Drug Action and Therapeutics
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Drug Action and Therapeutics explores the principles underlying how drugs interact with biological systems to produce therapeutic effects. The course examines the mechanisms of drug action at molecular, cellular, and organ levels, the relationship between drug dose and response, and the factors that influence drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Emphasis is placed on understanding the pharmacological properties of major drug classes, their clinical uses, potential adverse effects, drug interactions, and the rationale behind therapeutic decision-making. Through case studies and applied examples, students gain foundational knowledge essential for safe and effective medication management in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Brodys Human Pharmacology 5th Edition by Lynn Crespo
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55 Chapters
152 Verified Questions
152 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacodynamics: Receptors and
Concentration-Response Relationships
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nalbuphine is an effective pain reliever because of its activity at mu-opioid receptors. However, if given to a patient who has recently received morphine (which also affects mu-opioid receptors) for postoperative pain, nalbuphine can worsen his or her pain. Thus nalbuphine is said to have what kind of activity at mu-opioid receptors?
A) Full agonist
B) Partial agonist
C) Competitive antagonist
D) Non-competitive antagonist
E) Allosteric modifier
Answer: B
Q2) The majority of medications available today act on which superfamily of cellular membrane receptor?
A) Ligand-gated ion channel
B) G-protein-coupled receptor
C) Receptor tyrosine kinase
D) Nuclear hormone receptor
E) Cytokine receptor
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
and Elimination
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features of a drug would enhance its uptake in the GI tract?
A) Polar
B) Water soluble
C) Ionized
D) Low molecular weight
E) Low concentration gradient
Answer: D
Q2) Which organ contains predominantly tight intercellular junctions, thereby restricting its uptake of drugs?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Heart
E) Lungs
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Clinical Pharmacokinetics and Issues in Therapeutics
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a 40-year-old, 75-kg man, drug X has a volume of distribution of 40 L and a clearance of 25 ml/min. Calculate the predicted loading dose of drug X to achieve a plasma concentration of 2 g/ml.
A) 20 g
B) 80 g
C) 20 mg
D) 50 mg
E) 80 mg
Answer: E
Q2) Ketamine has a half-life of 2 ½ hours. If used as a continuous infusion at a dosage of 12.5 mg/hr for postoperative pain relief, how long will it take to achieve a practical steady-state concentration?
A) 5 hours
B) 7 ½ hours
C) 10 hours
D) 12 ½ hours
E) 15 hours
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Drug Development, Regulation, and Prescription Writing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following characterizes Phase 3 trials of drug development:
A) Conducted on several thousand patients with specific diseases to determine overall risk-benefit relationships
B) Conducted on a small number of normal volunteers to determine safe dosage range and pharmacokinetic parameters
C) Conducted on animals to determine what potential toxicities exist and at what serum levels those toxicities are manifest
D) Surveillance of a drug after release on the market to determine whether any previously undetected side effects develop after extended use of the drug on large populations
E) Conducted on several hundred patients with specific diseases to determine short-term safety and effectiveness of the drug
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Chapter 5: Gene Therapy and Emerging Molecular Therapies
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the true statement regarding gene transfer mechanisms.
A) Plasmid DNA transfer has the advantage of being highly efficient.
B) Retrovirus transfer is optimal when the target cell is undergoing division.
C) The high rate of protein uptake makes liposomal transfer mechanisms less desirable.
D) Adenovirus transfer typically has effects lasting 3 years or longer.
E) Herpes simplex viruses are clinically used to transfer DNA to reproductive organs.
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Chapter 6: Antibodies and Biological Products
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications typically enhances immunologic activity?
A) Glatiramer
B) Methotrexate
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tacrolimus
E) Sargramostim
Q2) Over the first 24 hours of glucocorticoid therapy, which group of leukocytes increases in number?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Basophils
E) Lymphocytes
Q3) This compound acts as an immunosuppressive drug via a DNA alkylating mechanism:
A) Mycophenolate mofetil
B) Tacrolimus
C) Dexamethasone
D) Infliximab
E) Cyclophosphamide
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Chapter 7: Herbals and Natural Products
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following health claim has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA):
A) Glucosamine may promote cartilage regeneration and slow the progression of arthritis.
B) Garlic supplementation may reduce average blood pressure and LDL cholesterol.
C) Echinacea may reduce the duration of cold and flu symptoms.
D) Calcium supplementation may reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
E) Antioxidant supplementation may slow neoplastic transformation in cancer patients.
Q2) Which of the following agents is marketed to decrease nausea and vomiting?
A) Ginger
B) Saw palmetto
C) St. John's wort
D) Ginkgo biloba
E) Kava
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Chapter 8: Principles of Toxicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of the patient suffering from cyanide toxicity?
A) Sodium nitrite
B) Sodium thiosulfate
C) Supplemental oxygen
D) Hydroxocobalamin
E) Methylene blue
Q2) Choose the correct statement of the following:
A) The deleterious effects of most toxic substances are confined to a single organ system.
B) The lungs do not have a significant role in the biotransformation of toxic chemicals.
C) By helping to clear the foreign substance, the immunologic system has a primarily beneficial role in response to nickel exposure.
D) Common targets of neurotoxins include axonal transport and neurotransmitter release.
E) Benzene toxicity is primarily autoimmune-mediated by immunologic overstimulation.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchodilation occurs in response to stimulation of this autonomic receptor:
A) -1
B) -2
C) -1
D) -2
E) M-1
Q2) Influx of this ion into the terminal of the presynaptic nerve mediates neurotransmitter release:
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
E) Chloride
Q3) Which of the following tissues is NOT directly innervated by the autonomic nervous system?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Blood vessels
E) Heart
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Chapter 10: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous
System and Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a NOT a probable effect produced by muscarinic stimulation?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Pupillary dilatation
C) Increased salivation
D) Urinary sphincter relaxation
E) Increased gut motility
Q2) A 58-year-old woman is given scopolamine to treat postoperative nausea. She then becomes extremely sedated and unresponsive. The following medication would be most effective in reversing the central nervous system side effects of scopolamine:
A) Physostigmine
B) Edrophonium
C) Neostigmine
D) Pyridostigmine
E) Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
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Chapter 11: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 67-year-old man who suffers from hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) has been receiving medications for both of those conditions. During his routine checkup, he tells his physician that he has experienced frequent episodes of light-headedness upon standing up. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these episodes?
A) Metoprolol
B) Propranolol
C) Ephedrine
D) Clonidine
E) Terazosin
Q2) Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons EXCEPT FOR those that innervate:
A) Sweat glands
B) Heart
C) Blood vessels
D) Pupils
E) Pancreas
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 72-year-old woman in the intensive care unit has end-stage renal disease with a potassium level of 5.3 mEq/L and severely compromised hepatic function. She needs to undergo a debridement of a sacral decubitus ulcer. Which of the following would be the best skeletal muscle relaxant for use on this patient?
A) Pancuronium
B) Vecuronium
C) Cisatracurium
D) Succinylcholine
E) Rocuronium
Q2) A 54-year-old man with coronary artery disease is scheduled to undergo surgical excision of a tumor from his sigmoid colon. His cardiologist's recommendations included ensuring that his heart rate stay below 80 beats per minute during the procedure. The following muscle relaxant should be AVOIDED:
A) Pancuronium
B) Vecuronium
C) Cisatracurium
D) Succinylcholine
E) Rocuronium
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Chapter 13: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following drug should NOT be administered to a patient with a plasma cholinesterase deficiency:
A) Lidocaine
B) Mepivacaine
C) Etidocaine
D) Bupivacaine
E) Procaine
Q2) For the above 34-year-old woman experiencing local anesthetic-induced cardiac arrest, therapy with which of the following is most likely to aid resuscitation efforts?
A) Saline infusion
B) Dextrose solution
C) Fat emulsion
D) Magnesium sulfate
E) Amino acids
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Chapter 14: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old girl develops persistent sneezing and complains of a scratchy throat. Her grandmother gives the girl a medication from her medicine cabinet. The girl suddenly becomes fatigued and complains of blurry vision and dry mouth. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A) Loratadine
B) Cetirizine
C) Chlorpheniramine
D) Fexofenadine
E) Azelastine
Q2) Which of the following is a physiologic effect of histamine?
A) Decreased bronchiolar smooth muscle tone
B) Decreased systemic vascular resistance
C) Decreased capillary permeability
D) Decreased myocardial contractility
E) Decreased gastric acid secretion
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Chapter 15: Prostaglandins and Other Eicosanoids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes is NOT directly involved in the production of eicosanoids (prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxane) from the cell membrane lipid bilayer?
A) Lipoxygenase
B) Monoamine oxidase
C) Cyclooxygenase
D) Phospholipase A2
E) Cytochrome P450
Q2) Prostaglandins act via which type of receptor?
A) Ligand-gated ion channel
B) G-protein-coupled receptor
C) Receptor tyrosine kinase
D) Nuclear hormone receptor
E) Cytokine receptor
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs to Treat Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following asthma medications does not include tachycardia as a side effect?
A) Theophylline
B) Ipratropium
C) Albuterol
D) Salmeterol
E) Cromolyn
Q2) Long-term use of the following medication class is indicated for mild persistent asthma but in COPD is reserved for cases refractory to other chronic treatments:
A) Leukotriene modulator
B) Muscarinic antagonists
C) Beta-2 agonists
D) Glucocorticoids
E) Chromones
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Chapter 17: Drugs Affecting Uterine Motility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate when used for tocolysis:
A) Hyperreflexia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypertension
E) Hypokalemia
Q2) A 26-year-old woman undergoes a caesarean section. Following delivery of the baby, her uterus does not contract adequately and begins to bleed excessively. Which of the following would be an acceptable agent for the anesthesiologist to administer to improve uterine tone?
A) Methylergonovine
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Nifedipine
D) Indomethacin
E) Terbutaline
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Chapter 18: Drugs Affecting the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following medication is NOT commonly used to treat gastric Helicobacter pylori infection:
A) Amoxicillin
B) Linezolid
C) Tetracycline
D) Metronidazole
E) Clarithromycin
Q2) A 59-year-old schizophrenic man has a history of dystonic reactions to typical antipsychotic medications. He now takes olanzapine as treatment of his schizophrenia. He is scheduled to undergo an inguinal hernia repair under general anesthesia. He has a history of postoperative nausea. Which of the following would be the most suitable anti-emetic medication for this man?
A) Droperidol
B) Aprepitant
C) Metoclopramide
D) Promethazine
E) Dronabinol
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to the Regulation of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest and most extensive network of norepinephrine fibers in the brain arises from a group of neurons called:
A) Locus ceruleus
B) Raphe nuclei
C) Nucleus accumbens
D) Ventral tegmentum area
E) Nucleus basilis
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms most directly affects the amount of neurotransmitter released by a nerve terminal vesicle?
A) Destruction via metabolic enzymes
B) Irreversible binding at the post-synaptic receptor
C) Re-uptake at the pre-synaptic terminal
D) Removal through diffusion within the terminal
E) Activation of prejunctional autoreceptors
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Chapter 20: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason to use an angiotensin receptor blocker and hydrochlorothiazide together would most likely be:
A) Intensify the effects of the angiotensin receptor blocker
B) The two together will maintain a normal potassium level
C) The HCT is potentiated by the angiotensin receptor blocker
D) Use the stepped care approach to HTN treatment
E) The HCT will have the effect of blocking the dry cough induced by the angiotensin receptor blocker
Q2) The class of antihypertensive that decreases total peripheral resistance, dilates coronary arteries, and slows cardiac conduction velocity is:
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Direct vasodilators
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Beta adrenergic blockers
E) Loop diuretics
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22
Chapter 21: Diuretic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretic resistance after chronic loop diuretic administration is due to:
A) Increase in the transport of organic cations from the blood to the urine
B) Increased Na /K -ATPase activity
C) A decrease in Na reabsorption by distal tubule cells
D) Decreased osmotic load at the distal tubule
E) Decreased Na /K -ATPase activity
Q2) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors promote the excretion of Na and HCO , whereas thiazide diuretics promote:
A) Excretion of Na , Cl , and Ca
B) Excretion of Na and Cl while diminishing Ca excretion
C) Excretion of Na , Cl , Ca , and Mg
D) Excretion of Na and Cl while reabsorbing Mg
E) Excretion of Na while diminishing Cl excretion
Q3) The location of the mechanism that leads to hypokalemia with many diuretics is located in the:
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Descending loop
D) Ascending loop
E) Collecting tubule
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Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action potential of a myocardial pacemaker cell differs from that of the non-pacemaker cell in that:
A) The resting membrane potential is more negative in the pacemaker cells.
B) The depolarization is faster in the pacemaker cell.
C) Ca channels do not play a significant role in the pacemaker cell action potentials.
D) Potassium channels conductance is primary for initiation of the action potential in pacemaker cells.
E) The pacemaker cell action potential depolarization is initiated by the influx of calcium.
Q2) The class III drug amiodarone:
A) Delays influx of sodium into the myocyte
B) Blocks several potassium channels, prolonging the action potential
C) Delays influx of calcium into the myocyte
D) Has beta adrenergic receptor blockade properties
E) All of the above are correct
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Chapter 23: Drugs to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACE inhibitors are a common treatment for heart failure; this is because:
A) Afterload is reduced
B) Peripheral resistance is increased
C) Long-term mortality is reduced
D) Preload is reduced
E) A, C, and D
Q2) The use of sympathomimetics such as norepinephrine should be used with caution in patients on beta adrenergic blockers due to:
A) Creation of acute malignant hypertension
B) Adverse effect of pulmonary hypertension
C) Acute hypertension due to unopposed alpha-1 receptor blockade
D) Reduced renal blood flow
E) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
Q3) Systolic failure secondary to ischemic cardiomyopathy leads to all of the following except:
A) Down regulation of the sympathetic nervous system
B) Peripheral vasoconstriction leading to an increased afterload
C) Activation of the renin-angiotensin system
D) Fluid retention
E) Remodeling of the functional proteins within the myocardium
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Chapter 24: Vasodilators and Nitric Oxide Synthase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitroglycerin is a mainstay for treatment of angina pectoris because:
A) Redistributes intracardiac blood flow to the subendocardium
B) It causes venodilation, reducing venous return to the heart
C) Causes an increase in LV end-diastolic pressure
D) Decreases afterload through precapillary vasodilation
E) A, B, and D
Q2) Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors
A) Are primarily used in congestive heart failure
B) Cause increased levels of cGMP in certain tissues, which leads to increased NO concentrations and vasodilation
C) A and B
D) Are vasodilators used in the treatment of hypertension
E) A, B, and D
Q3) Clinical problems with vasodilators include
A) Renin release
B) A phenomenon where blood flow is shunted from ischemic tissues to healthier tissues
C) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
D) B and C
E) All of the above
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Lipid-Lowering Drugs and Atherosclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isolated hypertriglyceridemia is best treated with:
A) Statins
B) Fibric acid derivatives
C) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
D) Niacin
E) Bile acid sequestrants
Q2) When a patient is intolerant to statin class drugs, the most common second choice for treating LDL cholesterol levels greater than 135 mg/dl is:
A) Bile acid sequestrants
B) Fibric acid derivatives
C) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
D) Niacin
E) Statins
Q3) Vytorin is a combination of ezetimibe and simvastatin. The pharmacologic effects include:
A) Platelet inhibition
B) Reduction in intestinal absorption of cholesterol
C) Cholesterol-lowering ability independent of plasma lipoprotein levels
D) Inhibition in cholesterol synthesis within hepatocytes
E) A, B, and D
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Chapter 26: Antithrombotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin differs from low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) in that:
A) LMWHs can be given PO
B) LMWHs' effectiveness is measured by PT and INR
C) LMWHs have a greater capacity to directly inhibit factor Xa
D) LMWHs cannot be reversed by protamine sulfate
E) B and C
Q2) Warfarin administration:
A) Is used to lyse deep vein thromboses
B) Interferes with the production of clotting factor VII
C) Can be reversed with the use of vitamin K
D) Is monitored with PTT levels
E) Is ideal when rapid-acting, short-duration treatment is indicated
Q3) Two vitamin K-dependent factors made in the liver are proteins C and S.
A) These are part of the thrombus-forming cascade.
B) These act primarily to regulate sodium excretion.
C) These proteins function to inactivate clotting factors V and VIII.
D) These proteins are clinically used to treat myocardial infarction and stroke.
E) These proteins are not affected by warfarin.
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28
Chapter 27: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A GABA agonist will result in:
A) Hyperpolarization of post-synaptic neurons
B) The same effect as that of glutamine
C) Decreased seizure threshold
D) Decreased neurotransmitter destruction
E) Decreased chloride ion influx
Q2) Long-term use of a receptor agonist can lead to:
A) Adaptation of the post-synaptic neuron yielding creation of less receptor density (desensitization)
B) Adaptation of the post-synaptic neuron yielding increased cell messenger production
C) Down regulation yielding less synaptic neurotransmitter.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B
Q3) After the neurotransmitter serotonin attaches to a post-synaptic receptor, it:
A) Releases and is then destroyed by proteases
B) Spontaneously degrades
C) It is taken back up into the pre-synaptic neuron
D) It is taken up by the post-synaptic neuron
E) Is metabolized by acetylcholinesterase
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Treatment of Parkinsons and Alzheimers Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharmacologic treatment goals for Parkinson's disease include:
A) Increase the production of dopamine in the brain
B) Decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
C) Increase the receptor density for dopamine in the brain
D) Provide additional agonist activity for existing dopamine receptors
E) All of the above
Q2) L-DOPA is combined with carbidopa because:??
A) Carbidopa potentiates the action of L-DOPA
B) L-DOPA cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
C) Carbidopa prevents peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine
D) Carbidopa has additional anti-Parkinson effects
E) Carbidopa prolongs the half-life of L-DOPA
Q3) Primary treatment goals of Alzheimer's disease include:
A) Increasing cholinergic activity
B) Increasing central dopaminergic activity
C) Increasing sympathetic activity
D) Increasing GABA-ergic activity
E) Increasing NMDA-receptor activity
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atypical antipsychotics differ from typical antipsychotics in that:
A) Atypical antipsychotics have a smaller therapeutic window
B) Atypical antipsychotics block more D receptors than typical antipsychotics
C) Atypical antipsychotics block 5-HT A as well as D receptors
D) Atypical antipsychotics have a higher incidence of adverse effects
E) Atypical antipsychotics have no known side effects
Q2) Extrapyramidal symptoms occur with antipsychotics due to:
A) Inhibition of receptors in the mesolimbic region of the brain
B) A compensatory response in the mesolimbic region due to receptor blockade
C) Blockade of muscarinic cholinergic receptors
D) Blocking of dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
E) Up regulation of dopamine receptors
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Affective Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between SSRIs and SNRIs is:
A) SSRIs do not impede the reuptake of 5-HT
B) SSRIs are not effective for anxiety disorders
C) SNRIs have more impact on norepinephrine reuptake than do SSRIs
D) SNRIs are more like TCAs than SSRIs
E) SNRIs have no association with serotonin syndrome
Q2) The physiologic effect of antidepressant medications is relatively quick. However, the clinical response is much slower; this is thought to be primarily due to:
A) An increase in serotonin hydrolysis within the synapse
B) Stimulation of serotonergic and noradrenergic autoreceptors that results in a decrease in 5-HT release
C) Immediate down regulation of serotonergic receptors
D) A transient up regulation of noradrenergic receptors
E) Induction of hepatic metabolism
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Anxiety and Insomnia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The receptors of the GABA complex are variously stimulated by multiple classes of medications including benzodiazapines. The result of such stimulation is:
A) A down regulation of the GABA receptor complex
B) Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell
C) Decreased chloride influx
D) Increased activity of the postsynaptic neuron
E) Decreased seizure threshold
Q2) The physiologic difference between temazepam and zolpidem is:
A) Temazepam is a sedative, whereas zolpidem is a hypnotic
B) Temazepam binds to all the GABA-receptor subunits, whereas zolpidem attaches to specific ones only
C) Zolpidem is a benzodiazepine
D) Zolpidem is a also a melatonin agonist
E) Temazepam is a barbiturate
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Chapter 32: Ethanol, Other Alcohols, and Drugs for Alcohol Dependence
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Q1) The pharmacologic action(s) of disulfiram is/are:
A) Increased acetate concentration
B) Catabolism of acetaldehyde is increased
C) Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is inhibited
D) Decreases central nervous system effects of alcohol
E) Alcohol is rapidly converted to glucose
Q2) The blood alcohol concentration (BAC) for a given intake of alcohol (assuming a starting level of zero):
A) Tends to be higher in chronic alcoholics
B) Can be initially higher in women due to a lower first pass clearance
C) Is relatively consistent whether it was determined on whole blood, plasma, or serum.
D) Is not affected by end-stage renal disease
E) Is not clinically significant at 0.15%
Q3) The pharmacologic basis for using acamprosate in an alcoholic is:
A) It blocks the disinhibition of alcohol
B) It has GABA agonist activity
C) It is a glutamate NMDA receptor antagonist
D) It enhances the rapid breakdown of ethanol.
E) It blocks opiate receptors
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Obesity and Eating Disorders
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Q1) The sympathomimetic anti-obesity agents:
A) Are chemically related to norepinephrine and dopamine
B) Include phentermine and orlistat
C) Inhibit GI lipase
D) Have their effect primarily through speeding up metabolism
E) Are Schedule II medications
Q2) Which of the following can be used to stimulate appetite in patients with cachexia?
A) Dronabinol
B) Corticosteroids
C) Progestational agents
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) Sibutramine has which of the following actions?
A) Decreases appetite
B) Decreases thermogenic physiologic pathways
C) Decreases high-density lipoprotein levels
D) Decreases heart rate
E) Decreases blood pressure
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Q1) The pharmacologic action of phenytoin is:
A) Activation of GABA receptors
B) Blockade of calcium channels
C) Activation of ligand-gated Cl-channels
D) Inhibition of glutamate receptors
E) Blockade of sodium channels
Q2) The pharmacologic agent of choice for absence seizures is:
A) Diazepam
B) Phenytoin
C) Gabapentin
D) Ethosuximide
E) Phenobarbitol
Q3) A patient with partial seizures was on phenytoin and having frequent breakthrough seizures. You switch her to valproic acid and she becomes lethargic with ataxia. The most likely cause:
A) The phenytoin and valproic acid had a synergistic effect
B) Valproic acid adverse effects were taking effect
C) The phenytoin was displaced from plasma proteins and reached toxic levels
D) Valproic acid catalyzed conversion of phenytoin to fosphenytoin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 35: General Anesthetics
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Q1) The use of N O with halogenated anesthetics is common. The addition of N O can:
A) Trigger megaloblastic anemia
B) Reduce the amount of halogenated anesthetic used
C) Lead to air emboli in the bloodstream
D) A and C
E) All of the above
Q2) A benzodiazepine is often administered along with the use of ketamine because:
A) Of the short duration of ketamine
B) Of the high incidence of dysphoric episodes and disturbing dreams with ketamine
C) Benzodiazepines increase the effectiveness of NMDA antagonism
D) Benzodiazepines have analgesic properties
Q3) The administration of halothane and morphine can lead to:
A) An increase in hepatic toxicity over that of halothane alone.
B) Increased amnestic response.
C) Cerebral vasodilation leading to increased ICP
D) Malignant hypertension
E) Improved organ perfusion over that of halothane alone.
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Chapter 36: Drugs to Control Pain
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Q1) The use of naloxone in a somnolent, unresponsive ER patient with barbiturate overdose will lead to:
A) In improvement in neurologic status
B) An increase in respiratory rate
C) No response
D) Cardiovascular status improvement
E) Immediate withdrawal
Q2) Opioid class medications effects do NOT include:
A) Antidiarrheal
B) Antitussive
C) Analgesic
D) Antiemetic
Q3) A large IV push of naloxone to an unresponsive heroin addict can most commonly lead to:
A) Respiratory depression
B) Triggering of immediate withdrawal symptoms
C) Decreased level of consciousness
D) Pupillary constriction
E) Hypotension and bradycardia
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Drugs and Substance Abuse, Addiction, and Treatment
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Q1) Methadone maintenance therapy:
A) Also assists with benzodiazapine addictions
B) Blocks the ability to screen for other opiates
C) Does not directly stimulate mu-opioid receptors
D) Does not have any analgesic effect
E) Is a therapeutic regimen that cannot be abused
Q2) Of the following drugs, the most severe and life-threatening withdrawal is from:
A) Benzodiazapines
B) Opiates
C) Barbiturates
D) Ethanol
E) Hallucinogens
Q3) The pharmacologic basis for varenicline is:
A) Decreased activity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathways
B) Increased norepinephrine synaptic density
C) Partial agonist of nicotinic receptors
D) Reverses carcinogenic effects of smoking history
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology and Hormones
of the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
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Q1) The difference between the receptors of peptide hormones and steroid hormones is:
A) There is no difference between the two types of receptors.
B) The receptors for peptide hormones are on the cell surface, whereas receptors for steroids are within the cell.
C) The receptors for peptide hormones can also receive steroid hormones, whereas the receptors for steroid hormones cannot.
D) Receptors for peptide hormones can receive more than one peptide, whereas the receptors for steroid hormones are hormone specific
Q2) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH):
A) Release is decreased by norepinephrine
B) Initiates the secretion of LH and FSH
C) Is released in a continuous concentration from the hypothalamus
D) Is a steroid hormone
E) Acts upon the posterior pituitary
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Chapter 39: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Q1) The chronic use of exogenous selective glucocorticoids leads to all of the following adverse effects except:
A) Increased gastric acid output
B) Increase in insulin resistance
C) Inhibition of osteoblastic activity
D) Metabolic alkalosis and mild hypernatremia
E) HPA axis suppression
Q2) The drug of choice for primary mineralocorticoid insufficiency is:
A) Fludrocortisone
B) Betamethasone
C) Fluticasone
D) Vasopressin
E) Lixivaptan
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Chapter 40: Estrogens and Progestins
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Q1) The pharmacologic action of mifepristone (RU 486) is:
A) Blocks the production of progesterone
B) Changes the ratio between estrogen and progesterone
C) Blocks the receptors for progesterone
D) Blocks the receptors for estrogen
E) Blocks the receptors for testosterone
Q2) Prolonged unopposed estrogen usage can lead to:
A) Gallbladder disease
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Thromboembolic disease
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q3) The use of estrogen plus progestin replacement therapy in postmenopausal women with an intact uterus:
A) Does not show an increase in thromboembolic disease
B) Should be limited to treatment for acute symptoms and for the shortest time possible
C) Is advisable as long as there is no family history of breast cancer
D) Decreases the incidence of ovarian cancer
E) Decreases mortality
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Androgens and Antiandrogens
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Q1) Benign prostatic hypertrophy is treated with finasteride. Finasteride acts to:
A) Block the conversion of testosterone to 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone
B) Antagonize alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
C) Up regulate 5-alpha-reductase type II
D) Treat prostate cancer
E) Decrease free testosterone and estrogen levels
Q2) Androgen treatment can be used to increase hematopoiesis. This is due to:
A) Increased growth hormone production
B) Increased erythropoietin receptor sensitivity in bone marrow
C) GnRH receptor up regulation
D) Increased renal erythropoietin production
E) Increased muscle mass effect
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43
Chapter 42: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following drugs interacts with thyroperoxidase and NADPH oxidases to inhibit the organification of iodide?
A) Perchlorate
B) Propylthiouracil
C) L-thyroxine
D) Lithium
E) Iopanoate
Q2) Why are corticosteroids often included in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
A) To stabilize the erratic blood sugars of hyperthyroidism
B) To increase the catabolism of T to T
C) As an antiinflammatory agent for the thyroid
D) To counteract the increased delta-4 steroid reductase activity
E) To displace thyroxine-binding globulin from plasma proteins
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Chapter
Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) The incretins are a group of hormones that:
A) Increase the concentration of gastric inhibitory peptide
B) Stimulate the release of growth hormone
C) Stimulate pancreatic beta cells and inhibit pancreatic alpha cells
D) Are synthesized in the pituitary gland
E) Increase blood glucose levels
Q2) The sulfonylurea class of medications:
A) Stimulates exocytosis of insulin-containing vesicles
B) Slows the hydrolysis of glucose in the plasma
C) Speeds potassium transport into insulin-containing cells
D) Are analogs of incretin hormones
E) Increases insulin sensitivity
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Chapter 44: Calcium-Regulating Hormones and Other Agents Affecting Bone
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Q1) Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) are known to inhibit bone resorption and prevent fractures. Their mechanism of action is:
A) Decrease production of interleukins that up regulate osteoclasts
B) Promote follicular production of progesterone, prostaglandin F , and proteolytic enzymes
C) Suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
D) Decrease plasma calcium levels
E) Increase activity of the hypothalamic GnRH pulse generator
Q2) Regarding the pharmacologic class of bisphosphonates:
A) An example is teriparatide
B) At high doses inhibit osteoclasts
C) One example is calcitonin
D) Have less gastrointestinal side effects than other anti-osteoporosis drugs
E) Are usually prescribed for once-daily administration
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Chapter 45: Principles of Antimicrobial Use
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Q1) Antimicrobial agents that disrupt or inhibit nucleic acid synthesis are:
A) Clindamycin and lincomycin
B) -Lactams, cephalosporins, and vancomycin
C) Quinolones and rifampin
D) Amikacin and gentamicin
E) Chloramphenicol
Q2) The aminoglycoside class of antibiotics has which of the following toxicities?
A) Ototoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has developed resistance to all ? -lactams by what mechanism?
A) Nonreactive receptor on the bacterial cell surface that binds the antibiotic
B) Destruction of the -lactam ring upon attachment to the mutated receptor
C) Mutated protein that acts to hydrolyze -lactams?
D) Acquisition onto the penicillin-binding site of a novel protein called PBP2a.
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Chapter 46: Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors
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Q1) The antimicrobial class carbapenems includes:
A) Vancomycin
B) Cefepime
C) Meropenem
D) Aztreonam
E) Ceftriaxone
Q2) Which of the following antibiotics can cause what is known as "red-man syndrome"?
A) Cefoxitin
B) Ampicillin
C) Vancomycin
D) Gentamicin
E) Bacitracin
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Inhibitors of Bacterial Ribosomal Actions
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Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents are bacteriostatic?
A) Streptomycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Penicillin
D) Mupirocin
E) Ciprofloxacin
Q2) Telithromycin is of the class:
A) Ketolides
B) Tetracyclines
C) Penicillins
D) Macrolides
E) Fluoroquinolones
Q3) The aminoglycoside class of antibiotics:
A) Are bacteriostatic
B) Includes ciprofloxacin
C) Are ineffective against anaerobic bacteria
D) Have a wide therapeutic window
E) Are most often used as oral preparations
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Chapter 48: Bacterial Folate Antagonists,
Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is frequently used because:
A) The TMP covers aerobic bacteria that the SMZ does not
B) The combination has no potential side effects
C) The SMZ potentiates the action of TMP
D) The SMZ covers anaerobic bacteria that TMP does not
E) The TMP covers fungi that SMZ does not
Q2) When the resistance of urinary tract Enterobacteriaceae to TMP-SMZ is higher than 20%, which of the following is the most commonly used drug class as alternative therapy?
A) Macrolide
B) Penicillin
C) Vancomycin
D) Fluoroquinolones
E) Tetracycline
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Chapter 49: Antimycobacterial Agents
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Q1) First-line drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis include the following except:
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampin
C) Flouroquinolones
D) Ethambutol
E) Rifapentine
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Chapter 50: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) One class of antifungal drugs inhibits glucan synthesis, thereby blocking production of the major structural component of the fungal cell wall. Which of the following drugs has this mechanism of action?
A) Polyenes
B) Azoles
C) Triazoles
D) Echinocandins
E) Griseofulvin
Q2) Ketoconazole is of the azole class of antifungal medications. What is its mechanism of action?
A) Inhibits mitosis
B) Inhibit DNA synthesis
C) Bind to sterols in the cell membrane
D) Inhibit synthesis of membrane sterols
E) Inhibits ribosomal protein translation
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Chapter 51: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) The pharmacologic mechanism of action of acyclovir includes:
A) Inhibits DNA polymerases
B) Inhibits reverse transcriptase
C) Prevents viral entry into the cell
D) Spontaneous lysis of virus
E) Inhibits viral proteases
Q2) The pharmacologic mechanism of action of didanosine is:
A) Nucleoside analog
B) Neuraminidase inhibitor
C) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
E) Protease inhibitor
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Chapter 52: Drugs to Treat Parasitic Infections
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Q1) Quinine has been used for centuries. Which of the following is true about quinine?
A) It inhibits ribosomal protein translation.
B) It inhibits cell membrane synthesis.
C) It inhibits the activity of heme polymerase.
D) It inhibits DNA polymerase.
E) It inhibits DNA gyrase.
Q2) Which of the following can serve as an antiprotozoal?
A) Chloroquine
B) Clindamycin
C) Doxycycline
D) Overmectin
E) Penicillin
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Chapter 53: Principles of Antineoplastic Drug Use
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Q1) Which serves as the dose-limiting factor for most chemotherapeutic regimens?
A) Acute side effects such as nausea/vomiting, alopecia, bone marrow depression
B) Delayed side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis, sterility, neuropathy
C) Toxicity to surrounding normal tissues
D) Financial cost
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Chapter 54: Mechanisms of Action of Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Vinblastine falls within which class of antineoplastic drugs?
A) Plant alkyloids
B) Antimetabolites
C) Antibiotics
D) Alkylating agents
E) Hydroxyureas
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Chapter 55: Adjuvant Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is a targeted antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)?
A) Cetuximab
B) Gefitinib
C) Bortezomib
D) Goserelin
E) Tamoxifen
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