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Earth and Space Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental processes shaping our planet and its place in the universe. Students will examine the structure, composition, and dynamics of the Earth's systems, including the geosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, and biosphere. The course also covers the basics of astronomy, from the solar system to the broader cosmos, emphasizing the scientific principles governing celestial phenomena and the evolution of the universe. Through laboratory investigations and real-world case studies, students develop a deeper understanding of Earth's resources, natural hazards, climate, and the ongoing quest to explore and comprehend space.
Recommended Textbook
HorizonsExploring the Universe 14th Edition by Michael A. Seeds
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Q1) Assume a 100-yard football field represents the 14-billion-year history of the universe with one end as the origin and the other end representing the present. The existence of human beings will extend from ____ to the present "goal line."
A)the 50-yard line
B)the 5-yard line
C)the one-yard line
D)the one-inch line
Answer: D
Q2) If the field of view (FOV) in Figure 1-1 is 50 ft and the distance is widened by a factor of 100, how large is the FOV in Figure 1-2 Choose the best answer.
A)1 mile
B)5000 ft
C)1 square mile
D)5000 square feet
Answer: B
Q3) The ____________________ contains a large amount of gas and dust and a great number of stars, and our Sun is one of those stars.
Answer: Milky Way Galaxy
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Q1) Which of the following is false
A)Alpha Orionis is apparently brighter than Beta Orionis.
B)Beta Orionis is apparently brighter than Alpha Orionis.
C)Rigel is apparently brighter than Betelgeuse.
D)None of the choices are false.
Answer: A
Q2) The full Moon is brighter than Venus regardless of how bright Venus is in the sky on any night as viewed from Earth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Navigators can find their latitude in the northern hemisphere by measuring the angle from the northern horizon to the north celestial pole.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ____________________ is a measure of the light energy that hits one square meter in one second.
Answer: Flux
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Q1) Choose the correct word(s) that make the statement true. Say you live in the southern hemisphere and the date is June 22. For you, fall is ending. Therefore, the June 22nd date is the first day of (spring, summer, fall, winter), an event called the (vernal equinox, summer solstice, autumnal equinox, winter solstice).
Answer: winter, summer solstice
Q2) The Moon's angular diameter at apogee is larger than at perigee.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The vernal equinox occurs above the same geographic point on Earth from year to year.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Choose the correct word(s) that make the statement true. A (lunar, solar) eclipse occurs when the Moon is (new, quarter, gibbous, full) and the ordering of aligned celestial objects is always Sun, Moon, Earth.
Answer: solar, new
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Q1) An apparent westward motion of a planet in the sky compared to the background stars (as viewed from Earth) when observed on successive nights is referred to as A)epicycle.
B)retrograde motion.
C)prograde motion.
D)heliocentric motion.
E)deferent.
Q2) Which type of curve would accurately represent a closed orbit
A)ellipse
B)hyperbola
C)parabola
D)straight line
Q3) Explain the cause and the effect for Newton's second law, using the information in How Do We Know 4-3 in your answer.
Q4) The spring tides occur during the new and full lunar phases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ____________________ is a circle whose center moves in a circular orbit around the Earth.
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Q1) What is the ratio of the light-gathering power of a 5-m telescope to that of a 0.5-m telescope
A)10
B)0.1
C)0.01
D)100
E)25
Q2) In modern astronomy, an interferometer
A)is the highest resolution optical telescope ever built.
B)is located in Arecibo, Puerto Rico.
C)is a set of optical telescopes linked together to provide very high resolution.
D)is a set of radio telescopes linked together to provide very high resolution.
E)is either a set of optical telescopes linked together to provide very high resolution or is a set of radio telescopes linked together to provide very high resolution.
Q3) The ____________________ is a measure of how many times larger the angular size of an object appears through a telescope.
Q4) List the advantages the Hubble Space Telescope has over ground-based telescopes.
Q5) Explain how interferometry works.
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Q1) The process of removing an electron from a stable nucleus is known as ____________________.
Q2) Since an electron is so less massive than a proton, what is the approximate mass and charge of a neutral hydrogen atom
A)the mass of an electron, negative
B)the mass of a proton, neutral
C)the mass of a neutron, positive
D)the mass of a proton and neutron, positive
Q3) Which one of the hydrogen atoms below is EMITTING light The electron jumps from the
A)second energy level to first (most bound).
B)third energy level to fourth.
C)fourth energy level to fifth.
D)second energy level to third.
E)first energy level to second.
Q4) A zero Kelvin temperature is also known as ________________________.
Q5) Blue stars emit most of their energy at shorter wavelengths than red stars.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________________ of a star can be determined from its color.
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Q1) The ________ is (are) the hot gases that are the moving extension of the Sun's corona.
A)spicules
B)prominences
C)flares
D)supergranules
E)solar wind
Q2) The chromosphere of the Sun has a higher temperature than the photosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nuclear reactors use nuclear _____________ to generate energy whereas the Sun uses nuclear ____________ to generate energy.
Q4) Lithium has less binding energy than _____________, thus the neutrons and protons are easier to unbind from the nucleus.
A)helium
B)nitrogen
C)carbon
D)all of the other choices
Q5) List and explain the four fundamental forces in nature.
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Q1) Binary (double) stars can be detected by
A)being seen as two separate stars with a telescope.
B)one star traveling a wiggly proper-motion path across the sky.
C)one star dimming abruptly as another passes in front of it.
D)pairs of absorption lines seen in the spectrum of what appears to be one star.
E)All of the other choices are correct.
Q2) An eclipsing binary has been analyzed and it has been determined that the ratio of the mass of star A to the mass of star B is 6 and the total mass of the two stars is 26 solar masses. What are the masses of star A and star B
A)Star A has a mass of 1 solar mass and star B has a mass of 6 solar masses.
B)Star A has a mass of 20 solar mass and star B has a mass of 6 solar masses.
C)Star A has a mass of 31.2 solar mass and star B has a mass of 5.2 solar masses.
D)Star A has a mass of 22.3 solar mass and star B has a mass of 3.7 solar masses.
E)The masses of star A and star B cannot be determined from the information given.
Q3) The most massive main-sequence stars are the M stars.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If a star's temperature increases in its interior, then more nuclear reactions will occur to push the star outward and its temperature will drop, causing the star to contract and eventually return to equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The interstellar medium is made of ___ % dust and ___ % gas.
A)1, 99
B)0, 100
C)100, 0
D)5, 95
Q3) What causes the outward pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a star
A)the outward flow of energy
B)the opacity of the gas
C)the temperature of the gas
D)the density of the gas
E)the temperature and the density of the gas
Q4) _____________ do not have enough mass to sustain nuclear fusion in its core but are more massive than planets.
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Q1) A type II supernova
A)occurs when a white dwarf's mass exceeds the Chandrasekhar limit.
B)is the result of helium flash.
C)is characterized by a spectrum that shows hydrogen lines.
D)occurs when the iron core of a massive star collapses.
E)is characterized by a spectrum that shows hydrogen lines and occurs when the iron core of a massive star collapses.
Q2) A(n) ____________________ supernova is caused by the collapse of a massive star that has lost its outer envelope of hydrogen.
Q3) Even in degenerate matter, pressure depends on temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The triple-alpha process
A)controls the pulsations in Cepheid variable stars.
B)is the nuclear fusion of hydrogen to helium in massive stars.
C)is the process that produces the neutrinos we receive from the Sun.
D)requires a temperature of about 5,000,000 K to operate.
E)occurs during helium flash.
Q5) Electrons moving in a strong magnetic field emit ____________________ radiation.
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Q1) Pulsars cannot be spinning white dwarfs because
A)white dwarfs are not that common.
B)white dwarfs are not dense enough.
C)white dwarfs do not have magnetic fields.
D)a white dwarf spinning that fast would fly apart.
E)All of the other choices are correct.
Q2) A(n) ____________________ is a rapidly spinning neutron star that accelerates charged particles near the poles of its magnetic field.
Q3) A pulsar requires that a neutron star
I.rotate rapidly.
II.have a radius of at least 10 km.
III.have a strong magnetic field.
IV.rotate on an axis that is different from the axis of the magnetic field.
A)I & III
B)I & IV
C)II, III, & IV
D)I, III, & IV
E)I, II, III, & IV
Q4) Gamma-ray bursts lasting longer than two seconds appear to be related to
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Q1) _______________ is the rate at which a star moves across the sky.
Q2) The center of our galaxy is located in the direction of the constellation of Orion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The units of proper motion are km/s because proper motion is the motion of stars across the sky.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The orbits of population I stars
I.are confined to disk of the galaxy.
II.are very elliptical.
III.are nearly circular.
IV.are randomly inclined to the disk of the galaxy.
A)I
B)IV
C)I & IV
D)II & IV
E)I & III
Q5) Compare and contrast the properties of disk and halo stars.
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Q1) The hot spots in a double-lobed radio source
A)appear to coincide with the location of the central galaxy responsible for the jets.
B)are where hot excited gas interacts with the intergalactic medium.
C)are only found near quasars.
D)produce enough visible energy to be imaged at visible wavelengths.
E)are always perpendicular to each other.
Q2) What was the first evidence that quasars were different from astronomical objects before they were observed in visual wavelengths
A)The first quasars were seen to have fuzz.
B)Quasars emitted radio energy like active galaxies, but appeared to be point sources in radio wavelengths.
C)Quasars showed significant gravitational lens effects.
D)The spectra of quasars looked like that of an M dwarf.
E)The larger redshifts originally indicated that they were orbiting the center of the Milky Way.
Q3) Poor clusters of galaxies often contain an excess of E and S0 galaxies.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The initial high-temperature, high-density state from which time starts is known as the ___________.
Q2) Cosmology is the study of the structure, history, and evolution of the observable Universe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Large scale structures of the Universe include ___________.
A)filaments
B)voids
C)walls
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Q4) Which of the following is a force of nature
A)gravity
B)weak
C)strong
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Q5) How can the big bang still be found even though you may not be able to see it with your eyes In what band of the electromagnetic spectrum has it been detected
Q6) What evidence do we have that the Universe is expanding
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Q1) How is radioactive dating used to determine the age of an object
A)Both the amounts of radioactive and decay material are measured. Using these with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
B)The amount of radioactive material is measured. Using this with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
C)The amount of decay material is measured. Using this with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
D)The amount of heat generated by radioactive dating is measured to determine age.
Q2) Sweeping up of space debris by the planets.
Q3) One common technique used to discover the presence of an extrasolar planet around a star is to detect how they tug their stars about, creating small Doppler shifts in the stars' spectra.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Massive planets create ____________ Doppler shifts of their stars than lower-mass planets.
Q5) The ____________ planets have larger radii than the ____________ planets.
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Q1) The presence of breccias among the lunar rock samples shows that
A)volcanism did not occur on the Moon.
B)molten lava once flowed over the lunar surface.
C)the crust must have been made of anorthosite.
D)water once existed on the Moon in the form of small lakes and streams.
E)the lunar surface was fragmented by meteorite impacts.
Q2) Describe the four stages in the development of a terrestrial planet.
Q3) In the condensation theory of the Moon's origin,
A)the Moon broke from a rapidly spinning Earth.
B)Earth and its Moon formed from the same cloud of matter.
C)the Moon formed elsewhere in the solar nebula and was later captured by Earth.
D)the Moon formed when a very massive planetesimal smashed into the young Earth.
Q4) Which of the following is not produced by plate tectonics
A)mid-ocean rifts
B)rift valleys
C)the ring of fire
D)the Appalachian Mountains
E)Earth's magnetic field

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Q5) What does the presence of vesicular basalts and breccias among the lunar rock samples tell us about the history of the Moon
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Q1) Mercury is mostly comprised of a large metallic core.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the solar system objects listed below is most similar to Earth in terms of mass and density
A)Mercury
B)the Moon
C)Venus
D)Mars
E)Deimos
Q3) Which terrestrial planet has the highest-pressure (thickest) atmosphere
A)Mercury
B)Venus
C)Earth
D)Mars
Q4) Discuss the evidence we have that the surface of Venus is marked by volcanism.
Q5) Besides Earth, which of the terrestrial planets and/or their satellites show(s) evidence for the possible existence of liquid water flowing on its surface in the past
Q6) What factors determine the rate of loss of gases from a planet's atmosphere
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Q1) In what way is the rocky material of Jupiter's core different from the rocks found on Earth
A)It is much cooler because Jupiter is further from the Sun.
B)It contains more liquid water.
C)It is much hotter and denser because of the extreme pressure at the core of Jupiter.
D)It is not composed of iron and nickel because this material will float of the surface.
E)It is composed entirely of ices that have frozen into a large rock-like structure.
Q2) Eris, Sedna, Quaoar, and Orcus are KBOs and therefore don't meet the definition of a planet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ring eccentricity seems to be caused by the eccentric orbits of Ophelia and Cordelia around Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What observations suggest that Triton has had an active crust
Q5) The largest satellites of Jupiter are known as the ____________ satellites.
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Q1) The density of Comet Halley was found to be about 0.2 g/cm3. This implies that Comet Halley
A)is composed of about 50% rock and 50% frozen water and methane.
B)is loosely packed ices with a small amount of rocky material.
C)formed in the inner solar system and was ejected by Jupiter to the Kuiper belt.
D)is really an S-type asteroid.
E)was once a moon of Neptune and was ripped away by a large impact.
Q2) The Kuiper Belt is predicted to be the place where most of the short-period comets formed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Comets falling into the inner solar system from the ____________ are called long-period comets.
A)Oort cloud
B)asteroid belt
C)Roche limit
D)Kuiper belt
E)Widmanstätten region
Q4) Widmanstätten patterns are found in ____________ meteorites.
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Q1) What part of the radio spectrum is thought most likely to be successful for communication with other civilizations Why
Q2) The most important quantity necessary for life to form appears to be the existence of ____________ on the surface of the planet.
Q3) Genetic variation is not random.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If life is to develop on a planet, the planet must lie well outside its star's habitable zone, where water is in its icy form.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Viking spacecraft searched for life on Mars by looking for the effects of life on the upper atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Evolution is random.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How can we select stars whose planets are likely homes for life
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