Earth and Space Science Exam Answer Key - 3013 Verified Questions

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Earth and Space Science

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Earth and Space Science explores the dynamic systems and processes that shape our planet and the universe beyond. This course covers topics such as the structure and composition of Earth's interior, plate tectonics, the rock and water cycles, atmospheric phenomena, and weather patterns. It also delves into the solar system, stars, galaxies, and the fundamental principles governing the cosmos. Through observations, laboratory investigations, and the use of scientific models, students develop a comprehensive understanding of how Earth's processes interact with celestial phenomena in shaping our environment and expanding our knowledge of space.

Recommended Textbook

The Cosmic Perspective 8th Edition by Jeffrey O. Bennett

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Chapter 1: A Modern View of the Universe

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Q1) The distribution of the mass of the Milky Way Galaxy is determined by

A)counting the number of stars.

B)determining the amount of gas and dust.

C)studying how stars are distributed in the Milky Way.

D)studying the rotation of the galaxy.

E)weighing various parts of the Milky Way.

Answer: D

Q2) On a cosmic calendar,in which the history of the universe is compressed into 1 year,when did the dinosaurs become extinct?

A)in late December

B)in late November

C)in late October

D)in late September

E)in late August

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Discovering the Universe for Yourself

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Q1) What effect does the precession of the Moon's nodes have on eclipses?

A)there is a lunar eclipse every 6 months

B)there is a solar eclipse every 6 months

C)the eclipse seasons occur less than 6 months apart

D)the vernal equinox will be in Aquarius in a few hundred years

E)there are never two solar eclipses in the same year

Answer: C

Q2) Consider the following statement,and explain whether or not it is sensible: When I looked into the dark fissure of the Milky Way with my binoculars,I saw what must have been a cluster of distant galaxies.

Answer: This statement does not make sense because we cannot see through the band of light we call the Milky Way to external galaxies;the dark fissure is gas and dust blocking our view.

Q3) The Moon and the Sun are approximately the same angular size.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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4

Chapter 3: The Science of Astronomy

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Q1) The Muslim fast of Ramadan occurs

A)on the summer solstice.

B)during the ninth month of a 12-month lunar cycle.

C)on the spring equinox.

D)during a thirteenth month of the Metonic cycle.

E)at the end of the Metonic cycle.

Answer: B

Q2) From Kepler's third law,a hypothetical planet that is twice as far from the Sun as Earth should have a period of A)1/2 Earth year.

B)1 Earth year.

C)2 Earth years.

D)more than 2 Earth years.

E)It depends on the planet's mass.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Making Sense of the Universe: Understanding

Motion, Energy, and Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under what conditions is an object weightless?

Q2) The mass of Jupiter can be calculated by

A)measuring the orbital period and distance of Jupiter's orbit around the Sun.

B)measuring the orbital period and distance of one of Jupiter's moons.

C)measuring the orbital speed of one of Jupiter's moons.

D)knowing the Sun's mass and measuring how Jupiter's speed changes during its elliptical orbit around the Sun.

E)knowing the Sun's mass and measuring the average distance of Jupiter from the Sun.

Q3) Suppose you lived on the Moon.Which of the following would be true?

A)Your weight would be less than your weight on Earth,but your mass would be the same as it is on Earth.

B)Both your weight and your mass would be less than they are on Earth.

C)Your mass would be less than your mass on Earth,but your weight would be the same as it is on Earth.

D)Both your weight and your mass would be the same as they are on Earth.

Q4) The Moon is slowly moving away from Earth.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Light and Matter: Reading Messages from the

Cosmos

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dissociation is the process in which

A)the bonds between atoms in a molecule are broken.

B)a molecule goes from the solid phase to the gas phase.

C)the bonds between electrons around an atomic nucleus are broken.

D)an element changes into another form.

E)an electron is shared between atomic nuclei.

Q2) If a material is highly opaque,then it

A)reflects most light.

B)absorbs most light.

C)transmits most light.

D)scatters most light.

E)emits most light.

Q3) Suppose you built a scale-model atom in which the nucleus is the size of a tennis ball.About how far would the cloud of electrons extend?

A)a few meters

B)several centimeters

C)several kilometers

D)to the Sun

Q4) Briefly explain how we can use spectral lines to determine an object's rotation rate.

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Chapter 6: Telescopes: Portals of Discovery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suppose you point your telescope at a distant object.Which of the following is not an advantage of taking a photograph of the object through the telescope as compared to just looking at the object through the telescope?

A)The photograph will have far better angular resolution than you can see with your eye.

B)By using a long exposure time,the photograph can allow you to see objects that would be too dim to see with your eye.

C)If taken with a camera with a sensitive detector such as a CCD,the photograph can capture a much larger percentage of the incoming photons than can your eye.

D)The photograph provides a more reliable record of what is seen through the telescope than can a drawing made by eye.

Q2) Draw and label a simple diagram of the following:

a.a refracting telescope

b.a reflecting telescope

Q3) Explain how adaptive optics works.

Q4) The angular resolution of a telescope is never less than its diffraction limit.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Our Planetary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which moons are sometimes called the Galilean moons?

A)the four largest moons of Jupiter: Io,Europa,Ganymede,and Callisto

B)the two largest moons in the solar system: Ganymede and Titan

C)the moons that orbit their planet "backward" compared to their planet's rotation,such as Neptune's moon Triton

D)the moons orbiting Uranus,which was once named "planet Galileo"

Q2) Process of Science: Explain the varied ways in which we continue to explore the Solar System.

Q3) Curiosity

A)Earth orbiter

B)flyby

C)planetary orbiter

D)lander

Q4) Which of the following statements about Mars is not true?

A)We have landed spacecraft on its surface.

B)It is considered part of our inner solar system.

C)We could survive on Mars without spacesuits,as long as we brought oxygen in scuba tanks.

D)It has some liquid water today,but used to have large amounts of flowing water.

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Chapter 8: Formation of the Solar System

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to our present theory of solar system formation,which of the following statements about the growth of terrestrial and jovian planets is not true?

A)Both types of planet begun with planetesimals growing through the process of accretion,but only the jovian planets were able to capture hydrogen and helium gas from the solar nebula.

B)The jovian planets began from planetesimals made only of ice,while the terrestrial planets began from planetesimals made only of rock and metal.

C)Swirling disks of gas,like the solar nebula in miniature,formed around the growing jovian planets but not around the growing terrestrial planets.

D)The terrestrial planets formed inside the frost line of the solar nebula and the jovian planets formed beyond it.

Q2) Explain how the age of a rock can be determined by radiometric dating.

Q3) If we were to re-run the formation of the solar system,what would likely be the same and what would likely be different?

Q4) Process of Science: Are those who advocate creationism or "intelligent design" following the scientific method? Defend your answer.

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Chapter 9: Planetary Geology: Earth and the Other

Terrestrial Worlds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is continental crust lower in density than seafloor crust?

A)Continental crust is made from remelted seafloor crust and therefore only the lower-density material rises to form it.

B)Continental crust is made from volcanic rock called basalt,which is lower in density than what the seafloor crust is made from.

C)Continental crust is made of rock,while seafloor crust has more metals.

D)Seafloor crust is more compact due to the weight of the oceans,but it is made of the same material as the continental crust.

E)Continental crust is actually denser than seafloor crust.

Q2) In general,which things below are affected by a magnetic field?

A)charged particles or magnetized materials (such as iron)

B)rocks of all types

C)iron-bearing minerals only

D)bases and liquids

Q3) In the inner solar system,the largest surface features are found on the largest planets.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Why do we think Mercury contracted within about a billion years after it formed?

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Chapter 10: Planetary Atmospheres: Earth and the Other

Terrestrial Worlds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A planet with an albedo of 10 percent absorbs 10 percent of the sunlight that strikes it and reflects the other 90 percent.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following best describes how the greenhouse effect works?

A)Greenhouse gases absorb X-rays and ultraviolet light from the Sun,and this absorbed radiation then heats the atmosphere and the surface.

B)A planet's surface absorbs visible sunlight and returns this absorbed energy to space as infrared light.Greenhouse gases slow the escape of this infrared radiation,which thereby heats the lower atmosphere.

C)Greenhouse gases absorb infrared light coming from the Sun,and this absorbed sunlight heats the lower atmosphere and the surface.

D)The greenhouse effect is caused primarily by ozone,which absorbs ultraviolet light and thereby makes the atmosphere much hotter than it would be otherwise.

Q3) Process of Science: Are participants in the current controversy regarding global warming following the scientific method? Defend your answer.

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Chapter 11: Jovian Planet Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do the jovian planet interiors differ?

A)All have cores of about the same mass,but differ in the amount of surrounding hydrogen and helium.

B)The core mass decreases with the mass of the planet.

C)The composition changes from mostly ammonia in Jupiter and Saturn to mostly methane in Uranus and Neptune.

D)The composition changes from mostly hydrogen in Jupiter and Saturn to mostly helium in Uranus and Neptune.

E)All have about the same amount of hydrogen and helium but the proportion of rocks is greater in those planets closer to the Sun.

Q2) Which of the following is not due to tidal forces?

A)the synchronous rotation of the Moon around Earth

B)the volcanos on Io (a moon of Jupiter)

C)the rings of Saturn

D)the grooved terrain of Enceladus (a moon of Saturn)

E)the backward orbit of Triton (a moon of Neptune)

Q3) Why is Triton such an unusual satellite?

Q4) Why does it make sense that the jovian planets farther from the Sun have less mass?

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Chapter 12: Asteroids, Comets, and Dwarf Planets: Their

Nature, Orbits, and Impacts

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Sample Questions

Q1) What evidence do we have of geological activity on asteroids in the past?

Q2) The combined mass of all the asteroids in the asteroid belt is

A)less than that of any terrestrial planet.

B)about the same as that of Earth.

C)about twice that of Earth.

D)about the same as that of Jupiter.

E)more than that of all the planets combined.

Q3) Why do we sometimes observe asteroids at the distances of the gaps in the asteroid belt?

A)A gap is located at an average orbital distance,and asteroid orbits often have large eccentricities.

B)Jupiter's gravitational tugs keep them there.

C)They are held in place by resonances with other asteroids.

D)They are kept in place by shepherding asteroids.

E)Actually,we never see asteroids in the gaps.

Q4) Comet nuclei can be darker than charcoal.

A)True

B)False

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Q5) Why would anyone be interested in mining material from an asteroid?

Q6) Why is the Kuiper belt flat but the Oort cloud spherical?

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Chapter 13: Other Planetary Systems: The New Science of

Distant Worlds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first planets around other Sun-like stars were discovered

A)by Huygens,following his realization that other stars are Suns.

B)by Galileo following the invention of the telescope.

C)at the turn of last century.

D)about a decade ago.

E)at the turn of this century.

Q2) The Doppler technique only provides a measure of the minimum mass of a planet because

A)only a small part of the planet's motion is measured.

B)without a transit observation,the size and therefore density of the planet is unknown.

C)we do not know the exact composition of the planet.

D)only the motion of star toward the observer is measured,not the full motion.

E)we do not have the technology to make a direct image of a planet yet.

Q3) In general,which type of planet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the spectrum of its star?

A)a massive planet that is close to its star

B)a massive planet that is far from its star

C)a low-mass planet that is close to its star

D)a low-mass planet that is far from its star

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Chapter 14: Our Star

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Q1) Process of Science: How do we know what is going on in the center of the Sun so well if we cannot see it or send spacecraft to it?

Q2) What do sunspots,solar prominences,and solar flares all have in common?

A)They all have about the same temperature.

B)They are all shaped by the solar wind.

C)They are all strongly influenced by magnetic fields on the Sun.

D)They all occur only in the Sun's photosphere.

Q3) What is the average temperature of the surface of the Sun?

A)1 million K

B)100,000 K

C)10,000 K

D)6,000 K

E)1,000 K

Q4) How much mass does the Sun lose through nuclear fusion per second?

A)4 tons

B)4 million tons

C)600 tons

D)600 million tons

E)Nothing: mass is conserved.

Q5) Might changes in the Sun affect weather or climate on Earth?

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Chapter 15: Surveying the Stars

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Q1) Why is the spectral sequence of stars not alphabetical?

A)The letters refer to the initials of the original discovers.

B)The original alphabetical labeling did not correspond to surface temperature and thus had to be reordered.

C)They were chosen to fit a mnemonic.

D)Because there is still uncertainty over what generates the energy in stellar cores.

E)Because it refers to stellar masses and these were difficult to measure accurately.

Q2) Which group represents stars of the largest radii?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q3) Earth is about 150 million km from the Sun,and the apparent brightness of the Sun in our sky is about 1,300 watts per square meter.Determine the apparent brightness we would measure for the Sun if we were located one-third of Earth's distance from the Sun.

Q4) Which star has the largest radius?

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Chapter 16: Star Birth

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Q1) If you wanted to observe stars behind a molecular cloud,in what wavelength of light would you most likely observe?

A)ultraviolet

B)visible

C)infrared

D)X-ray

E)gamma-ray

Q2) What can we learn about a star from a life track on an H-R diagram?

A)the star's age

B)the surface temperature and luminosity the star will have at each stage of its life

C)the star's current stage of life

D)how the star's distance from Earth varies at different times in its life

Q3) What is interstellar reddening and explain how it can be used to map out the distribution of dust in a cloud.

Q4) No stars have been found composed solely of Hydrogen and Helium (and no heavier elements).

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain how gas in a protostellar disk spirals onto the central star.

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Chapter 17: Star Stuff

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Q1) The most massive stars generate energy at the end of their lives by fusing iron in their cores.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Carbon fusion occur in high-mass stars but not in low-mass stars because

A)the cores of low-mass stars never contain significant amounts of carbon.

B)the cores of low-mass stars never get hot enough for carbon fusion.

C)only high-mass stars do fusion by the CNO cycle.

D)carbon fusion can occur only in the stars known as carbon stars.

Q3) Which method of energy generation provides the source of energy for a protostar?

A)H fusion by the proton-proton chain

B)H fusion by the CNO cycle

C)helium fusion

D)matter-antimatter annihilation

E)gravitational contraction

Q4) What type of star is our Sun?

A)low-mass star

B)intermediate-mass star

C)high-mass star

D)brown dwarf

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Chapter 18: The Bizarre Stellar Graveyard

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Q1) White dwarfs are so called because

A)they are both very hot and very small.

B)they are the end-products of small,low-mass stars.

C)they are the opposite of black holes.

D)it amplifies the contrast with red giants.

E)they are supported by electron degeneracy pressure.

Q2) How are elements more massive than iron produced?

A)inside white dwarfs

B)inside two merging white dwarfs

C)inside neutron stars

D)inside two merging neutron stars

Q3) What would happen if a small piece (say the size of a paper clip)of neutron star material struck Earth?

Q4) What is the basic definition of a black hole?

A)a dead star that has faded from view

B)any object made from dark matter

C)an object with gravity so strong that not even light can escape

D)a compact mass that emits no visible light

Q5) Process of Science: How were neutron stars discovered?

Q6) Why do white-dwarf supernovae all have the same maximum luminosity?

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Chapter 19: Our Galaxy

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Q1) What are cosmic rays?

A)another name for gamma rays and X-rays

B)fast moving dust particles in the interstellar medium

C)subatomic particles that travel close to the speed of light

D)lasers used as weapons by extraterrestrials

Q2) Where does most star formation occur in the Milky Way Galaxy?

A)everywhere throughout the galactic disk

B)in the central bulge

C)within the halo

D)in the spiral arms

Q3) How does the diameter of the disk of Milky Way Galaxy compare to its thickness?

A)The diameter and thickness are roughly equal.

B)The diameter is about 100 times as great as the thickness.

C)The diameter is about 10 times as great as the thickness.

D)The diameter is about 100,000 times as great as the thickness.

Q4) Almost all elements heavier than hydrogen and helium were made inside stars.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly explain why stars that formed early in the history of the galaxy contain a smaller proportion of heavy elements than stars that formed more recently.

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Chapter 20: Galaxies and the Foundations of Modern Cosmology

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Q1) You observe the peak brightnesses of two white dwarf supernovae.Supernova A is only 1/4 as bright as Supernova B.What can you say about their relative distances?

A)Supernova A is twice as far away as Supernova B.

B)Supernova A is 4 times as far away as Supernova B.

C)Supernova B is 4 times as far away as Supernova A.

D)Supernova B is twice as far away as Supernova A.

E)We can't say anything about their relative distances because we do not have enough information.

Q2) Suppose that Hubble's constant were 20 kilometers per second per million light-years.How fast would we expect a galaxy 100 million light-years away to be moving? (Assume the motion is due only to Hubble's law. )

A)away from us at 200 km/s

B)toward us at 2,000 km/s

C)away from us at 2,000 km/s

D)away from us at 20,000 km/s

Q3) A lenticular galaxy is another name for an elongated elliptical galaxy.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does the age of the universe depend on Hubble's constant,and why?

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Chapter 21: Galaxy Evolution

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Q1) If the Andromeda Galaxy collided with the Milky Way,what would most likely happen to Earth?

A)The Sun and all its planets would be crushed by collisions with stars and planets from the Andromeda Galaxy.

B)Nothing.

C)The Sun would not be disturbed,but the solar system would be ripped apart.

D)The Sun will turn into a red giant and explode.

Q2) Which of the following cannot be true of the very first stars formed in the Universe?

A)They may have all exploded as supernovae by now.

B)They may have formed in large clusters.

C)They may have formed singly,in isolation.

D)Some may still exist in the Milky Way today.

E)They may have had rocky planets around them.

Q3) Observations of quasar absorption lines show that intergalactic clouds were more common in the past.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does a starburst end? What might happen to the galaxy afterwards?

Q5) How do jets produced by radio galaxies differ from those of protostars?

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Chapter 22: The Birth of the Universe

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Q1) Briefly explain why radiation was trapped for 300,000 years during the era of nuclei,and why the cosmic background radiation broke free at the end of this era.

Q2) In principle,if we could see all the way to the cosmological horizon we could see the Big Bang taking place.However,our view is blocked for times prior to about 380,000 years after the Big Bang.Why?

A)Before that time,the universe was too crowded with stars.

B)Before that time,the gas in the universe was dense and ionized and therefore did not allow light to travel freely.

C)Before that time,the universe was dark so there was no light to illuminate anything.

D)380,000 years after the Big Bang marks the time when stars were first born,and thus began to shine the light by which we can see the universe.

Q3) Why didn't the Big Bang produce many heavier elements than helium?

Q4) If inflation really occurred,then our observable universe is only a tiny portion of the entire universe born in the Big Bang.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Dark Matter, Dark Energy, and the Fate of the Universe

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Q1) When we see that a spectral line of a galaxy is broadened,that is,spanning a range of wavelengths,we conclude that

A)we do not have very good resolution of a star's orbital velocity.

B)there are many stars traveling at extremely high orbital velocities.

C)there are different Doppler shifts among the individual stars in the galaxy.

D)we are actually measuring the orbital velocity of a cloud of atomic gas.

E)we are actually measuring the orbital velocity of dark matter.

Q2) Which of the following best sums up current scientific thinking about the nature of dark energy?

A)Dark energy most likely consists of a form of photons that we can't see or detect.

B)Dark energy is most likely made up of weakly interacting particles that do not interact with light.

C)Dark energy probably exists,but we have little (if any)idea what it is.

D)Dark energy is the source of the mind weapon used by Sith Lords in Star Wars.

Q3) Why does the value of Hubble's constant alone not tell us the fate of the universe?

Q4) If the universe is accelerating,it will expand forever.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Life in the Universe

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Q1) Suppose it turns out that one in 1 million stars has a planet that at some point in its history is home to an advanced civilization.Then the total number of civilizations that have arisen in our galaxy would be closest to A)4.

B)40.

C)400.

D)4,000.

E)40,000.

F)400,000.

Q2) At present,what is the primary way that the search for extraterrestrial intelligence (SETI)is carried out?

A)by searching for planets around distant stars

B)by using large X-ray telescopes to search for signals from extraterrestrial civilizations

C)by using radio telescopes to search for signals from extraterrestrial civilizations

D)by analyzing high-resolution images of nearby stars in search of evidence of structures that could not have developed naturally

E)by seeking access to the secret records and alien corpses kept at Area 51

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27

Chapter 25: Celestial Timekeeping and Navigation

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Q1) No matter where you live on Earth,the Sun is always directly overhead at noon.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which constellation (capital letters)is Cassiopeia?

Q3) Which bright star (lowercase letters)is Aldebaran?

Q4) Which of the following explains why navigators prior to a few hundred years ago found it much more difficult to determine longitude than latitude?

A)Determining longitude requires mathematical techniques that were not known at the time.

B)Determining longitude requires much more precise measurements of angles in the sky than does latitude.

C)Determining longitude requires accurate tables of the celestial coordinates of stars,while determining latitude does not.

D)Determining longitude requires an accurate clock,but latitude does not.

Q5) Our calendar has leap years because

A)there is one more sidereal day in a year than solar days.

B)a tropical year is slightly more than 365 days.

C)there is a difference between a sidereal year and a tropical year.

D)the perihelion of Earth's orbit is slowly advancing.

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Chapter 26: Space and Time

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Sample Questions

Q1) Process of Science: The theory of special relativity is one of the most tested theories in physics and has now been completely proven beyond all doubt.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Different observers always agree about the order of events that occur at the same place.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain why relativity allows us to travel,in principle,to the center of the Milky Way,but we would never be able to tell our friends back home about it.

Q4) You can see a clock in a spaceship moving past you at 90% of the speed of light.According to you,how much time would pass while the clock in the spaceship ticked through one minute?

A)more than one minute

B)less than one minute

C)A minute is the same on the ship as it is for you.

D)A minute on the ship is exactly two minutes for you.

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Chapter 27: Spacetime and Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do we see a gravitational redshift in the spectrum of the Sun?

A)Gravity makes light heavy,causing it to appear redder.

B)Because of gravity,the Sun is always moving away from us,so we see a redshift.

C)Time runs slower on the Sun than on Earth,making lines in the solar spectrum have lower frequency and hence longer wavelength than normal.

D)Spacetime curvature allows red photons of light to escape the Sun more easily than blue photons,leading to an apparent redshift.

Q2) What do we mean by dimension in the context of relativity?

A)the number of independent directions in which movement is possible

B)the size of an object

C)the number of sides that we can see when we look at an object

D)the letter used to represent length mathematically

Q3) If you draw a spacetime diagram,the worldline of an object that is accelerating away from you is

A)vertical.

B)horizontal.

C)slanted.

D)curved.

E)a circle.

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Page 30

Chapter 28: Building Blocks of the Universe

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does degeneracy pressure differ from thermal pressure?

A)Degeneracy pressure cannot support an object against the crush of gravity,but thermal pressure can.

B)Degeneracy pressure can arise in a plasma,but thermal pressure cannot.

C)Degeneracy pressure affects stars,but thermal pressure does not.

D)Degeneracy pressure continues to be felt even if an object becomes very cold,but thermal pressure is drastically reduced as an object gets cold.

Q2) Which of the following statements about neutrinos is not true?

A)Neutrinos are neither attracted nor repelled by electrically charged particles.

B)Neutrinos have a mass that is much smaller than the mass of an electron.

C)Neutrinos do not respond to the strong nuclear force.

D)There are three types of neutrinos,and these represent three of the six known types of lepton.

E)Neutrinos do not respond to the force of gravity.

Q3) The strong nuclear force is the force that holds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus together.Based on the fact that atomic nuclei can be stable,briefly explain how you can conclude that the strong force must be even stronger than the electromagnetic force,at least over very short distances.

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