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This course provides an in-depth exploration of e-business and e-commerce systems, examining how organizations use digital platforms and online tools to conduct business operations and transactions. Students will learn about key concepts including business models for e-commerce, technological infrastructure, web-based and mobile commerce, digital payment systems, security challenges, legal and ethical issues, and the strategic integration of e-business solutions in various industries. Practical components will include case studies, emerging trends, and hands-on projects to design and evaluate e-commerce systems, preparing students to adapt to the rapidly evolving digital business landscape.
Recommended Textbook
Business Driven Technology 7th Edition By Paige Baltzan
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31 Chapters
3498 Verified Questions
3498 Flashcards
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216 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is information?
A)Raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object.
B)Data converted into a meaningful and useful context.
C)Data collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making.
D)Skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence that create a person's intellectual resources.
Answer: B
Q2) What extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns?
A)Internet of things
B)Predictive analytics
C)Machine to machine
D)Flat world
Answer: B
Q3) Big data is a view of data at a particular moment in time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter's three generic strategies.Which of the following companies are using a cost leadership strategy?
A)Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue.
B)British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic.
C)Sky Taxi - a rent by the hour personal plane service.
D)All of these.
Answer: A
Q2) Jennifer Bloom is writing a paper and she must determine which of Porter's three generic strategies The Museum Company has implemented.Jennifer finds out that The Museum Company offers specialty products found only in museums around the world to affluent customers.What would Jennifer determine The Museum Company is using as its generic strategy?
A)Broad market, low cost.
B)Narrow market, high cost.
C)Broad market, high cost.
D)Narrow market, low cost.
Answer: B
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Q1) What type of process includes order processing, customer service processing, sales processing, customer billing processing, and order shipping processing?
A)Customer-facing processes.
B)Business-facing processes.
C)Industry-specific customer-facing processes.
D)All of these.
Answer: A
Q2) What form of processes include loan processing for a bank, claims processing for an insurance company, reservation processing for a hotel, and baggage handling for an airline?
A)Customer-facing processes.
B)Business-facing processes.
C)Industry-specific customer-facing processes.
D)All of these.
Answer: C
Q3) The evolution of CRM is reporting, analyzing, and predicting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) What type of metrics includes back orders, customer order promised cycle time, and customer order actual cycle time?
A)CRM metrics
B)SCM metrics
C)BPR metrics
D)ERP metrics
Q2) The chief technology officer (CTO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List and describe the four common IT-related strategic positions.
Q4) Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS?
A)Chief technology officer (CTO)
B)Chief security officer (CSO)
C)Chief privacy officer (CPO)
D)Chief data officer (CDO)
Q5) Describe and identify visitor, exposure, visit, and hit website metrics.
Q6) Define the relationship between benchmarks and benchmarking.
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Q1) A worm spreads itself not only from file to file but also from computer to computer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of acting ethically?
A)Individuals copy, use, and distribute software.
B)Employees search organizational databases for sensitive corporate and personal information.
C)Individuals hack into computer systems to steal proprietary information.
D)None of these offers an example of acting ethically
Q3) Which of the following represents the definition of information governance?
A)The act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information.
B)A method or system of government for information management or control.
C)The category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity.
D)The examination of an organization's resource of information and the regulation of its definitions, uses, values, and distribution to ensure that the organization has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively.
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Q1) Which of the following would not be considered part of the consistency characteristic of high-quality information?
A)Do all sales columns equal the total for the revenue column?
B)Is the two-digit state code missing in the information?
C)Is all summary information in agreement with detailed information?
D)Does the order number match the item and the color options available?
Q2) Identity management is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What encompasses all of the information contained within a single business process or unit of work and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational tasks?
A)Transactional information
B)Analytical information
C)Timeliness
D)Quality

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Q1) What is the ultimate outcome of a data warehouse?
A)Data goals
B)Data relationships
C)Data marketing
D)Data marts
Q2) A repository is a central location in which data is stored and managed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do data warehouses support?
A)OLAP
B)Analytical processing
C)OLTP
D)OLAP and analytical processing
Q4) A data broker is an individual item on a graph or a chart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Within the data warehouse model, the external databases could include competitor information, industry information, and stock market analysis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Web analytics analyzes unstructured data to find trends and patterns in words and sentences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define data mining and explain the three common forms for mining structured and unstructured data.
Q4) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible?
A)Statistical detection
B)Cluster analysis
C)Association detection
D)Social media analytics
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Q1) What is a system that uses computerized advisory programs to imitate the reasoning processes of experts in solving difficult problems?
A)Expert system
B)Virtual reality
C)Neural network
D)Genetic algorithm
Q2) Which of the following represent the four main DSS analysis techniques outlined in the chapter?
A)What-if analysis, sensitivity analysis, goal-seeking analysis, optimization analysis.
B)Workflow analysis, sensitivity analysis, growth analysis, organizational analysis.
C)What-if analysis, structured analysis, goal-seeking analysis, optimization analysis.
D)What-if analysis, sensitivity analysis, growth analysis, organizational analysis.
Q3) Source documents are the original transaction records.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five basic supply chain management components.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What can effective and efficient supply chain management systems enable an organization to accomplish?
A)Increase the power of its buyers
B)Increase its supplier power
C)Increase switching costs to increase the threat of substitute products or services
D)All of these
Q3) In the basic supply chain, return refers to supporting customers and product returns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cradle to grave is a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Website personalization occurs when a website has stored enough data about a person's likes and dislikes to fashion offers more likely to appeal to that person.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products?
A)Contact center
B)Web-based self-service
C)Call scripting system
D)Uplift modeling
Q3) Predictive dialing automatically dials outbound calls and forwards answered calls to an available agent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Supplier relationship management (SRM) focuses on keeping suppliers satisfied by evaluating and categorizing suppliers for different projects.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which activities do production and materials management components perform?
A)Track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, and performance assessment and assume responsibility for compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities.
B)Handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control.
C)Manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management.
D)None of these
Q2) Which application's primary business benefits include sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns?
A)CRM
B)SCM
C)ERP
D)All of these
Q3) Describe the primary users and primary business benefits of CRM, SCM, and ERP applications.
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Q1) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international community that develops open standards to ensure the long-term growth of the web (www.w3.org).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dell ranks highest on the list for expecting returns from new investments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A universal resource locator (URL) is the address of a file or resource on the web such as www.apple.com.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a type of mediation that refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness?
A)Cybermediation
B)Interactivity
C)Reintermediation
D)Disintermediation
Q5) Describe Web 1.0 along with ebusiness and its associated advantages.
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Q1) What generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer?
A)Pay-per-click
B)Pay-per-call
C)Pay-per-conversion
D)All of these
Q2) Content providers are companies that generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos and examples include Netflix and iTunes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ben Schultz decides to purchase an iPad on eBay.After the transaction completes and the money is withdrawn from Ben's PayPal account, the iPad never shows up and the email address of the seller bounces.What issue has Ben encountered?
A)The physical separation of buyer and seller
B)Adhering to taxation rules
C)Identifying limited market segments
D)All of these
Q4) Compare the four categories of ebusiness models.
Q5) Identify the four challenges associated with ebusiness.
Q6) Describe the six ebusiness tools for connecting and communicating.
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Q1) What is a website or web application that uses content from more than one source to create a completely new product or service?
A)Social tagging
B)Mashup blog
C)Social media
D)Mashup
Q2) What is a reputation system?
A)An online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user's experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement.
B)Buyers post feedback on sellers.
C)Created and updated by many users for many users.
D)Refers to the wisdom of the crowd.
Q3) What is content from more than one source to create a new product or service?
A)Selfie
B)Blog
C)Wiki
D)Mashup
Q4) Explain Web 2.0, and identify its four characteristics.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell phones have morphed into ___________________ that offer more advanced computing ability and connectivity than basic cell phones.
A)Micro computers
B)Smart phones
C)Streaming phones
D)Super computers
Q2) A wireless LAN (WLAN) is a local area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data over distances of a few hundred feet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which tags have their own transmitter and a power source (typically a battery)?
A)Active RFID
B)Semipassive RFID
C)RFID Accelerometer
D)Chipless RFID
Q4) Automatic vehicle location (AVL) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the challenges of business mobility.
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Q1) Which assembly language is difficult for people to understand?
A)Fifth generation machine language
B)Second generation machine language
C)Third generation machine language
D)Fourth generation machine language
Q2) Which internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data?
A)Internal reports
B)Detailed internal reports
C)Summary internal reports
D)Exception reports
Q3) Development Testing assesses whether the entire system meets the design requirements of the users.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful?
A)COBIT
B)Conversion
C)Business requirements
D)Sign-off
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Q1) A web service is an open-standards way of supporting interoperability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a fundamental of the RAD methodology?
A)Focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system.
B)Actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases.
C)Accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative construction approach.
D)All of the above.
Q3) What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process?
A)RAD methodology
B)Agile methodology
C)Waterfall methodology
D)Extreme programming
Q4) Summarize the different software development methodologies.
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Q1) A dependency is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Offshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems.In offshore outsourcing the country is geographically far away.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems.In offshore outsourcing the country is geographically far away.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a technique for choosing strategic projects?
A)Categorize projects
B)Perform a financial analysis
C)Focus on organizational goals
D)Develop a project plan
Q5) Describe the challenges of outsourcing.
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the four phases in the product life cycle?
A)Growth
B)Decline
C)Place
D)Introduction
Q2) Partnership agreements typically include all of the following, except:
A)Expectations for sharing profits and losses.
B)Partner's salary requirements.
C)Methods for conflict resolution.
D)Shareholder's expectations for a successful business.
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason to increase market share?
A)Economies of scale
B)Reputation
C)Increased bargaining power
D)Nearing production capacity
Q4) Which of the following is not accomplished by human resources management?
A)Employee recruitment
B)Employee training
C)Employee vacation scheduling
D)Employee appraisals

22
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Q1) Business process reengineering integrates all of an organization's business process to make individual processes more efficient.
A)True B)False
Q2) The As-Is process model represents the current state of the operation that has been mapped without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes.
A)True B)False
Q3) The continuous process improvement model attempts to understand and measure the current process and make performance improvements accordingly.
A)True B)False
Q4) The As-Is process model displays how the process problem will be solved or implemented.
A)True B)False
Q5) Compare the continuous process improvement model and business process reengineering.
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Q1) A desktop computer sits on, next to, or under a user's desk and is too large to carry around.The computer box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Desktop publishing increases the cooperation and joint productivity of small groups of co-workers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the computer's main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU?
A)CPU
B)Control unit
C)Secondary storage
D)Primary storage
Q4) Disk optimization software helps save information if a computer crashes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Scalability describes how well a system can scale up, or adapt to the increased demands of growth.If a company grows faster than anticipated, it might experience a variety of problems, from running out of storage space to taking more time to complete transactions.Anticipating expected, and unexpected, growth is key to building scalable systems that can support that development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Accessibility refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unavailability occurs when a system is continuously operational at all times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a client?
A)The physical devices associated with a computer system.
B)The set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks.
C)A computer designed to request information from a server.
D)A computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests.
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Q1) What is cable that can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss?
A)Twisted-pair wiring
B)Coaxial cable
C)Fiber-optic cable
D)Transmission control protocol/internet protocol
Q2) What is a computer that is designed to request information from a server?
A)Client
B)Packet-switching
C)Peer-to-peer network
D)Network operating system
Q3) FTP provides terminal emulation that allows a personal computer or workstation to act as a terminal, or access device, for a server.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A WAN is a physical and data layer technology for LAN networking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Media includes coaxial, twisted-pair, and fiber-optic.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Single-factor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a user name and password.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Insiders are illegitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment to do business.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses?
A)Pharming
B)Phishing
C)Phishing expedition
D)Spear phishing
Q4) The three primary information security areas are (1) authentication and authorization, (2) policies and rewards, and (3) detection and response.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Different organizations and countries have their own terms for these concerns.The United Kingdom terms it "Data Protection," and the European Union calls it "Personal Data Privacy", the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) has written Guidelines on the Protection of Privacy and Transborder Flows of Personal Data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the electronic defacing of an existing website?
A)Information bullying
B)Cybervandalism
C)Cookie
D)BYOD
Q3) Cybervandalism includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on the website.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An ethical computer use policy contains general principles to guide computer user behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Production is the creation of goods and services using the factors of production: land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship, and knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the five characteristics of competitive priorities.
Q3) Which of the following activities is not within the scope of OM?
A)Locating facilities
B)Training employees
C)Transportation planning
D)Capacity planning
Q4) The scope of OM ranges across the organization and includes many interrelated activities, such as forecasting, planning capacity, scheduling, managing inventories, assuring quality, motivating employees, deciding where to locate facilities, and more.
A)True
B)False
Q5) CMMI stands for the Capability Matrix Modeling Integrity framework.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define the term operations management.
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Q1) What includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability?
A)Community cloud
B)Private cloud
C)Utility computing
D)Hybrid cloud
Q2) Energy consumption is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The increased demand in technology devices has caused an increase in discarded devices, a phenomenon known as ________.
A)Ewaste
B)Grid computing
C)Ergonomic code
D)Electronic sustainability
Q4) Ewaste reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What types of BI decisions include predicting machinery failures and finding key factors that control optimization of manufacturing capacity?
A)Retail and sales BI decisions
B)Banking BI decisions
C)Operations management BI decisions
D)Insurance BI decisions
Q2) Which form of BI uses the time frame of days to weeks to months?
A)Operational BI
B)Tactical BI
C)Strategic BI
D)All of these
Q3) Which type of BI benefits are the results of discoveries made by creative users?
A)Quantifiable benefits
B)Indirectly quantifiable benefits
C)Unpredictable benefits
D)Intangible benefits
Q4) Data latency is the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Compliance is a method or system of government for management or control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which company had an employee's spouse load file-sharing software onto a company laptop creating a security hole that appears to have compromised the names and Social Security numbers 17,000 current and former employees?
A)McDonalds
B)Pfizer
C)CloudNine Communications
D)Apple
Q3) Which act protects the privacy of personal information of American children under 13 years of age?
A)HIPAA
B)COPPA
C)CIPPA
D)All of these
Q4) Identify global system development issues organizations should understand prior to building a global system.
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Q1) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn and process?
A)Ambient digital experience
B)Augmented reality
C)Virtual reality
D)Machine learning
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the top reasons organizations should study trends?
A)Generate current revenue
B)Gain confidence
C)Generate ideas
D)Beat the competition
Q3) What is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises?
A)Autonomic computing
B)Real-time adaptive security
C)Virtual assistant
D)Autonomous agent
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