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E-Marketing Research explores the strategies, tools, and methodologies used to gather and analyze digital marketing data to inform business decisions. The course covers online consumer behavior, web analytics, social media monitoring, survey design, and the use of advanced technologies such as AI in market research. Students will learn how to design and conduct e-marketing research projects, interpret data from digital platforms, and apply insights to optimize digital campaigns. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, data privacy, and the practical application of research findings to real-world e-marketing challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Q1) It is best to do marketing research even if the resources are not available to conduct a quality project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The Scion line of cars was advertised through traditional channels such as network television and magazines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In the Kellogg's example given in your text, as a result of problem-solving research, Kellogg's found out that it was not being creative in introducing new products to meet the needs of the adult market.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure 2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except ________.
A)discussions with the decision makers
B)interviews with industry experts
C)analysis of project costs
D)analysis of secondary data
Answer: C
Q2) In the example given in your text, the Harley Davidson management decision problem and the marketing research problem were defined with the help of all of the following except ________.
A)discussions with industry experts
B)discussions with a committee of top management
C)secondary data on motorcycle owners
D)focus groups with motorcycle owners
Answer: B
Q3) The management decision problem is action oriented.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The marketing research proposal contains the essence of the project and serves as a contract between the researcher and the respondent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The client should not take undue advantage of the research firm to solicit unfair concessions for the current project by making false promises of future research contracts.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A)household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
B)households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
C)verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis
D)data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping services, and corporate reports
Q2) What are purchase panels and media panels? Develop examples of marketing situations where you would use each. Be sure to explain the type of information you would collect and the makeup of the panel respondents.
Q3) ________ are helpful for identifying individuals or organizations that collect specific data.
A)Directories
B)Indexes
C)Guides
D)Statistical published data
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Q1) Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Table 5.1 in the text, which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?
A)a small number of nonrepresentative cases
B)non-statistical data analysis
C)unstructured form of data collection
D)outcome is used to recommend a final course of action
Q3) ________ is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of a story and required to give the conclusion in their own words.
A)Word association
B)Sentence completion
C)Story completion
D)Expression completion
Q4) You are deciding which approach would be best to use to determine what milk drinkers consider the best food to accompany a glass of milk. Which qualitative technique would you choose and why?
Q5) Discuss the advantages of online focus groups.
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Q1) Voice pitch analysis measures emotional reactions through changes in the respondent's voice and is a type of mechanical observation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A primary method of observation using the Internet is to count the number of times a Web page is visited.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently refers to the ________.
A)flexibility of data collection
B)sample control
C)diversity of questions that can be asked in a survey
D)control of data collection environment
Q4) Survey questionnaires may be administered in four major modes: (1)telephone interview, (2)personal interviews, (3)mall interviews, and (4)electronic interviews (Figure 6.1 in the text).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?
A)The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.
B)The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.
C)Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.
D)Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
Q2) Field experiments have some advantages over laboratory experiments. The field experiment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the types of experimental designs mentioned in the chapter on Causal Research Design (Latin Square, factorial, true experimental, and preexperimental designs for example)can be implemented on the Internet.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All statistical techniques can be applied to ratio data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ scaling and ________ scaling both are comparative in nature. Both result in ordinal data and might result in the respondent disliking the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense.
A)Paired comparison; constant sum
B)Rank order; paired comparison
C)Rank order; constant sum
D)Q-sort; constant sum
Q3) The constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statistics is not permissible for interval data (Table 8.1 in the text)?
A)factor analysis
B)harmonic mean
C)binomial test
D)t-tests

10
Q5) Why is there confusion over whether constant sum data are ordinal or metric?
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Q1) Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more accurate measurement than a single-item scale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scale descriptors "never," "rarely," "sometimes," "often," and "very often" are commonly used when studying the ________ construct (Table 9.3 in the text).
A)attitude
B)satisfaction
C)purchase frequency
D)purchase intent
Q3) ________ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.
A)Construct validity
B)Content validity
C)Criterion validity
D)Internal consistency validity
Q4) Explain how continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet.
Q5) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Likert scale?
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Q1) The respondents' ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following except________.
A)the event itself
B)the time elapsed since the event
C)the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
D)where you were when the event occurred
Q2) Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?
A)There is potential for position bias.
B)It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
C)The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
D)none of the above
Q4) When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like "What is your favorite brand of toothpaste?"
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?
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Q1) The criteria for the selection of stratification variables consist of all of the following except ________.
A)homogeneity
B)relatedness
C)cost
D)order
Q2) ________ attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements. The selection of sampling units is left primarily to the interviewer.
A)Nonprobability sampling
B)Probability sampling
C)Convenience sampling
D)Judgmental sampling
Q3) The researcher has the ethical obligation to protect the identities of the respondents, even if it means limiting the level of sampling detail that is reported to the client and other parties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss some of the problems in implementing the sampling design process when conducting international marketing research.
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Q1) Because low response rates increase the probability of response bias, an attempt should always be made to improve the response rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When using the confidence interval approach to sample size determination, if the statistic of interest is a proportion, rather than a mean, the approach to sample size determination is very different.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Specify the level of confidence is the first step in the confidence interval approach to determining sample size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The percentage of qualified respondents who complete the interview is the ________.
A)incidence rate
B)initial sample size
C)completion rate
D)final sample size
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Q1) A slight change in the wording, sequence, or manner in which a question is asked does not distort its meaning or bias the response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) (AO?)stands for the probing comment "any other reason."
A)True
B)False
Q3) The evaluation of field workers should be based on which of the following criteria?
A)cost and time
B)response rates
C)quality of the data
D)all of the above
Q4) Training of field workers can be conducted by video conferencing or using the Internet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fieldwork is the sixth step in the marketing research process.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In Minitab the ________ and ________ statements can be used to select cases with missing or out-of-range values.
A)Select If; ElseIf
B)Select If; Process If
C)If; ElseIf
D)If; If-Then
Q2) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves the researcher using the respondents' pattern of responses to calculate a suitable response to the missing questions?
A)returning to the field
B)casewise deletion
C)substitute an imputed response
D)substitute a neutral value
Q3) ________ are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element in the sample, or there are several measurements of each element but each variable is analyzed in isolation.
A)Interdependence techniques
B)Dependence techniques
C)Multivariate techniques
D)Univariate techniques
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Q1) If the probability of F is greater than the significance level , ________ and ________ should be used.
A)H<sub>0 </sub>is rejected;<sub> </sub>t based on "equal variances not assumed"
B)H<sub>0 </sub>is not rejected;<sub> </sub>t based on "equal variances assumed"
C)H<sub>0 </sub>is rejected;<sub> </sub>t based on "equal variances assumed"
D)H<sub>0 </sub>is not rejected;<sub> </sub>t based on "equal variances not assumed"
Q2) The ________ is a statistical test of the equality of the variances of two populations.
A)z test
B)t test
C)paired samples test
D)F test
Q3) When the data points are scattered, variance is small.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In commercial marketing research, the one-tailed test is used more often than a two-tailed test.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Analysis of variance and analysis of covariance are tests of differences between two means or median.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The strength of the joint effect of two (or more)factors or the overall effect is known as ________.
A)significance of the overall effect
B)significance of the main effect
C)multiple <sup>2 </sup>
D)significance of the interaction effect
Q3) Repeated measures analysis of variance may be thought of as an extension of the ________ to the case of more than two related samples.
A)z test
B)F test
C)t test
D)paired samples t test
Q4) The value of <sup>2</sup> varies between 0 and 1.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When fitting a straight line to a scattergram, the best-fitting line is called the regression line.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, we know which specific coefficients ( <sub>i</sub>s)are nonzero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a statistical procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
A)Regression analysis
B)Partial correlation coefficient
C)ANOVA
D)Product moment correlation
Q4) ________ is a state of very high intercorrelations among independent variables.
A)Hypercollinearity
B)Partial collinearity
C)Multicollinearity
D)Variable collinearity
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Q1) In two-group discriminant analysis it is possible to derive only one discriminant function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As one of the statistics associated with discriminant analysis, the ________ (unstandardized)are the multipliers of variables when the variables are in the original units of measurement.
A)Wilks'
B)discriminant scores
C)discriminant function coefficients
D)eigenvalue
Q3) Discriminant analysis can be used to answer questions such as ________.
A)How much of the variation in sales can be explained by advertising expenditures, prices, and level of distribution?
B)In terms of demographic characteristics, how do customers who exhibit store loyalty differ from those who do not?
C)What are the distinguishing characteristics of consumers who respond to direct mail solicitations?
D)Both B and C are correct.
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Q1) The equation X<sub>i </sub>= A<sub>i1</sub> F<sub>1 </sub>+ A<sub>i2</sub> F<sub>2 </sub><sub>+</sub><sub> </sub>A<sub>i3</sub> F<sub>3 </sub>+ ...+ A<sub>im</sub> F<sub>m + </sub>V<sub>i</sub>U<sub>i </sub>, represents the common factors expressed as linear combinations of the observed variables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For the factor analysis to be appropriate, the variables must be correlated. A)True
B)False
Q3) Principal components analysis is appropriate when the primary concern is to identify the underlying dimensions and the common variance is of interest.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Factor analysis is somewhat similar to discriminant analysis in that each variable is expressed as a linear combination of underlying factors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List at least four of the procedures used for determining the number of factors.
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Q1) ________ is a procedure that first assigns or determines a cluster center and then groups all objects within a pre-specified threshold value from the center.
A)Non-hierarchical clustering
B)Ward's method
C)Divisive clustering
D)Agglomerative clustering
Q2) In the TwoStep procedure, the euclidean measure can be used only when all of the variables are ordinal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ methods are commonly used in marketing research.
A)TwoStep clustering
B)Optimizing partitioning
C)Divisive clustering
D)Agglomerative clustering
Q4) In cluster analysis, objects with larger distances between them are more similar to each other than are those at smaller distances.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In conjoint analysis, the attribute's importance is normalized to ascertain its importance relative to other attributes, W<sub>i</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about using discriminant analysis to create spatial maps?
A)Spatial maps are obtained by plotting brand scores on the factors.
B)Input data should be obtained via attribute-based approaches to obtaining perception data.
C)Factor weights can be used to label the dimensions.
D)Both A and C are true.
Q3) Non-metric MDS procedures assume that the input data are ordinal, and they result in ordinal output.
A)True
B)False
Q4) External analysis of preferences is preferred in most situations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define and describe hybrid conjoint analysis.
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Q1) RMSR is an absolute fit index.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SEM can be thought of as a combination of MANOVA and ANOVA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about Structural Equation Modeling?
A)In SEM, the constructs are unobservable or latent factors that are representative by multiple variables.
B)SEM explicitly takes into account the measurement error.
C)SEM is mainly used as an exploratory technique.
D)A and B are true
E)A, B, and C are true.
Q4) A 0.07 value for RMSEA is considered conservative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe path analysis and its relationship to SEM.
Q6) GFI of .95 or higher is a way to help make sure that the model is identified.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The executive summary should be the first part of the report written.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When writing the final report, the researcher should draw conclusions but should not make recommendations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How can the marketing researcher make the report appropriate for audiences with different levels of technical sophistication and interest in the project?
Q4) While each report is unique, report formats do not vary with the researcher or the marketing research firm conducting the project, the client for whom the project is being conducted or the nature of the project itself.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To what length should the researcher go when writing the conclusions and recommendations section of the marketing research report?
Q6) Discuss the results section of the marketing research report.
Q7) What are the steps in the report preparation process (Figure 22.1 in the text)?
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Q1) When conducting marketing research abroad, researchers must, adopt the ethical guidelines of not only the domestic country but the host country as well.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the framework for international marketing research, the extent of a country's telephone usage would be an informational and technological environment consideration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Construct equivalence is comprised of conceptual equivalence, functional equivalence, and item equivalence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is difficult to solicit information from respondents in tradition-directed, less developed societies because most cannot formulate opinions of their own.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why back translation and parallel translation are needed.
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