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Earth and Environmental Systems Review Questions - 1939 Verified Questions

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Earth and Environmental Systems Review

Questions

Course Introduction

Earth and Environmental Systems provides an integrated exploration of the dynamic processes that shape our planet, emphasizing the interconnectedness of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and geosphere. Students examine how natural and human-induced changes influence environmental systems over various spatial and temporal scales. Topics include energy cycles, climate systems, ecosystem interactions, biogeochemical cycles, and the impact of human activities on Earths resources and environmental stability. Through case studies, laboratory exercises, and field investigations, students develop a comprehensive understanding of Earths complex systems and the challenges involved in sustaining the environment for future generations.

Recommended Textbook

Environmental Science 12th Edition by Wright

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23 Chapters

1939 Verified Questions

1939 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Science and the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

A)the sun beating down on a rain forest

B)plants,such as bamboo and rice,growing in moist environments

C)oil reserves,buried deep below the surface of the ground

D)water flowing through a dam

Answer: C

Q2) The destruction of oyster larvae in Oregon aquaculture tanks was discovered to be caused by

A)pathogenic bacteria.

B)minute predators accidentally imported in sea water.

C)temperatures too warm for larval survival.

D)increase in the acidity of sea water in which the larvae were incubated.

Answer: D

Q3) Because of the modern environmental movement,

A)world population has remained stable.

B)coal power plants are the main source of our electricity.

C)federal government is less involved in environmental policy.

D)average life expectancy for humans is longer.

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Economics, Politics, and Public Policy

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Sample Questions

Q1) People who are well aware of the damaging effects of mercury might insist that all fish that they eat is free from mercury.They may be alarmed,for instance,if mercury levels remain at very low levels,far below that known to cause harm.Insisting that mercury be completely eliminated from fish

A)will likely require little additional cost with potentially great benefits.

B)will likely reduce the cost of fish and improve the health of consumers.

C)is not cost effective for the health benefits of complete elimination.

D)is a necessary but very expensive part of additional environmental controls.

Answer: C

Q2) Over this 10-year period,the benefit to cost ratio is

A)4 to 3.

B)3 to 4.

C)4 to 2.

D)2 to 4.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Basic Needs of Living Things

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Sample Questions

Q1) Resources for seagulls living along an ocean shore would include

A)shifting tides.

B)ocean temperature.

C)the strength and direction of the wind.

D)nesting sites.

Answer: D

Q2) Most organisms native to a desert community are

A)well adapted to the heat and dry environment.

B)well adapted to the heat but probably not the dry environment.

C)well adapted to the dry environment but probably not the heat.

D)not well adapted to the heat or dry environment.

Answer: A

Q3) Which one of the following is the most inclusive level of classification?

A)class

B)phylum

C)order

D)family

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Populations and Communities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following illustrates intraspecific competition?

A)a butterfly feeding on the nectar of a daffodil flower

B)a sea gull swooping down to snatch a fish from the water's surface

C)a tick and a flea sharing a dog's back

D)male red-winged blackbirds defending nesting sites from other males

Q2) In a mature forest in a national park,maple trees grow very large and live more than 80 years.Over an average lifetime,a tree produces more than 100,000 seeds,of which only 2-3 sprout and grow to maturity.This maple tree is

A)K-selected and exhibits a type I survivorship curve.

B)K-selected and exhibits a type III survivorship curve.

C)r-selected and exhibits a type I survivorship curve.

D)r-selected and exhibits a type III survivorship curve.

Q3) New genetic traits upon which natural selection can act usually arise from A)mutations and crossover.

B)increases in cell size and shape.

C)the need to become adapted to a new environment.

D)the demands of the environment.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Ecosystems: Energy, Patterns, and Disturbance

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Sample Questions

Q1) For nearly 50 years,a farmer has raised corn and soybeans on his family's 1,000-acre farm by a river.Now in retirement,the farmer wants to return the farmland to its natural state as a wetland in the floodplain of the river.The farmer will most need the services of A)a crop scientist.

B)a restoration ecologist and data from LTER projects.

C)an agricultural engineer with training in successional dynamics.

D)a functional morphologist.

Q2) As successional changes occur in an ecosystem,new species take advantage of new conditions.Where do these new species come from?

A)They evolve from other species in the immediate region.

B)They come from surrounding ecosystems in other stages of succession.

C)They are planted by forest rangers managing these forest ecosystems.

D)The seeds of the new species are carried in by large streams and rivers.

Q3) Most warm desert biomes of the world are located

A)about 20-30 degrees latitude north or south.

B)in Asia.

C)along a coastline.

D)along the equator.

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Chapter 6: Wild Species and Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A loss of biodiversity will likely

A)increase the number of k-strategists.

B)increase the demand for ecotourism.

C)increase the number of pest species.

D)eliminate most forest ecosystems of the world.

Q2) The world's wild species represent a warehouse of genetic diversity of instrumental value commonly called

A)the genetic bank.

B)the agricultural genome project.

C)a genome center.

D)a chromosome concentration.

Q3) The removal of the Bald Eagle from the Endangered Species List best illustrates good A)ecological restoration

B)management of biodiversity hot spots

C)private financial investment in conservation programs.

D)stewardship reflected in wise environmental policies.

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Chapter 7: The Use and Restoration of Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following lumber harvesting strategies will most likely produce erosion problems?

A)clear-cutting

B)selective cutting

C)shelter-wood cutting

D)sustainable forest management

Q2) The value of programs such as the Reef Environmental Education Foundation (REEF)lies in

A)their ability to raise funds for coral reef research.

B)their involvement of citizens in the collection of data and the removal of invasive species from coral reefs.

C)their use of untrained volunteers to replace qualified scientists in marine biology.

D)the increase in commercial fishing yields in the Caribbean.

Q3) Over the last 90 years in the United States,

A)the total area of forests has been reduced by about 90%.

B)the total area of forests has increased in size.

C)most national forests have been clear-cut and converted to agriculture

D)most national forests have been replaced by commercial development.

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Chapter 8: The Human Population

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which problem today is primarily the result of the Industrial Revolution?

A)extensive air and water pollution

B)increased transmission of disease between people living in close proximity

C)decline in quality of agricultural soil

D)erosion from deforestation as more fuel wood is harvested

Q2) Using the GINI index,more than any other high-income country,the United States has

A)the lowest life expectancies and more children in poverty.

B)more people in prison and fewer children in poverty.

C)the highest life expectancies,fewer people in prison,and more children in poverty.

D)the lowest life expectancies,more people in prison,and more children in poverty.

Q3) Which one of the following is true? The population profile of A)Sweden in the year 2050 looks like a column.

B)Indonesia is widest in the middle,narrowing at the top and bottom.

C)Burkina Faso,like most developing countries,is shaped like a pyramid,widest at the base.

D)All of the above are true.

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Population and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The lowest-income countries will need to address the Millennium Development Goals by relying on

A)costs shared equally between domestic sources and wealthy donor countries.

B)increased harvesting of natural resources.

C)increased international trade and foreign investments in natural resources.

D)the development of new technologies that create high-tech jobs and improve health care.

Q2) Farmers suffering severe poverty often barely produce enough crops to survive.These farmers

A)exist in a downward spiral of degraded land and reduced productivity.

B)often accumulate neighboring land,grow their farms,and rise out of poverty.

C)work longer days and increase their family sizes until their farms become very profitable.

D)typically convert their farms to forests,and sell lumber at much higher prices.

Q3) In general,high poverty produces

A)high fertility and greater environmental damage.

B)low fertility and greater environmental damage.

C)high fertility and less environmental damage.

D)low fertility and less environmental damage.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Water: Hydrologic Cycle and Human Use

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Sample Questions

Q1) Treadle pumps

A)work like a step exercise machine.

B)pump groundwater from just a few feet below the surface to a field.

C)are in use in eastern Asia and parts of Africa.

D)All of the above.

Q2) The removal of existing dams is motivated by

A)the need for more urban drinking water.

B)the need for more irrigation water.

C)restoration of scenic beauty of rivers and fisheries.

D)the need for more hydroelectric power stations.

Q3) China's current rush to construct dams and transport water over long distances is a response to

A)the national need to create more water-intensive industries such as mining.

B)draining areas that can be put into crop cultivation.

C)reducing the amount of water used in crop irrigation.

D)producing more water for crop irrigation,urban use and for hydroelectric projects.

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Chapter 11: Soil: Foundation for Land Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of government rangelands for the grazing of cattle has

A)resulted in the increased productivity of these regions.

B)raised funds that are now available to replant these regions.

C)produced cooperative relationships between herders to sustainably manage these regions.

D)reduced productivity by at least 50% and lost the government money.

Q2) The SARE;and WHIP,EQIP and CSP programs

A)mandate soil conservation programs in all U.S.-subsidized agriculture.

B)promote research in sustainable agriculture (SARE)or land and wildlife conservation on agricultural lands.

C)are U.N.FAO programs aimed at sustainable agriculture in South America and Africa.

D)are NGOs that work with Central American steeplands farmers to improve soil fertility.

Q3) The detritus food web illustrated in the lower right of this diagram primarily occurs in the

A)E horizon.

B)O horizon.

C)B horizon.

D)C horizon.

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Chapter 12: The Production and Distribution of Food

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Sample Questions

Q1) Famine may strike anywhere in the world.However today,famine is a regular event in the dryland Sahel region of in A)Australia.

B)Central America.

C)Africa.

D)southeast Asia.

Q2) In the last 50 years,the greatest progress in addressing worldwide hunger and malnutrition came from the

A)use of better transportation methods to export grain more efficiently.

B)development and use of new varieties of high-yielding wheat and rice.

C)reduced reliance on pesticides,herbicides,and chemical fertilizers.

D)widespread use of sustainable irrigation methods.

Q3) The industrial revolution has greatly impacted global agriculture such that

A)the need for fertilizers and herbicides has nearly been eliminated.

B)agricultural productivity has more than doubled.

C)soil degradation has been nearly eliminated.

D)the cost of world agriculture has dropped significantly.

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Chapter 13: Pests and Pest Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) The common definition of pest

A)is based on the negative impacts of an organism on human activities.

B)varies depending upon whether the organism is an herbivore or carnivore.

C)varies widely in the world depending upon the particular culture.

D)is limited to organisms that are plants.

Q2) Pesticide regulations such as those in FIFRA and FQPA address concerns about the safety of those applying the pesticides,pesticide residues on food,and the effects of pesticides on

A)human health.

B)the environment.

C)human health and the environment.

D)human health,the environment,and the local culture.

Q3) A garden is suffering from a quickly growing mold.The most effective treatment for this problem would be the application of A)an herbicide.

B)a fungicide.

C)a pesticide.

D)a rodenticide.

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Chapter 14: Energy From Fossil Fuels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Judging by the graph in the figure,if you were going to purchase stock in U.S.companies that generate power in the United States,where would you least likely expect to see future growth?

A)nuclear power plants

B)hydroelectric dams

C)power plants using coal

D)power plants using natural gas

Q2) Potential environmental damage results from the harvesting of fossil fuels and A)the transportation and waste products generated by their use.

B)their transportation and storage.

C)their storage and waste products.

D)the transportation,storage,and waste products generated by their use.

Q3) In the world today,

A)coal is still the dominant fuel.

B)coal has largely been replaced by natural gas for energy supplies.

C)natural gas remains the dominant fuel in the United States.

D)coal and oil are the primary energy supply in the United States.

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16

Chapter 15: Nuclear Power

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a nuclear reactor generates the expected amount of heated water but no electricity,it is most likely a problem with the A)fuel rods.

B)control rods.

C)moderator.

D)turbogenerator.

Q2) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon.These isotopes differ in the number of A)protons.

B)neutrons.

C)electrons.

D)protons,neutrons,or electrons.

Q3) The actual fission reactions that release energy in a nuclear power plant are about

A)two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from uranium-239.

B)one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from uranium-239.

C)two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from plutonium-239.

D)one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from plutonium-239.

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Chapter 16: Renewable Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Power Tower and Solar Trough systems are both capable of A)storing and using heat when there is no sunlight for several hours.

B)collecting sunlight even at night.

C)using their photovoltaic cells to generate alternating or direct current.

D)being used to generate electricity on modern passenger vehicles.

Q2) The production of hydrogen to power cars in the United States requires A)nearly a million gallons of freshwater each day.

B)a net input of energy.

C)fusion reactions typical of nuclear power plants.

D)fermentation using water and sugars.

Q3) The current generation of ethanol as a biofuel requires A)sugars and the process of fermentation.

B)any plant material and the process of fermentation.

C)manure,water,and aerobic bacteria.

D)bioengineered bacteria and any form of cellulose.

Q4) As of 2011 in the United States,about 8% of electrical power came from A)burning biomass.

B)hydropower.

C)solar energy.

D)wind.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Environmental Hazards and Human Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Developing countries are said to face double jeopardy for environmental hazards because of the threats of

A)physical disasters and traditional cultural practices.

B)physical disasters and infectious disease.

C)infectious disease and increased exposure to toxic chemicals.

D)their dependence on farms for food and income.

Q2) Which of the following is true or accurate about malaria?

A)Malaria is the greatest health threat to northern Eurasia and North America.

B)Mosquito saliva transmits tiny sporozooites to the victim when they are bitten.

C)The organism that causes malaria is a virus related to H5N1.

D)Malaria can be transmitted to humans by contact with pig or bird feces.

Q3) Industrial pollution from this oil refinery best represents a type of

A)biological environmental hazard.

B)cultural environmental hazard.

C)physical environmental hazard.

D)chemical environmental hazard.

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Chapter 18: Global Climate Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the sun suddenly stopped shining,where would be the best outdoor location to stay warm with the least change in ambient temperature?

A)Atlanta,Georgia

B)on a beach in Hawaii

C)Kansas City,Kansas

D)the center of Brazil

Q2) The destruction of the ozone layer primarily occurs in the A)mesosphere.

B)thermosphere.

C)stratosphere.

D)troposphere.

Q3) According to the latest government predictions shown in the figure above,in 40 years the Chicago,Illinois,climate will change to be most like the current climate in A)St.Louis,Missouri.

B)Lincoln,Nebraska.

C)Cincinnati,Ohio.

D)Iowa City,Iowa.

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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Pollution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Premature aging of the skin and cataracts are on the increase due to increased A)levels of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere.

B)levels of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere.

C)exposure to ultraviolet light.

D)exposure to infrared radiation from the sun.

Q2) A cost-benefit analysis of the acid rain prevention programs shows that A)there was no net economic benefit.

B)there was a large benefit and savings compared to costs.

C)there was a large loss because costs far outweighed benefits

D)with vastly increased spending,the program could show a net benefit.

Q3) The deterioration of this stone sculpture reflects the damaging effects of

A)ultraviolet light.

B)carbon monoxide.

C)acid precipitation.

D)volatile organic compounds.

Q4) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

A)sulfur dioxide

B)radon

C)carbon monoxide

D)sulfuric acid

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Chapter 20: Water Pollution and Its Prevention

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Sample Questions

Q1) Biological nutrient removal ultimately converts most of the organic materials in wastewater into

A)oxygen,ammonia,and carbon dioxide.

B)nitrogen,water,and carbon dioxide.

C)sugars,vitamins,and minerals.

D)proteins and carbohydrates.

Q2) Biochemical oxygen demanding wastes (BOD)include

A)phosphorus and nitrogen-based fertilizers.

B)sand,silt,and clay suspended in water.

C)fish,aquatic insects,algae and other live aquatic organisms.

D)organic biodegradable material that requires oxygen to be decomposed by bacteria.

Q3) Instead of addressing the symptoms of cultural eutrophication,the neighborhood association could address the cause of the problem by A)treating the pond with copper sulfate.

B)aerating the pond with underwater pipes.

C)reducing the use of lawn fertilizers.

D)draining the pond every few years.

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Chapter 21: Municipal Solid Waste: Disposal and Recovery

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Sample Questions

Q1) A reduction in the volume of paper going to landfills has been brought about by

A)newspapers going out of business in most large cities.

B)electronic communications.

C)the invention of biodegradable paper.

D)the replacement of organic paper with plastic "paper" in many businesses.

Q2) In Massachusetts and other states,closed landfills are for the first time being used for

A)producing electricity by incinerating solid wastes.

B)generating electricity from acres of photocells covering the landfill surface.

C)extraction of recyclable materials.

D)disposal of radioactive waste from nuclear power plants.

Q3) Today,many of the old dumps and landfills from past decades are now

A)festering sites of toxic waste that must be fenced off and restricted.

B)parks and recreational areas widely used by the public.

C)being mined for the resources that were buried over several decades.

D)deep depressions,resulting from the decay of most of the materials that were buried long ago.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Hazardous Chemicals: Pollution and Prevention

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discharge permits and the Clean Air Act and Clean Water Act

A)do not allow any wastes to be dumped into natural waterways.

B)limit the type but not the amount of wastes dumped into natural waterways.

C)limit the amount but not the type of wastes dumped into natural waterways.

D)limit the type and the amount of wastes dumped into natural waterways.

Q2) The safe movement of hazardous materials by rail or highway in the United States is regulated by

A)individual states and cities.

B)the Department of Transportation.

C)the regulations of the RCRA.

D)the Justice Department.

Q3) Picric acid is always stored wet,often in glass bottles in water.If the crystals dry out,they can explode! Therefore,picric acid demonstrates high levels of A)ignitability.

B)toxicity.

C)reactivity.

D)corrosivity.

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Chapter 23: Sustainable Communities and Lifestyles

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Sample Questions

Q1) A livable city is designed to permit people to A)park their cars conveniently near their homes.

B)walk to most of the places that they want to go.

C)have most of their needs brought to them.

D)live in the least populated places.

Q2) Over the past 50 years in the United States,the populations of A)suburbs have increased while rural regions and city centers have declined.

B)suburbs and rural regions have increased while city centers have declined.

C)city centers have increased while suburbs and rural regions have declined.

D)city centers and rural regions have increased while suburbs have declined.

Q3) Responsible and sustainable actions and policies regarding environmental issues function at the

A)individual level.

B)community level.

C)national level.

D)all levels of society

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