the Mountain: in the
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) What is a common criticism of mountaintop removal mine reclamation?
A) The evidence suggests that the original native species will never recolonize the reclaimed site.
B) The artificial channels do not host the same amount of biodiversity as the natural streams.
C) The Appalachian Mountains are a region of extremely high biodiversity and the reclaimed sites will not recover similar levels of diversity.
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q2) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?
Q3) Refer to Infographic 18.7. Explain how carbon dioxide can be captured.
Q4) In Ireland, peat is often burned as a source of fuel. Peat is known to turn into which of the following fossil fuels?
A) oil
B) coal
C) wood
D) shale
E) uranium
Q5) Discuss how mountaintop removal can affect stream quality.
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Chapter 19: Oil and Natural Gas- the Bakken Oil Boom: Is Our Next Big Fuel Source Our Dirtiest- Air Pollution:
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which fuel is less damaging to the environment to harvest?
A) oil
B) coal
C) natural gas
D) A, B, and C are all damaging to the environment.
E) A, B, and C do not damage the environment during harvest.
Q2) Explain why oil consumption in the United States is on the decline but globally oil consumption is on the rise.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason why our energy supplies may become unreliable or unaffordable?
A) dwindling supplies
B) competition from other countries
C) dependence on energy exports
D) increasing demand
E) a cartel or monopoly that increases prices
Q4) What are the key environmental problems associated with the fracking methods for natural gas recovery?
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Q5) What effect will intensive extraction of oil sands and tar sands have on the surrounding area?
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) Compare and contrast the health risks associated with indoor air pollution in developed versus developing countries.
Q2) Which of the following sources of outdoor air pollution is anthropogenic?
A) sandstorms
B) volcanic eruptions
C) controlled burns
D) wildfires
E) none of these answers
Q3) Which is FALSE regarding pollutants defined as hazardous by the EPA?
A) Even in small doses they can have adverse effects on human health.
B) They include volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
C) They may cause cancer or developmental defects.
D) A, B, and C are all true.
E) A, B, and C are all false.
Q4) Which of the following is a consequence of acid deposition?
A) reduced nutrient uptake by plants
B) acidified lakes
C) dying forests
D) released aluminum from soils
E) all of these answers
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of adaptation to climate change?
A) shoring up coastlines against rising sea levels
B) preparing for heat waves, cold spells, and outbreaks of infectious diseases
C) taking steps to ensure a sufficient water supply in areas where freshwater supplies may dry up
D) consuming more fossil fuels
E) All of these answers are examples.
Q2) Accepting climate change as inevitable and adjusting as best as possible is referred to as __________.
A) adaptation
B) prescription
C) mitigation
D) stabilization
E) none of these answers
Q3) What changes occurred to Minnesota's climate 12,000 and 6,000 years ago? What effect did these changes have on the ranges for various tree species?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 21.1. What change is depicted in the infographic? What changes to weather are expected when the curve shifts to the right?
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Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?
Q2) Refer to Infographic 22.2. Which of the following choices is a daughter atom of Thorium-226?
A) Thorium-234
B) Radium-226
C) Uranium-234
D) Protactinium-234
E) none of these answers
Q3) Refer to Infographic 22.3. The process of generating nuclear energy produces hazardous waste at every step. Speculate on the hazards of milling and enriching the uranium.
Q4) Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.
Q5) Accidents in the construction industry occur at a rate almost _______________ the rate of those in the nuclear power industry.
A) half
B) equal to
C) two times
D) six times
E) none of these answers
Q6) What is the process of nuclear fission?
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
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Q1) Wind turbines create electric energy by ____________________.
A) converting wind to steam to turn a generator
B) converting wind, through a series of gears, to turn a generator
C) allowing wind to blow directly into a generator to turn it
D) A, B, and C are correct.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q2) Iceland uses geothermal energy to produce electricity and heat. Why didn't the people of Samsø choose this energy source?
A) It is very expensive to use.
B) It isn't a very efficient energy source.
C) It only works in areas close to hot zones or fault lines like Iceland is.
D) It can't be used to produce electricity.
E) It is too cold in Samsø to use geothermal energy.
Q3) In 2014, what state in the United States had the largest wind farm?
A) California
B) Oregon
C) Texas
D) Kansas
E) none of these answers
Q4) How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant? Page 30
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Chapter 24: Urbanization- the Ghetto Goes Green: in
Bronx, Building a Better Backyard
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Q1) An advantage of an economic policy tool approach to protecting the environment is the:
A) simplicity of the concept and ability to achieve desired goals quickly.
B) ability to change the behavior of the regulated industry directly.
C) potential to ban extremely toxic substances through authorization permits.
D) widespread citizen support for spending tax dollars to impose emission limits.
E) encouragement of innovation for reducing environmental impacts.
Q2) Prior to the 1987 Montréal Protocol, there existed some uncertainty in the scientific community as to the magnitude of ozone depletion caused by CFCs in the atmosphere. Nevertheless, the Protocol did recommend phasing out CFCs from refrigerants and other uses because the potential consequences of not doing so were so severe. This is an example of applying the _______________ principle.
A) uncertainty
B) guilty-until-proven-innocent
C) precautionary
D) utopian
E) better-safe-than-sorry
Q3) Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Q4) What was the Kyoto Protocol, and how was compliance enforced?
Page 32
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) Homes that are built father away from the urban centers of cities are normally _______________ and _____________ energy efficient than those found in urban centers.
A) smaller; less
B) smaller; more
C) larger, less
D) larger; more
E) They're about the same as homes built in cities.
Q2) Which of the following is normally a consequence of urban/suburban sprawl?
A) loss of farmland
B) wildlife loss
C) ecosystem disruption
D) large ecological footprint
E) all of these answers
Q3) What is suburban sprawl, and what environmental problems does it generate?
Describe three potential problems, and briefly discuss the implications of these problems for human society.
Q4) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
Q5) Refer to Infographic 25.6. Explain at least three of the ways to create a sustainable city.
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling: in the Global Effort to
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Q1) More than half of all of the minerals used in the twentieth century were used between:
A) 1995-2000.
B) 1900-1945.
C) 1945-1975.
D) 1985-1995.
E) 1975-2000.
Q2) Which mining technique is commonly used in developing countries when sediments contain heavy metals like gold?
A) placer mining
B) subsurface mining
C) strip mining
D) open-pit mining
E) mountaintop removal
Q3) Why is global demand for all types of minerals rising, and why is it critical to develop alternatives to minerals that are currently used in so many everyday products?
Q4) List five commonly used products that contain mineral resources.
Q5) List the main steps generally involved in the extraction of rare earth minerals from ore.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) Appropriate amounts of grazing lower the amount of weeds growing in that area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of grasslands are also known as a savannas?
A) rangeland
B) tropical
C) cold
D) temperate
E) none of these answers
Q3) Refer to Infographic 27.3. Discuss three characteristics many of those areas at highest risk of desertification have in common.
Q4) Which of the following processes contribute to the process of desertification?
A) overgrazing by livestock
B) global warming
C) soil erosion
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q5) Human activity has caused the degradation of grasslands. How has grassland degradation in turn affected humans?
Q6) What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) Which order of timber harvesting methods goes from least conservation of biodiversity to most conservation of biodiversity?
A) clear-cutting, selective harvesting, strip harvesting
B) strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting, clear-cutting
C) selective harvesting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting
D) clear-cutting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting
E) All harvesting methods increase biodiversity equally.
Q2) You are put in charge of a timber harvest for a section of forest that runs along a river. Which of the following techniques will minimize the effects on the environment?
A) leaving a width of trees that run along the side of the river untouched
B) cutting a limited amount of selected trees
C) leaving the best trees behind to reseed the forest
D) allowing ample time for the forest to recover before harvesting again
E) all of these answers
Q3) The soils of tropical forests are typically thin and low in plant nutrients. Yet tropical forests are some of the most productive and diverse ecosystems on the planet. How can you explain this paradox?
Q4) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) Which of the following changes will have the MOST global effect on coral reefs despite their particular geographic location in the oceans?
A) increased water temperatures from anthropogenic CO emissions
B) increased salinity from desalination of ocean water for human use
C) increased oxygen concentrations from algal blooms due to nutrient pollution
D) increased predation of native coral reef fish by non-native lionfish
E) increased sediment pollution from clear-cut inland forests that smother reefs
Q2) Nutrient-rich areas where shallow rivers meet the ocean are known as ______.
A) intertidal zones
B) estuaries
C) coral reefs
D) abyssal zones
E) open ocean
Q3) The skeleton of coral is mostly composed of ________.
A) nitrogen
B) aluminum
C) calcium carbonate
D) silicon
E) iron
Q4) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?
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Chapter 30:
Earth Elements:
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Q1) The _______ footprint refers to the amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases released by an action.
A) water
B) feed
C) carbon
D) environmental
E) ecological
Q2) The U.S. Department of Agriculture recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of _____°F.
A) 98.6
B) 100
C) 140
D) 160
E) 200
Q3) In the United States, which of the following are predominantly raised in CAFOs?
A) cattle
B) pigs
C) chickens
D) A, B, and C
E) Only A and B
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Chapter
Soil and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Which statement about fish is FALSE?
A) In poorer nations, the cost of fish is cheaper compared with meat and poultry.
B) More than 15% of the world's population relies on fish as their main source of protein.
C) Even though fish is a popular protein choice, humans consume more beef, pork, and chicken than fish.
D) Many trendy diets are based on fish consumption.
E) The FDA recommends that Americans consume two servings of fish per week.
Q2) Refer to Infographic 31.4. The figure shows fish catches in the Newfoundland-Labrador Shelf area of the North Atlantic. Describe the shift in the species and amounts taken in 1968, 1990, and 2005.
Q3) In Frenchman Bay, Maine, the objective of David Alves' program is to "turn fishers into fish farmers." What does this mean, and why does he call this the "future of fishing"?
Q4) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?
Q5) Fisheries management is based on many decades of reproducible science.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a driving habit that maximizes mileage?
A) using cruise control
B) keeping tires properly inflated
C) avoiding carrying excess weight in the vehicle
D) keeping the car idling when parked briefly and avoiding turning the car on and off
E) combining trips and planning your route to avoid backtracking
Q2) Explain the outcome of David Tilman's research and what it meant for biofuel crops.
Q3) What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.
Q4) Which form(s) of biomass is(are) burned directly for energy?
A) dried manure
B) restaurant fry grease
C) firewood
D) A and C
E) B and C
Q5) Because of a process called carbon sequestration, switchgrass harvested for biofuel is actually carbon negative.
A)True
B)False
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