Earth and Space Science
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Earth and Space Science explores the dynamic systems that shape our planet and its place in the universe. This course covers fundamental topics including geology, meteorology, oceanography, and astronomy, providing insight into Earths structure, atmosphere, weather patterns, and the processes that drive natural phenomena. Students will also investigate the solar system, the life cycles of stars, and the broader cosmos, developing an understanding of the interconnections between terrestrial and celestial processes. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, observation, and the application of evidence-based reasoning to better comprehend the complex interactions that govern Earth and space.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
2941 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only at the equator are all the stars visible over the course of the year.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) That Polaris will not always be the pole star is due to:
A) the sidereal day being shorter than the solar day.
B) precession shifting the celestial pole.
C) the Moon following the ecliptic, instead of the equator.
D) the Earth's revolution being slightly less than exactly 365.25 days.
E) the Solar winds blowing the Earth farther away from the Sun.
Answer: B
Q3) If the angular diameter of an object is 15 arc seconds and it is 1.4 billion kilometers away,how big is its physical size? Show how you arrived at your answer.
Answer: Use the equation above Example 3 in More Precisely 1-2 to complete the calculation.15" = 15/60/60 degrees = 1/240 degree (about 0.0042 degrees).Then the diameter = distance × angular size / 57.3 degrees = 1.4 × 10 km × 1/240 / 57.3 100,000 km.
Q4) The celestial sphere appears to move fastest above the ________.
Answer: equator
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heliocentric model was actually first proposed by:
A) Aristotle.
B) Archimedes.
C) Aristarchus.
D) Alexander the Great.
E) Hipparchus.
Answer: C
Q2) In the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries,the rare transits of ________ were critical in determining the astronomical unit's length.
Answer: Venus
Q3) What did Galileo discover about Jupiter that supported Copernicus?
Answer: Its four moons were a model solar system,orbiting a larger central body just as the smaller planets orbit the Sun.
Q4) Transits of Venus were critical in early determinations of the A.U.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the temperature of a blackbody by a factor of 3 will increase its energy by a factor of:
A) 3.
B) 6.
C) 9.
D) 12.
E) 81.
Answer: E
Q2) Wein's law relates the peak wavelength of the blackbody to its size.The larger the black body,the shorter its peak wavelength.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Give and explain an example of the use of the Doppler Effect on the highway.
Answer: The radar gun of a highway patrolman sends out a pulsed beam to be reflected back,thus giving the speed of your car and perhaps netting you a ticket.
Q4) The product of the wavelength times the frequency of a wave is its ________.
Answer: velocity
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Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the light reflected off a planet reveal information about its atmosphere,even though the planet is not creating this light?
Q2) Kirchhoff was the first to describe qualitatively the types of spectra we observe from luminous objects.Describe the three types and their sources.
Q3) State the relationship between photon energy,frequency,and wavelength.
Q4) Which of the following type of electromagnetic radiation has the highest energy?
A) radio
B) infrared
C) visible
D) ultraviolet
E) X-ray
Q5) Why are molecular lines usually found in infrared and radio regions,not as visible lines?
Q6) How many blue photons (frequency of 6.50 × 10¹ hz)per second would be required to carry 1 Watt (1 Watt = 1 Joule per second)of energy?
Q7) ________ is the scientific study of the distribution of electromagnetic waves by energy and how these patterns are created in atoms and molecules.
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The twinkling of starlight and the focusing of images by lenses are due to ________ of light.
Q2) A convex lens is thinnest in its center; it refracts light to a focus,while a convex mirror reflects it to the focus instead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because of ________,images in small telescopes are more blurred than with larger objectives.
Q4) Diffraction is the tendency of light to:
A) spread around corners.
B) separate into its component colors.
C) bend through a lens.
D) disperse within a prism.
E) reflect off a mirror.
Q5) If used in a single instrument to greatly enhance its resolution,the four separate mirrors of the VLT will be acting as a(n)________.
Q6) Explain why the image seen in astronomical telescopes is inverted.
Q7) The light-gathering power of a telescope varies with the ________ of the diameter of the lens or mirror.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) For what reasons do we consider the planets of the solar system to be of two fundamentally different types?
Q2) As the solar nebula contracts it:
A) flattens out into the ecliptic plane around the Sun's poles.
B) spins faster due to conservation of angular momentum.
C) cools due to condensation.
D) loses angular momentum.
E) reverses it direction of rotation.
Q3) Our solar system contains more than 100 Kuiper Belt objects larger than 300 km in diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Our best close-up views of the jovian moons came from the many passes by:
A) Voyager 2.
B) Galileo.
C) Cassini.
D) New Horizons.
E) Global Surveyor.
Page 8
Q5) Contrast the composition of asteroids with that of comets.
Q6) By itself,________ makes up 70% of the masses of all the planets combined.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Above about 100 km,the high-energy portion of the Sun's radiation spectrum breaks down molecules into atoms.What is this part of Earth's atmosphere called?
A) the troposphere
B) the stratosphere
C) the mesosphere
D) the ionosphere
E) the magnetosphere
Q2) The most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere is oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the hole in the ozone layer thought to be caused by?
A) greenhouse gases
B) carbon dioxide
C) water vapor
D) CFCs
E) acid rain
Q4) List the six main regions of the Earth,in order,starting from the center.
Q5) What were the two primary courses of heating that let the Earth differentiate? Which is more important to us today?
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes Mercury's 3:2 spin-orbit resonance?
A) the planet's closeness to the Sun
B) the planet's very eccentric orbit
C) the planet's high density
D) tidal torques operating on the planet
E) All of the above are factors.
Q2) If the Earth's surface temperature were increased to that of Mercury's day side,then:
A) we would lose most of our water vapor into space.
B) the evaporating oceans would thicken the atmosphere greatly.
C) the erupting volcanoes would greatly increase the carbon dioxide greenhouse.
D) little would happen, as the Earth is still the same mass and surface gravity.
E) the Earth would, like Mercury, lose all its atmospheric gases.
Q3) The lunar mare are radioactively dated at:
A) 4.6 billion years old, forming first among the lunar features.
B) 4.2-3.9 billion years old, comparable to the adjacent highlands.
C) 3.9-3.2 billion years old, forming after most of the bombardment was over.
D) 3.5-2.5 billion years old, similar to the formation of our own oceans.
E) less than a billion years old, the most recent additions to the Moon.
Q4) How are surfaces of Mercury and the Moon similar? Different? Why?
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venus has a highly eccentric orbit,accounting for its large temperature extremes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do our best radar maps of Venus come from the Magellan space probe?
Q3) Venus Express is mapping what feature(s)of Venus?
A) elevations of Venus' surface
B) winds in Venus' atmosphere
C) craters on Venus' surface
D) temperatures of the surface and various layers of the atmosphere
E) the composition of various layers of the atmosphere
Q4) The absence of a magnetic field on Venus probably stems from its:
A) nearness to the Sun.
B) extremely thick atmosphere.
C) slow rotation.
D) high surface temperatures.
E) lower density than Earth, suggesting an absence of an iron core.
Q5) The direction of the rotation of Venus is exceptional because it is in a(n)________ direction.
Q6) What is unusual about the rotational (spin)and orbital periods of Venus?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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Sample Questions
Q1) One piece of evidence against the possibility of water on Mars is:
A) the current lack of water on Mars.
B) the fact that the polar ice caps are made of carbon dioxide ice.
C) the volcanic activity on Mars.
D) the few carbonate rock layers that would have formed on the bottoms of oceans.
E) the "hydrated" chemical compounds found on surface rocks all over the planet.
Q2) The deepest depression found on the surface of Mars is the:
A) Mariannas Trench.
B) Caloris basin.
C) Valles Marineris rift.
D) Hellas Basin of Mars.
E) Mare Crisium.
Q3) Seasonal changes in the darker surface features of Mars are due to ________.
Q4) Which of the following characterizes a shield volcano?
A) It sits above a hot spot in the planet's mantle.
B) It is formed by moving tectonic plates.
C) It will be smaller than cinder cones like Maxwell Mons on Venus.
D) It erupts only briefly before subsiding forever.
E) It cannot grow very large, for the plates are constantly moving.
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Io's "pizza pie" colors come from eruptions of ________ and its compounds.
Q2) We have observed a comet strike Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jupiter has a large ________ created by the interaction between the planet's magnetic field and the solar wind.
Q4) What evidence do we have that Jupiter must have a substantial solid core under the thick clouds?
A) Its magnetic field must be form by rotating molten iron, like our own.
B) Occasional breaks in the clouds reveal a solid surface at times.
C) Jupiter's disk is more oblate than it should be, suggesting it has a higher density.
D) Jupiter's disk is less oblate than it should be, if it were only hydrogen and helium.
E) The Io flux tube goes straight down to Jupiter's iron core.
Q5) While hydrogen,helium,water,and ammonia can produce the white coloration of Jupiter's zones,the brownish color of the belts requires more complex chemistry.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most popular symbols of astronomy is Saturn with its system of rings.Describe the structure and makeup of these rings.
Q2) Which Saturnian moon has the leading hemisphere black as tar,the back side icy white?
A) Rhea
B) Titan
C) Enceladus
D) Iapetus
E) Mimas
Q3) Saturn's rotation is fast and differential,much like Jupiter's.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although it is almost the same size as Jupiter,Saturn's gravity is about 2.5 times less,because of Saturn's lower mass and density.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the moons of Saturn have rocky,cratered surfaces,like Deimos and Phobos.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The magnetic field tilts of which two bodies are the most unusual?
A) Mercury and Earth
B) Jupiter and Saturn
C) Uranus and Neptune
D) Saturn and Venus
E) Mars and Saturn
Q2) Uranus and Neptune appear bluish in color because:
A) methane gas in their atmospheres absorbs red light well.
B) ammonia absorbs blue light well.
C) hydrogen and helium are both blue in large concentrations.
D) dust motes in their atmospheres scatter blue well, just as in our own blue sky.
E) from their distance, the Sun would appear hotter and bluer than from Earth.
Q3) Adams and Leverrier both predicted the position of Neptune,based on its effects on:
A) the Sun.
B) Jupiter.
C) Saturn.
D) Uranus.
E) Pluto.
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Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pluto is most similar to:
A) Europa.
B) Miranda.
C) Triton.
D) our Moon.
E) Mercury.
Q2) The first hint of the role of asteroids in extinction of the dinosaurs came from:
A) finding the huge crater in the Yucatan.
B) finding dinosaur fossils with meteorites imbedded in them.
C) finding a layer of worldwide iridium enriched dust.
D) finding that dinosaurs were warm-blooded and smart.
E) finding that no volcanic eruptions were linked to their disappearance.
Q3) Pluto is probably one of the largest of the Kuiper Belt bodies beyond Neptune. A)True
B)False
Q4) The asteroid Vesta seems to have once been volcanically active,amazing for its small size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) Astronomers have determined the detailed composition of all confirmed exoplanets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Extrasolar planets are placed in groups by their approximate masses.What are four of these classes?
Q3) The habitable zone is the area around a star where:
A) planets with life have been found.
B) human beings could live.
C) the Greenhouse Effect is possible.
D) a planet could have an atmosphere.
E) temperatures are suitable for planets to have liquid water.
Q4) How can astronomers be confident that the larger exoplanets discovered are not simply brown dwarfs?
Q5) What information do we know about the known exoplanets?
A) estimates of orbits and masses
B) complete composition
C) precise masses
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the proton-proton cycle,the helium atom and neutrino have less mass than the original hydrogen.What happens to the "lost" mass?
A) It is recycled back into hydrogen.
B) It is ejected into space.
C) It is converted to energy.
D) It is transformed into electrons.
E) Conservation of mass dictates no mass can be lost.
Q2) The luminosity of the Sun is a measure of:
A) the energy received by the Sun on Earth's surface.
B) the energy received by the Sun at the location of Earth.
C) the energy received by the Sun at any location in the solar system.
D) the energy emitted by the Sun at the photosphere.
E) the total energy emitted by the Sun in all directions.
Q3) Why is it hard to observe the chromosphere?
Q4) At very large distances from the Sun,its corona turns into the solar wind.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Energy produced in the solar core is transferred by ________ until it reaches a point about 500,000 km from the center.
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main Sequence
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a star were moved 10 times farther away,its apparent magnitude would drop by five magnitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At the distance of Jupiter (6 times further away from the Sun than Earth)the amount of sunlight received per square centimeter different by what factor?
A) 6 times less
B) 12 times less
C) 36 times less
D) 6 times more
E) 12 times more
Q3) Alpha Centauri A and B have an average orbital separation of about 23 AU and a period of about 80 years.Approximately what is the sum of their masses? If we presume that Alpha Centauri A is a star like our Sun,what is Alpha Centauri B's mass?
Q4) What role does hydrogen play in spectral classification?
Q5) The apparent magnitude of the Sun is -26,while Sirius has an apparent magnitude of -1; how much brighter does the Sun appear than Sirius?
Page 20
Q6) Why is the main sequence main? Why are these stars so common?
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the chemical composition of interstellar gas with that of interstellar dust.
Q2) Explain why interstellar molecules are best observed at radio wavelengths.
Q3) Interstellar gas is composed of:
A) only hydrogen.
B) 90% hydrogen, 9% helium by weight.
C) 10% hydrogen, 90% helium by numbers of atoms.
D) some hydrogen, but mainly carbon dioxide.
E) ammonia, methane, and water vapor.
Q4) The temperature inside an H II region is colder than inside an H I region.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Emission nebulae like M42 occur only near stars that emit large amounts of:
A) visible light.
B) microwaves.
C) ultraviolet radiation.
D) infrared heat.
E) X-rays and gamma rays.
Q6) Almost all molecules in space are based on what element? Why?
Q7) Contrast observations of ionized and neutral hydrogen in space.
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a typical open cluster forms,which type of stars are formed most often?
A) solar type stars of class G
B) OB associations
C) red giants
D) low mass M type dwarfs
E) white dwarfs
Q2) A stage 4 object can be plotted on the H-R diagram.At this stage,the star will appear:
A) in the middle left of the diagram.
B) in the middle right of the diagram.
C) just on the bottom right of the main sequence.
D) down and to the left of where it will be when it is a main sequence star.
E) in the middle of the main sequence.
Q3) What makes the subject of star formation so difficult and complex?
A) It is so slow that no visible proof of it exists.
B) Star formation is too expensive to study in detail.
C) Stars live too long to be observed from birth to death.
D) Clouds, fragments, protostars, stars, and nebulae all interact and influence each other.
E) Shock waves disrupt the orderly evolution of stars.
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give evidence that magnetism plays a role in planetary nebula formation.
Q2) Mass transfer in binaries occurs when one giant swells to reach the:
A) Chandrasekhar Limit.
B) Cassini Division.
C) Hayashi Track.
D) Roche Lobe.
E) Herbig-Haro Limit.
Q3) At which stage in a Sun-like star's life is its core the least dense?
A) Main Sequence
B) Subgiant Branch
C) Helium Fusion
D) Planetary Nebula
E) White Dwarf
Q4) Which stars in globular clusters are believed to be examples of mergers?
A) eclipsing binaries
B) blue supergiants
C) blue stragglers
D) brown dwarfs
E) planetary nebulae cores
Q5) How is the age of a star cluster determined?
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the amount of energy emitted in the form of neutrinos,during a supernova explosion,compared to the amount of energy radiated as electromagnetic radiation?
A) only .007 as much
B) about equal amounts
C) about twice as much
D) ten times more
E) 100 times more
Q2) Contrast the progenitors of a type I and a type II supernova.
Q3) Where was supernova 1987a located?
A) in the Orion Nebula, M-42
B) in Sagittarius, near the Galactic Nucleus
C) in our companion galaxy, the Large Magellanic Cloud
D) in M-13, one of the closest of the evolved globular clusters
E) near the core of M-31, the Andromeda Galaxy
Q4) What would be most likely to disrupt the normal evolution of a star? Give examples of this.
Q5) An iron core will collapse in approximately one ________ in a type II supernova event.
Q6) Of all elements,________ has the most stable and tightly bound nucleus.
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray bursts and gamma ray bursts have the same distribution pattern in the sky.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A normal neutron star is spun up to a millisecond pulsar by accretion of matter from a ________ binary companion.
Q3) The observed slowing of a clock in the vicinity of a black hole is a prediction of:
A) the Roche Limit.
B) Special relativity.
C) General relativity.
D) Stellar nucleosynthesis.
E) the Cosmological Principle.
Q4) All neutron stars must begin as millisecond pulsars just after their supernova creation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The density of a neutron star is comparable to the density of an atomic nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the accepted explanation for millisecond pulsars?
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arcturus shows a large proper motion,almost perpendicular to the galactic plane.What Population does it belong to,and why?
Q2) What is one of the differences between Cepheids and RR Lyrae variables?
A) Cepheids are giants, but RR Lyrae stars are still on the main sequence.
B) All Cepheids have the same brightness, but RR Lyrae stars vary greatly in luminosity.
C) The period-luminosity relation holds only for RR Lyrae stars.
D) The pulsations of RR Lyrae stars are much less regular than those of Cepheids.
E) The RR Lyrae stars have much shorter periods than Cepheids.
Q3) Which of these objects have NOT been found in the Galactic Halo?
A) RR Lyrae variables
B) planetary nebulae
C) emission nebulae
D) Population II stars
E) globular clusters
Q4) The majority of the mass of the Milky Way lies farther out than the Sun's orbit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How are Cepheids and RR Lyrae stars different?
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is very little interstellar gas or dust in most elliptical galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A galaxy that was once a quasar is likely to:
A) have burned all its fuel by now and be dark.
B) now be a dwarf irregular.
C) have a black hole at its nucleus.
D) still be a quasar.
E) be less than 5 billion years old.
Q3) The expansion of the universe means that stars in our Milky Way Galaxy are getting increasingly farther apart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Quasar's spectral lines are:
A) emission lines with large redshifts.
B) a continuum from the synchrotron radiation.
C) fuzzy absorption lines from the merged light of the billions of stars.
D) too complex for any interpretation.
E) nonexistent, the gas so hot as to be totally ionized, so no lines are seen.
Q5) What are the Magellanic Clouds? What happened in the LMC in 1987?
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gravitational lensing of distant,faint irregular galaxies may be the key to:
A) mapping the dark matter.
B) quasar energy production.
C) understanding galactic rotation curves.
D) understanding active galactic nuclei.
E) determining galactic redshifts.
Q2) The last quasar probably died out a billion years ago,for none lie within a billion light years of us.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For nearby spirals,their rotation curves help measure both light and dark matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Giant elliptical galaxies may be the result of ________ in the centers of rich clusters.
Q5) Most large spirals and ellipticals are comparable to the Milky Way in mass.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How do head-tail radio galaxies reveal their motion?
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Q1) Olber's Paradox is solved in part by the fact that the universe is neither infinitely large nor infinitely old.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When considering whether the density of the universe is above or below the critical density,what needs to be included in the measurement of density?
A) ordinary matter
B) ordinary matter and dark matter
C) ordinary matter, neutrinos, gravity waves and electromagnetic energy
D) ordinary matter, dark matter and electromagnetic energy
E) ordinary matter, dark matter, neutrinos, gravity waves, electromagnetic energy and dark energy
Q3) When dark energy is thrown into the mix,present observational data seem to indicate that the universe will ________.
Q4) If the geometry of the universe can be shown to be Euclidean,then the density of the universe _________ the critical density.
Q5) ________ is the concept that the universe looks the same in all directions.
Q6) Where did the Big Bang occur?
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Q1) All of the ________ now observed must be primordial.
Q2) Why didn't elements heavier than helium form in the first minutes of creation?
A) The first generation of stars used them up too quickly to observe them.
B) There was not enough matter in the universe at that time.
C) When He-4 was formed, the expansion cooled the cosmos below 100 million K.
D) The electrons slowed down enough to be captured into orbits by protons.
E) Only type I supernovae can produce iron and heavier elements.
Q3) Describe how the inflationary model of the early universe,a current matter density equal to the critical density,and dark matter are related.
Q4) Which of these seems the best present answer to the horizon and flatness problems?
A) The superforce rules creation.
B) Dark Energy speeds the universe on out to infinity.
C) symmetry in creation of particles and antiparticles
D) the inflationary epoch
E) the GUT theory
Q5) What are the important relics of the quark epoch? Why?
Q6) What are GUTs?
Q7) The ________ epoch has dominated the last ten billion years of universal evolution. Page 30
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Q1) The Drake equation now tells us that the number of technological civilizations in our Galaxy at this time is:
A) only our own.
B) five to ten at most.
C) perhaps 3,000.
D) millions.
E) not known; insufficient data to compute.
Q2) Earth behaves as an artificial pulsar,with the strongest pulses for alien observers when North America is either rising or setting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) We have found Titan's surface to be perfect living condition for earthlike life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) We now know that photosynthesis is not the only energy mechanism that life can use to supply it with energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is meant by the idea life on Earth had an "interstellar origin"?
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