Drug Fundamentals for Pharmacy Technicians
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of pharmacology relevant to pharmacy technicians. Students will explore drug classifications, mechanisms of action, common indications, dosage forms, and routes of administration. Emphasis is placed on understanding drug nomenclature, storage requirements, safety precautions, and the legal and ethical responsibilities associated with handling medications. By the end of the course, learners will be equipped with foundational knowledge essential for assisting pharmacists in the safe and effective management of pharmaceuticals within various pharmacy settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 2nd Edition by Kathy Moscou RPh MPH PhD candidate
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43 Chapters
1202 Verified Questions
1202 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Rx only" must be printed on the label of all legend drugs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Binders and fillers are inactive ingredients but have no influence on the rate of drug absorption.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) C-IV
A)Marijuana
B)Methylphenidate
C)Diazepam
D)Diphenoxylate and buprenorphine
E)Methyltestosterone
Answer: C
Q4) Generic drugs are always less expensive than the corresponding brand name drug.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following allows for the greatest absorption of an orally administered drug?
A)Small intestine
B)Large intestine
C)Liver
D)Pancreas
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a major site of drug elimination?
A)Lungs
B)Kidney
C)Liver
D)Bowel
Answer: C
Q3) Duration of action is the time between the _____ of action and _____ of drug action.
A)mechanism,duration
B)onset,discontinuation
C)duration,concentration
D)onset,mechanism
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulates growth of cancer
A)Adverse reaction
B)Hepatotoxicity
C)Nephrotoxicity
D)Teratogen
E)Carcinogen
Answer: E
Q2) Why would a double-blind study be beneficial in studying the effects of a person's drug response?
A)Strengthens the bias toward the active drug being studied
B)Increases the likelihood that participants will report accurate information
C)Reduces the risk of information being reported based on the placebo effect
D)Increases the chances of participants to receive the active drug during the study
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adding a nonprescribed drug to a patient's medication history
A)Error of omission
B)Error of commission
C)Miscommunication error
D)Dispensing error
E)Administration error
Q2) Dispensing bupropion to a patient with seizures
A)Error of omission
B)Error of commission
C)Miscommunication error
D)Dispensing error
E)Administration error
Q3) Confusing abbreviations can cause serious medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Having knowledge about intravenous (IV)drug incompatibilities is not necessary for pharmacy technicians.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would taking diazepam be beneficial before a dental procedure?
A)It increases the effect of local anesthetic allowing for increased numbness and less anxiety.
B)It can produce a type of amnesia to forget the procedure in addition to reducing anxiety about the procedure.
C)It acts as a prophylactic against reactions to local anesthesia used for dental procedures.
D)When combined with the other drugs used for a dental procedure,it allows the procedure to be forgotten.
Q2) An irrational fear of things that bring on anxiety
A)Phobia
B)Anxiolytic
C)Clomipramine
D)Buspirone
E)Hydroxyzine
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Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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Sample Questions
Q1) When lithium has not demonstrated its desired results,which of the following can be used as an adjunct therapy drug?
A)Aripiprazole
B)Lamotrigine
C)Tranylcypromine
D)Sertraline
Q2) Minor depression is not called clinical depression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parnate
A)Tranylcypromine
B)Imipramine
C)Citalopram
D)Doxepin
E)Escitalopram
Q4) One of the more common side effects of SSRIs is _____.
A)sedation
B)dry mouth
C)insomnia
D)weight gain
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antagonizing which receptors is useful in the treatment of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
A)DA
B)Glutamate
C)5-HT
D)Neurotensin
Q2) Traditional neuroleptics block DA at postsynaptic receptor sites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following should be labeled with a black box warning because use in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis may increase risk of death?
A)Donepezil
B)Rivastigmine
C)Lurasidone
D)Galantamine
Q4) Not all neuroleptic agents bind to dopamine (DA)receptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common side effect of drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease?
A)GI distress
B)Hallucinations
C)Tachycardia
D)Hypertension
Q2) Huntington's disease is primarily treated with drugs that decrease excessive _____ activity.
A)cholinergic
B)AChE
C)dopaminergic
D)GABA enzyme
Q3) Eldepryl
A)Ropinirole
B)Selegiline
C)Tolcapone
D)Pramipexole
E)Bromocriptine
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Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturate
A)Depakene
B)Tegretol
C)Neurontin
D)Zarontin
E)Luminal
Q2) Another name for grand mal seizures is _____ seizures.
A)myoclonic
B)absence
C)focal
D)tonic-clonic
Q3) Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a prescription for gabapentin because of decreased absorption of the drug when taken together?
A)Do not take with grapefruit juice.
B)Do not take with antacids.
C)Do not take with a fatty meal.
D)Do not take with food.
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain and Migraine Headache
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following classes of drugs is most prescribed to treat migraine headaches?
A)Valproates
B)Beta blockers
C)Triptans
D)Opioid agonists
Q2) Duragesic
A)Ketorolac
B)Oxycodone
C)Piroxicam
D)Fentanyl
E)Hydromorphone
Q3) Dilaudid
A)Ketorolac
B)Oxycodone
C)Piroxicam
D)Fentanyl
E)Hydromorphone
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a normal part of the aging process?
A)Urinary incontinence
B)Aching joints
C)Dementia
D)Minor forgetfulness
Q2) How do acetylcholinesterase (AChE)inhibitors help treat Alzheimer's disease?
A)They help form a protective lining around muscarinic receptors to only allow binding of ACh.
B)They increase levels of ACh by inhibiting AChE.
C)They help protect any remaining cognition and memory by antagonizing the receptors involved in memory.
D)They decrease levels of ACh by allowing AChE to metabolize ACh,thereby reducing the levels in the brain.
Q3) Reminyl
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Rivastigmine
D)Galantamine
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13
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug can be used to help treat narcolepsy that is not an amphetamine stimulant?
A)Doxepin
B)Methylphenidate
C)Zopiclone
D)Armodafinil
Q2) Which drug used to treat ADHD is not a controlled substance?
A)Lisdexamfetamine
B)Methylphenidate
C)Atomoxetine
D)Dexmethylphenidate
Q3) Which description is most associated with sleep apnea?
A)An interruption in the supply of oxygen during sleep
B)An interruption of blood flow to the brain during sleep
C)Obstruction of blood flow during sleep
D)Frequent nightmares
Q4) Sleep patterns stay the same as people age.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a drug or substance that decreases ACh release is _____.
A)potassium
B)sodium
C)calcium
D)magnesium
Q2) How do neuromuscular blocking drugs work to cause muscle relaxation?
A)They block calcium channels,increasing the amount of ACh produced,which causes relaxation.
B)They increase the amount of inhibitory neurotransmitters.
C)They block all transmissions of excitement.
D)They increase the amount of inactivated ACh receptor sites.
Q3) Depolarizing neuromuscular drugs are _____ at _____ receptors.
A)agonists,nicotinic
B)adrenergic antagonists,muscarinic
C)adrenergic agonists,muscarinic
D)antagonists,nicotinic
Q4) Drug used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonus is voluntary rhythmic contractions of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following warning labels should be placed on a prescription for methocarbamol?
A)May discolor urine.
B)Store in the refrigerator.
C)Protect from light.
D)May be habit forming.
Q3) Tizanidine
A)Benzodiazepine
B)Antihistamine
C)Peripheral acting drug for the treatment of spasticity
D)GABAergic drug
E)a-Adrenergic agonist
Q4) Drugs used in the treatment of spasticity are grouped according to _____.
A)when they were discovered
B)their generic name
C)their ability to block ACh
D)their site of action
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) RA produces all of the following except _____.
A)pain
B)joint damage
C)muscle damage
D)inflammation
Q2) _____ is reserved for severe,active disease of RA,SLE,MS,and myasthenia gravis.
A)Dexamethasone
B)Cyclophosphamide
C)Prednisone
D)Chloroquine
Q3) Which of the following contains a black box warning for GI ulceration?
A)Chloroquine
B)Prednisone
C)Naproxen
D)Acetaminophen
Q4) All of the following autoimmune diseases affect the muscles except _____.
A)SLE
B)dermatomyositis
C)myasthenia gravis
D)polymyositis
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Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the Bone
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would hyperparathyroidism cause osteoporosis?
A)Promotes calcium to be released from bones,causing an increased level of calcium in blood
B)Blocks the pathway in which calcium is absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI)tract
C)Hinders the release of estrogen,which inhibits bone formation
D)Decreases the ability of calcium to be reabsorbed into the bone
Q2) A chronic,progressive disease of bone characterized by loss of bone density and bone strength and resulting in increased fracture risk is called _____.
A)rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
B)osteoporosis
C)brittle bone disease
D)osteosarcoma
Q3) Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in _____ women.
A)perimenopausal
B)menopausal
C)postmenopausal
D)geriatric
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gout is the primary disease associated with increased urate levels in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is an NSAID used in the treatment of gout.
A)Tolmetin
B)Celecoxib
C)Rasburicase
D)Allopurinol
Q3) Indocin
A)Prednisone
B)Indomethacin
C)Febuxostat
D)Pegloticase
E)Allopurinol
Q4) _____ can be used to treat drug-induced gout.
A)Colchicine
B)Prelone
C)Allopurinol
D)Probenecid
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class used to treat glaucoma is able to promote drainage of accumulated levels of aqueous humor and reduce IOP?
A)Cholinergic agonists
B)Prostaglandin analogues
C)b-Adrenergic antagonists
D)Cholinesterase inhibitors
Q2) An example of a cholinesterase inhibitor used for open angle glaucoma in the form of eye drops is _____.
A)echothiophate
B)dorzolamide
C)pilocarpine
D)dipivefrin
Q3) Which of the following is a prodrug used to treat glaucoma?
A)Apraclonidine
B)Carteolol
C)Latanoprost
D)Methazolamide
Q4) Patients suffering from glaucoma will lose their central vision first.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number one cause of vertigo is _____.
A)overdose of aspirin and alcohol
B)water in the ear
C)benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
D)constant diving
Q2) Which of the following will probably not cause vertigo?
A)Repetitive spinning
B)Reading in a car
C)Watching a movie of a roller coaster
D)Typing on a computer
Q3) Otic drops should be warmed to room temperature before administering into the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a cause of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL)?
A)Bacterial infection
B)Viral infection
C)Rupture of inner ear membrane
D)Medications
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Otitis externa can be treated with _____.
A)sulfacetamide
B)foscarnet
C)natamycin
D)ofloxacin
Q2) _____ can treat cysticercosis but is not FDA approved.
A)Praziquantel
B)Thiabendazole
C)Tobramycin
D)Cidofovir
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat toxoplasmosis?
A)Pyrimethamine
B)Ganciclovir
C)Sulfonamides
D)Sulfadiazine
Q4) Which drug is taken orally for initial therapy of cytomegalovirus retinitis?
A)Foscarnet
B)Cidofovir
C)Valganciclovir
D)Ganciclovir
22
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) b-Adrenergic blocker
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q2) The most common reason for the onset of stable angina is which of the following?
A)Physical exertion
B)High-fat diet
C)Smoking
D)Drinking alcohol
Q3) How can antianginal drugs help decrease the workload of the heart and reduce angina?
A)By decreasing blood to the heart
B)By increasing vasoconstriction,thereby increasing oxygen supply to the heart
C)By increasing the heart rate
D)By reducing the heart rate,thereby reducing the demand for oxygen
Q4) Which of the following can reduce the risk of angina?
A)Overeating
B)Exercise
C)Smoking
D)Overexertion
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy because they can interfere with fetal development of the ____.
A)liver
B)kidneys
C)intestines
D)lungs
Q2) Which type of hypertension is the predominant form in patients younger than 50 years?
A)Systolic
B)Diastolic
C)Pulmonary
D)Aortic
Q3) Which of the following is used as a first-line therapy for hypertension?
A)Bumetanide
B)Hydrochlorothiazide
C)Triamterene
D)Fosinopril
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enalapril
A)Diuretic
B)Cardiac glycoside
C)ACE inhibitor
D)CCB
E)Beta blocker
Q2) If hydrochlorothiazide is prescribed with digoxin for heart failure,which of the following may occur?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypokalemia
D)Hypocalcemia
Q3) Metoprolol
A)Diuretic
B)Cardiac glycoside
C)ACE inhibitor
D)CCB
E)Beta blocker
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
A)Most effective at increasing HDL
B)Promote intestinal clearance of cholesterol
C)Most effective at lowering LDL
D)Increase clearance of very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
Q2) Which of the following will stop the final step of cholesterol synthesis?
A)Fenofibric acid
B)Rosuvastatin
C)Niacin
D)Colestipol
Q3) Nicotinic acid derivatives
A)Most effective at increasing HDL
B)Promote intestinal clearance of cholesterol
C)Most effective at lowering LDL
D)Increase clearance of very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
Q4) Antiplatelet drugs produce their effect by _____.
A)interfering with steps in the clot formation process
B)increasing the formation of clots
C)dissolving blood clots
D)decreasing the number of red blood cells
26
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a class III antiarrhythmic?
A)Propranolol
B)Sotalol
C)Esmolol
D)Acebutolol
Q2) The prototype Class IA antiarrhythmic that has been widely used since the 1920s is
A)digoxin
B)quinidine
C)verapamil
D)amiodarone
Q3) Class III agents
A)Beta blockers
B)CCBs
C)Other or unknown mechanisms
D)Act on sodium channels
E)Act on potassium channels
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease, Laryngopharyngeal Reflux, and Peptic Ulcer
Disease
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Q1) Which condition may increase the risk of developing asthma?
A)COPS
B)GERD
C)PUD
D)LPR
Q2) Which of the following warning labels should be placed on a H receptor antagonist?
A)May cause dizziness or drowsiness.
B)May cause vomiting.
C)May cause jaundice.
D)May cause dark yellow or brown urine.
Q3) Which of the following pairs of antacids can cause constipation?
A)Calcium and aluminum
B)Magnesium and sodium
C)Calcium and magnesium
D)Sodium and calcium
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome,
ulcerative Colitis, and Crohns Disease
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Q1) Which of the following populations should not take Remicade?
A)Teenage females
B)Adult females
C)Teenage males
D)Adult males
Q2) One of the only FDA-approved anticholinergic drugs used in the treatment of IBS when diarrhea is the primary symptom is _____.
A)atropine
B)difenoxin + atropine
C)loperamide
D)doxycycline
Q3) Which of the following foods may aggravate IBS?
A)Cheese
B)Strawberries
C)Fiber bars
D)Tomatoes
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29
Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a pharmacological treatment for COPD?
A)Albuterol
B)Tiotropium
C)Nadolol
D)Ipratropium
Q2) Salmeterol
A)Serevent Diskus
B)Pulmicort
C)Ventolin
D)Accolate
E)Flovent Diskus
F)Xolair
G)Tilade
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic symptom of asthma?
A)Airway constriction
B)Sneezing
C)Inflammation
D)Mucus
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that is characterized by itching and angioedema is termed _____.
A)whelps
B)wheals
C)urticaria
D)pruritus
Q2) Which of the following explains why eosinophil infiltration can cause allergic rhinitis?
A)Eosinophils are released just before T lymphocytes,which causes allergic rhinitis.
B)Eosinophils are responsible for remembering an allergic response;therefore,they continually cause allergic rhinitis when exposed to an allergen.
C)Eosinophils release interleukins,which then causes allergic rhinitis.
D)Eosinophils are partially responsible for producing inflammation in the nasal epithelium.
Q3) Which of the following is not a condition triggered by allergic rhinitis?
A)Nasal itching
B)Fever
C)Sneezing
D)Runny nose
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
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Q1) When symptoms of BPH are severe,_____ may be indicated.
A)medication
B)hormone injections
C)vasectomy
D)surgery
Q2) An inflamed or infected prostate gland is termed _____.
A)prostatomegaly
B)prostatitis
C)adenoprostitis
D)prostatodynia
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an antiandrogen?
A)Sildenafil
B)Tamsulosin
C)Dutasteride
D)Alprostadil
Q4) Why are alpha blockers typically dosed daily?
A)Longer half-life allows for daily dosing.
B)It is easier to remember if taken once daily.
C)Bioavailability is decreased when taken more than once a day.
D)It is metabolized faster when taken once a day.
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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Q1) A serum potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L would indicate _____ and could lead to cardiac arrest.
A)hyponatremia
B)hypernatremia
C)hypokalemia
D)hyperkalemia
Q2) Condition in which the serum level of magnesium is below 1.5 mEq/L
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Hypomagnesemia
C)Hyperchloremia
D)Hyponatremia
E)Hyperkalemia
Q3) Which of the following could be used to treat hypernatremia?
A)Administration of salt tablets
B)Administration of hypotonic solution such as 0.45% NaCl (or 1/2 NS)
C)Administration of IV saline solution 3% sodium
D)Water restriction
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33
Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal replacement therapy for hypothyroidism is _____.
A)thyroidectomy
B)radiation
C)thyroid replacement therapy
D)thyroidoplasty
Q2) Cytomel
A)Methimazole
B)Levothyroxine
C)Liotrix
D)Liothyronine
E)Desiccated thyroid
Q3) Which of the following may need a dose adjustment when taken with thyroid replacement drugs?
A)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B)Beta blockers
C)Hypoglycemics
D)Antidepressants
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the most common form of diabetes.
A)Gestational diabetes
B)Type 2 diabetes
C)Type 1 diabetes
D)Diabetes insipidus
Q2) Januvia
A)Repaglinide
B)Sitagliptin
C)Insulin glargine
D)Pioglitazone
E)Insulin detemir
Q3) Glipizide is only effective for the treatment of _____ diabetes.
A)type 1
B)gestational
C)type 2
D)type 1 and gestational
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is irregular or excessive uterine bleeding resulting from a structural problem or hormonal imbalance that causes a disruption of blood supply.
A)PMDD
B)Primary dysmenorrhea
C)Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
D)Amenorrhea
Q2) Oral contraceptives (OCs)are commonly referred to as "the pill."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diaphragms are associated with a decreased risk of urinary tract infection (UTI).
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is an IUD that releases progestin and levonorgestrel to prevent menstruation.
A)NuvaRing
B)ParaGard
C)Ortho-Cyclen
D)Mirena
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is not a b-lactam antibiotic?
A)Amoxicillin
B)Cefuroxime
C)Azithromycin
D)Meropenem
Q2) Which anti-infective would be prescribed to a 2-year-old child with impetigo?
A)Cefuroxime
B)Mupirocin
C)Gentamycin
D)Minocycline
Q3) Microbial resistance is the ability of bacteria to overcome the effects of an antibiotic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA requires the manufacturer of _____ to provide a black box warning in the package labeling regarding reports of fatal and nonfatal intracranial hemorrhage.
A)acyclovir
B)tipranavir
C)saquinavir
D)lopinavir
Q2) Didanosine
A)Interferon
B)NNRTI
C)PI
D)NRTI
E)Neuraminidase inhibitor
Q3) Efavirenz is teratogenic and classified in Pregnancy Category _____.
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)X
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is given intramuscularly after antiestrogen therapy for estrogen receptor (ER)-positive metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women with disease progression?
A)Fulvestrant
B)Exemestane
C)Goserelin
D)Megestrol acetate
Q2) The oldest class of antineoplastic agents is _____.
A)phosphamides
B)alkerans
C)alkylating agents
D)phosphorylating agents
Q3) Paclitaxel and docetaxel are cytotoxic drugs that are naturally derived from the _____ yew and _____ yew trees.
A)Western,European
B)Pacific,European
C)European,American
D)Western,American
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Chapter 38: Vaccines, Immunomodulators, and
Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following entities must keep the cold chain for vaccines and immunologicals unbroken?
A)Manufacturer
B)Pharmacy
C)Physician's office
D)All of the above
Q2) Immunosuppressants are used for all of the following disease states except _____.
A)multiple sclerosis (MS)
B)muscular dystrophy (MD)
C)rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
D)systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Q3) A person taking belatacept should not receive which of the following vaccines?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Tetanus
C)Rubella
D)Meningococcal
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Terbinafine
A)Echinocandins
B)Thiocarbamates
C)Polyenes
D)Allylamines
E)Imidazoles
Q2) Micafungin
A)Echinocandins
B)Thiocarbamates
C)Polyenes
D)Allylamines
E)Imidazoles
Q3) Which of the following will cause mycoses on the hands?
A)Tinea capitis
B)Tinea corporis
C)Tinea manus
D)Tinea unguium
Q4) Candida is called yeast and is a fungus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which age group does the "rule of nines" work best?
A)Geriatrics
B)Adults
C)Adolescents
D)Children
Q2) Which of the following products is used to débride necrotic tissue?
A)Trypsin
B)Balsam Peru
C)Castor oil
D)Silver nitrate
Q3) Which of the following explains how collagenase can be useful for débridement?
A)It improves epithelialization and helps keep the skin hydrated.
B)It is effective in a broad pH,so it can work in any wound.
C)It acts as a bactericidal,allowing the skin to heal itself.
D)It breaks up and removes necrotic skin tissue.
Q4) Which drug treatment for burns acts by destroying microbial protein and DNA?
A)Povidone-iodine
B)Bacitracin
C)Silver nitrate
D)Sulfur sulfadiazine
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a treatment for moderate to moderately severe acne?
A)Oral contraceptives
B)Vitamin B derivatives
C)Ultraviolet (UV)light therapy
D)Oral antibiotics
Q2) Which of the following acne agents can be used to help break down blackheads and whiteheads?
A)Sulfur and resorcinol
B)Benzoyl peroxide
C)Doxycycline
D)Sodium sulfacetamide
Q3) A large,painful,solid lesion that is lodged deep within the skin is termed a _____.
A)papule
B)nodule
C)pustule
D)cyst
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of disorder is an atopic disease?
A)Chemical
B)Autoimmune
C)Bacterial infection
D)Genetic
Q2) All of the following are nonpharmacological treatments for eczema except _____.
A)allergy shots
B)skin care regimens
C)phototherapy
D)avoidance of irritants
Q3) What may be a cause of infections when eczema is present?
A)Food allergies
B)Intense scratching
C)Cleaning products
D)Hot baths
Q4) Which of the following is an antimetabolite used to treat psoriatic arthritis?
A)Etanercept
B)Methotrexate
C)Azathioprine
D)Cyclosporine
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Household pets can transmit lice to people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a prescription indicated for the topical treatment of head lice infestations in children 4 years and older?
A)Spinosad
B)Pyrethrins
C)Crotamiton
D)Permethrin
Q3) Ovide
A)Crotamiton
B)Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
C)Permethrin
D)Malathion
Q4) Which of the following is a prescription alternative to lindane for treating scabies?
A)Crotamiton
B)Spinosad
C)Malathion
D)Pyrethrins
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