Diversity and Inclusion in Communication Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of diversity and inclusion within various communication contexts, including interpersonal, organizational, and media environments. Students will examine how culture, identity, race, gender, ability, and other social factors influence communication interactions, challenges, and outcomes. Through case studies, theoretical frameworks, and practical exercises, the course aims to develop critical awareness and skills for fostering inclusive communication strategies that promote equity, understanding, and respect in diverse settings.
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Intercultural Communication A Contextual Approach 6th Edition by James W. Neuliep
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
A)The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
B)The plant's height is 25 centimetres (cm).
C)The fish swam in a zigzag motion.
D)The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
E)The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.
Answer: C
Q2) Global warming, as demonstrated by observations such as melting of glaciers, increasing CO levels, and increasing average ambient temperatures, has already had many effects on living organisms. Which of the following might best offer a solution to this problem?
A)Continue to measure these and other parameters of the problem.
B)Increase the abilities of animals to migrate to more suitable habitats.
C)Do nothing; nature will attain its own balance.
D)Limit the burning of fossil fuels and regulate our loss of forested areas.
E)Recycle as much as possible.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for magnesium chloride?
A)MgCl
B)MgCl
C)Mg Cl
D)Mg Cl
E)MgCl
Answer: B
Q2) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
A)an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.
B)an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
C)the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
D)the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive isotope.
E)the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) What is the pH of a 1 millimolar NaOH solution?
A)pH 3
B)pH 8
C)pH 9
D)pH 10
E)pH 11
Answer: E
Q2) Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?
A)water's change in density when it condenses
B)water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air
C)the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D)the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E)water's high surface tension
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which molecule shown above contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino acid?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Organic molecules with only hydrogens and five carbon atoms can have different structures in all of the following ways except
A)by branching of the carbon skeleton.
B)by varying the number of double bonds between carbon atoms.
C)by varying the position of double bonds between carbon atoms.
D)by forming a ring.
E)by forming enantiomers.
Q3) A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s)with other atoms?
A)ionic
B)hydrogen
C)covalent
D)covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
E)ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
A)peptide bonds
B)hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
C)disulphide bonds
D)hydrophobic interactions
E)hydrogen bonds between the R groups
Q2) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?
A)cytosine and guanine
B)guanine and adenine
C)adenine and thymine
D)thymine and uracil
E)uracil and cytosine
Q3) Which of the following molecules is an amino acid with a hydrophobic R group or side chain?
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved
A)endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell-the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria.
B)anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen-the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts.
C)an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolved into the nucleus.
D)acquisition of an endomembrane system, and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi.
Q2) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively,
A)mitochondria and chloroplasts.
B)chloroplasts and peroxisomes.
C)peroxisomes and chloroplasts.
D)chloroplasts and mitochondria.
E)mitochondria and peroxisomes.
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) An organism with a cell wall would most likely be unable to take in materials through A)diffusion.
B)osmosis.
C)active transport.
D)phagocytosis.
E)facilitated diffusion.
Q2) When a plant cell, such as one from a peony stem, is submerged in a very hypotonic solution, what is likely to occur?
A)The cell will burst.
B)The cell membrane will lyse.
C)Plasmolysis will shrink the interior.
D)The cell will become flaccid.
E)The cell will become turgid.
Q3) At the beginning of the experiment,
A)side A is hypertonic to side B.
B)side A is hypotonic to side B.
C)side A is isotonic to side B.
D)side A is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose.
E)side A is hypotonic to side B with respect to sodium chloride.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Besides turning enzymes on or off, what other means does a cell use to control enzymatic activity?
A)cessation of cellular protein synthesis
B)localization of enzymes into specific organelles or membranes
C)exporting enzymes out of the cell
D)connecting enzymes into large aggregates
E)hydrophobic interactions
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in the figure above?
A)endergonic, G > 0
B)exergonic, G < 0
C)endergonic, G < 0
D)exergonic, G > 0
E)chemical equilibrium, G = 0
Q3) Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because
A)heat is not a form of energy.
B)cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.
C)temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
D)heat can never be used to do work.
E)heat must remain constant during work.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which step in the figure above is a redox reaction?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?
6 CO + 6 H O + Energy
A)C H O is oxidized and O is reduced.
B)O is oxidized and H O is reduced.
C)CO is reduced and O is oxidized.
D)C H O is reduced and CO is oxidized.
E)O is reduced and CO is oxidized.
Q3) ________ is the process whereby hydrogen is removed from sugars and fats and transferred to oxygen.
A)Photosynthesis
B)Respiration
C)Fermentation
D)Glycolysis
E)Chemiosmosis
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Where is the Calvin cycle located in a C plant?
A)stems
B)bundle sheath cells
C)mesophyll cells
D)stomata
E)the chloroplasts in leaves
Q2) Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis by
A)carbon dioxide molecules.
B)3-phosphoglycerate molecules.
C)ATP molecules.
D)ribulose bisphosphate molecules.
E)RuBP carboxylase molecules.
Q3) Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH 8 solution. What would be likely to happen?
A)The isolated chloroplasts will make ATP.
B)The Calvin cycle will be activated.
C)Cyclic photophosphorylation will occur.
D)The isolated chloroplasts will generate oxygen gas.
E)The isolated chloroplasts will reduce NADP to NADPH.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) This method of affinity chromatography would be expected to collect which of the following?
A)molecules of the hormone
B)molecules of purified receptor
C)G proteins
D)assorted membrane proteins
E)hormone-receptor complexes
Q2) Using the yeast signal transduction pathways, both types of mating cells release the mating factors. These factors bind to specific receptors on the correct cells
A)which induce changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion.
B)which produce more of the a factor in a positive feedback.
C)then one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell.
D)stimulating cell membrane disintegration, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells.
E)which in turn releases a growth factor that stimulates mitosis in both cells.
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A)anaphase
B)prophase
C)telophase
D)metaphase
E)interphase
Q2) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A)kinetochores
B)Golgi-derived vesicles
C)actin and myosin
D)centrioles and centromeres
E)cyclin-dependent kinases
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14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
A)length and position of the centromere only
B)length, centromere position, and staining pattern only
C)length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes
D)length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences
E)They have nothing in common except they are X-shaped.
Q2) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A)They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B)They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C)They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D)They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E)They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova)may have which of the following?
A)either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes
B)either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes
C)either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene
D)one chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene
Q2) What is the genotype of the deceased individual in generation II?
A)homozygous for a gene for colon cancer
B)homozygous for both cancer alleles from his mother
C)heterozygous for a gene for colon cancer
D)affected by the same colon cancer environmental factor as his mother
E)carrier of all of the several known genes for colon cancer
Q3) Which of the following is a possible partial genotype for the son?
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) How would one explain a testcross involving F dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
A)The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.
B)The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
C)Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
D)The testcross was improperly performed.
E)Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
Q2) Genomic imprinting is generally due to the addition of methyl (-CH )groups to ?C nucleotides in order to silence a given gene. If this depends on the sex of the parent who transmits the gene, which of the following must be true?
A)Methylation of C is permanent in a gene.
B)Genes required for early development stages must not be imprinted.
C)Methylation of this kind must occur more in males than in females.
D)Methylation must be reversible in ovarian and testicular cells.
E)The imprints are transmitted only to gamete-producing cells.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) The hydrolysis of the pyrophosphate in DNA replication is
A)endergonic.
B)exergonic.
C)isotonic.
D)exothermic.
E)a mutation.
Q2) Which of the enzymes separates the DNA strands during replication?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q3) Avery et al. showed that DNA was the inheritable agent in what year?
A)1918
B)1944
C)1949
D)1952
E)1960
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If, after irradiating and growing cultures in minimal media, you see no red cultures, what can you conclude?
A)No mutation occurred.
B)Mutations may have occurred but not in the adenine pathway.
C)All the cultures were mutated.
D)The mutants died because of a lack of adenine in the media.
E)You didn't leave the cultures under UV long enough.
Q2) Alternative RNA splicing
A)is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B)can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C)can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D)increases the rate of transcription.
E)is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of a codon?
A)It consists of three nucleotides.
B)It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
C)It never codes for more than one amino acid.
D)It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
E)It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A)the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B)the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C)the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D)gene amplification contributing to cancer
E)the folding of DNA to form heterochromatin
Q2) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
A)Most of the DNA codes for protein.
B)The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
C)Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
D)Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
E)It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.
Q3) What would happen if the maternal nurse cells were to have a mutant bicoid gene?
A)Nothing.
B)The larvae would be round.
C)The larvae would have two heads.
D)The larvae would have two tails.
E)The larvae would grow legs instead of antennae.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda ( )phage?
A)After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses.
B)Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene.
C)The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.
D)Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching from the lytic to the lysogenic.
E)The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host cell's DNA.
Q2) The SARS outbreak in 2003 resulted in ________ deaths in Canada.
A)8000
B)1026
C)438
D)44
E)none
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21
Chapter 20: Dna Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS)for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems? I. the possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce nonpancreatic cells II. the failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas
III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II
E)all of them
Q2) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional)for genetic engineering purposes by using
A)RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B)a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C)reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D)DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E)DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Which procedure is not required when the shotgun approach to sequencing is modified as sequencing by synthesis, in which many small fragments are sequenced simultaneously?
A)use of restriction enzymes
B)sequencing each fragment
C)cloning each fragment into a plasmid
D)ordering the sequences
E)PCR amplification
Q2) A recent report has indicated several conclusions about comparisons of our genome with that of Neanderthals. This report concludes, in part, that, at some period in evolutionary history, there was an admixture of the two genomes. This is evidenced by A)some Neanderthal sequences not found in humans.
B)a small number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences.
C)Neanderthal Y chromosomes preserved in the modern population of males.
D)mitochondrial sequences common to both groups.
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23
Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement?
A)If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
B)If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.
C)If an individual acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then a new genetic species will be the result.
D)A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete will, if perpetuated, produce a new species within just two generations.
Q2) What is true of pseudogenes?
A)They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA.
B)They are the same things as introns.
C)They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product.
D)They are vestigial genes.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to
A)cross your flies with flies from another lab.
B)reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation.
C)transfer only the largest flies.
D)change the temperature at which you rear the flies.
E)shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy.
Q2) Evolution
A)must happen, due to organisms' innate desire to survive.
B)must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment.
C)can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
D)requires the operation of natural selection.
E)requires that populations become better suited to their environments.
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Plant species A has a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species C would probably be
A)12.
B)14.
C)16.
D)28.
E)56.
Q2) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools?
A)phylogenetic
B)ecological
C)biological
D)morphological
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics should have been possessed by the first animals to colonize land? 1. were probably herbivores (ate photosynthesizers)
2. had four appendages
3. had the ability to resist dehydration
4. had lobe-finned fishes as ancestors
5. were invertebrates
A)3 only
B)3 and 5
C)1, 3, and 5
D)2, 3, and 4
E)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A)3.5 million years
B)5.0 million years
C)3.5 billion years
D)5.0 billion years
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) If the early history of life on Earth is accurately depicted by the above figure, then which statement is least in agreement with the hypothesis proposed by this tree?
A)The last universal common ancestor of all extant species is better described as a community of organisms, rather than an individual species.
B)The origin of the three domains appears as a polytomy.
C)Archaean genomes should contain genes that originated in bacteria, and vice versa.
D)Eukaryotes are more closely related to archaeans than to bacteria.
Q2) Traditional zoologists have long agreed that birds evolved from dinosaurs. What keeps such zoologists from agreeing that birds, like dinosaurs, should be considered reptiles?
A)There is not yet enough evidence to be sure.
B)Stubbornness, insofar as they are unwilling to change their thinking when new data warrants it.
C)They deny the validity of genetic molecular data.
D)They differ in what they consider to be important traits for assigning organisms to the class Reptilia.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) A fish that has been salt-cured subsequently develops a reddish color. You suspect that the fish has been contaminated by the extreme halophile, Halobacterium. Which of these features of cells removed from the surface of the fish, if confirmed, would support your suspicion? 1. the presence of the same photosynthetic pigments found in cyanobacteria
2. cell walls that lack peptidoglycan
3. cells that are isotonic to conditions on the surface of the fish
4. cells containing bacteriorhodopsin
5. the presence of very large numbers of ion pumps in its plasma membrane
A)2 and 5
B)3 and 4
C)1, 4, and 5
D)3, 4, and 5
E)2, 3, 4, and 5
Q2) What should be true of the cell wall of this bacterium?
A)Its innermost layer is composed of a phospholipid bilayer.
B)After it has been subjected to Gram staining, the cell should remain purple.
C)It has an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide.
D)It is mostly composed of a complex, cross-linked polysaccharide.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) P. chromatophora secretes around itself a test, or case, of plates made of silica. Which of the following is another rhizarian that would be in competition with P. chromatophora for the silica needed to make these plates, assuming limited quantities of silica in the environment?
A)radiolarians
B)foraminiferans
C)all other amoeboid cells
D)all other rhizaria
E)diatoms
Q2) Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle, how many phospholipid?(NOT lipopolysaccharide)bilayers should be found around each cyanelle, and which one of these bilayers should have photosystems embedded in it?
A)two; innermost
B)two; outermost
C)three; innermost
D)three; middle
E)three; outermost
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30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) In which combination of locations would one who is searching for the gametophytes of flower of stone have the best chance of finding them? 1. moist soil
2. underground, nourished there by symbiotic fungi
3. south- or west-facing slopes
4. permanently shady places
5. far from any flower of stone sporophytes
A)1 only
B)1 and 2
C)1, 2, and 4
D)1, 2, and 5
E)1, 3, 4, and 5
Q2) Which of the following characteristics helped seedless plants better adapt to life on land?
A)a dominant gametophyte
B)photosystem II
C)a chitinous cuticle
D)stomata on leaves
E)an unbranched sporophyte
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen, then whether the beetles should be considered mutualists with, or parasites of, the cycads depends upon
A)the extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction.
B)the extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins.
C)the extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers.
D)the distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad megasporophylls.
Q2) Given the differences between angiosperms and gymnosperms in the development of the integument(s), which of these statements is the most logical consequence?
A)The seed coats of angiosperms should be relatively thicker than those of gymnosperms.
B)It should be much more difficult for pollen tubes to enter angiosperm ovules than for them to enter gymnosperm ovules.
C)The female gametophytes of angiosperms should not be as well protected from environmental stress as should those of gymnosperms.
D)As a direct consequence of such differences, angiosperms should have fruit.
E)Angiosperm seeds should be more susceptible to desiccation.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Consider two hyphae having equal dimensions: one from a septate species and the other from a coenocytic species. Compared with the septate species, the coenocytic species should have
A)fewer nuclei.
B)more pores.
C)less chitin.
D)less cytoplasm.
E)reduced cytoplasmic streaming.
Q2) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the
A)fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes.
B)lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed.
C)fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae.
D)sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue.
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well-substantiated in the future, then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record?
A)The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
B)The fossil evidence will be understood to have been incorrect because it is incomplete.
C)The fossil record will henceforth be ignored.
D)Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
E)Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
Q2) On the basis of information in the previous paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp?
A)the act of fertilization
B)the process of gastrulation
C)eggs
D)All three of the responses above are correct.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) Had the teacher wanted to point out organisms that belong to the most successful animal phylum, the teacher should have chosen the
A)bivalves and gastropods.
B)sea anemones and hydra.
C)shrimp and copepods.
D)polychaete.
Q2) A terrestrial animal species is discovered with the following larval characteristics: exoskeleton, system of tubes for gas exchange, and modified segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist should predict that the adults of this species would also feature A)eight legs.
B)two pairs of antennae.
C)a sessile lifestyle.
D)an open circulatory system.
E)parapodia.
Q3) The larvae of many common tapeworm species that infect humans are usually found
A)encysted in freshwater snails.
B)encysted in the muscles of an animal, such as a cow or pig.
C)crawling in the abdominal blood vessels of cows and pigs.
D)crawling in the intestines of cows and pigs.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) The class decided to humanely euthanize the organism and subsequently dissect it. Having decided that it was probably not a reptile, two of their original hypotheses regarding its identity remained. Which of the following, if observed, should help them arrive at a conclusive answer?
A)presence of a closed circulatory system
B)presence of moist, highly vascularized skin
C)presence of lungs
D)presence of a nerve cord
E)presence of a digestive system with two openings
Q2) Examination of the fossils of Archaeopteryx reveals that, in common with extant birds, it had
A)a long tail containing vertebrae.
B)feathers.
C)teeth.
D)Three of the options listed are correct.
E)Two of the options listed are correct.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?
A)vascular cambium
B)apical meristem
C)endodermis
D)phloem
E)xylem
Q2) Land plants are composed of all of the following tissue types except A)mesodermal.
B)epidermal.
C)meristematic.
D)vascular.
E)ground tissue.
Q3) Heartwood and sapwood consist of A)bark.
B)periderm.
C)secondary xylem.
D)secondary phloem. E)cork.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Root hairs are most important to a plant because they
A)anchor a plant in the soil.
B)store starches.
C)increase the surface area for absorption.
D)provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
E)contain xylem tissue.
Q2) One is most likely to see guttation in small plants when the A)transpiration rates are high.
B)root pressure exceeds transpiration pull.
C)preceding evening was hot, windy, and dry.
D)water potential in the stele of the root is high.
E)roots are not absorbing minerals from the soil.
Q3) If you were to prune the shoot tips of a plant, what would be the effect on the plant and the leaf area index?
A)bushier plants; lower leaf area index
B)tall plants; lower leaf area index
C)tall plants; higher leaf area index
D)short plants; lower leaf area index
E)bushier plants; higher leaf area indexes
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) A soil well suited for the growth of most plants would have all of the following properties except
A)abundant humus.
B)air spaces.
C)good drainage.
D)high cation exchange capacity.
E)a high pH.
Q2) All of the following contributed to the dust bowl in the American southwest during the 1930s except
A)overgrazing by cattle.
B)clear-cutting of forest trees.
C)plowing of native grasses.
D)planting of field crops.
E)lack of soil moisture.
Q3) Most of the mass of organic material of a plant comes from A)water.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)soil minerals.
D)atmospheric oxygen.
E)nitrogen.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on studies of plant evolution and anatomy, which flower part is least likely to have evolved from a leaf?
A)stamen
B)carpel
C)petals
D)sepals
E)receptacle
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence during the alternation of generations life cycle in a flowering plant?
A)sporophyte meiosis gametophyte gametes fertilization diploid zygote
B)sporophyte mitosis gametophyte meiosis sporophyte
C)haploid gametophyte gametes meiosis fertilization diploid sporophyte
D)sporophyte spores meiosis gametophyte gametes
E)haploid sporophyte spores fertilization diploid gametophyte
Q3) Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the A)ovule.
B)style.
C)megasporangium.
D)anther.
E)ovary.
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) Most scientists agree that global warming is under way; thus, it is important to know how plants respond to heat stress. Which of the following would be a useful line of inquiry to try and improve plant response and survival to heat stress?
A)the production of heat-stable carbohydrates
B)increased production of heat-shock proteins
C)the opening of stomata to increase evaporational heat loss
D)protoplast fusion experiments with xerophytic plants
E)all of the above
Q2) In cases where plants exhibit generalized defence responses in organs distant from the infection site, this is termed
A)hyperactive responses.
B)systemic acquired resistance.
C)pleiotropy.
D)hyperplasia.
E)general systemic response.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examine the figure above. Near a goose's abdomen, the countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels causes
A)the temperature difference between the contents of the two sets of vessels to be minimized.
B)the venous blood to be as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet.
C)the blood in the feet to be as warm as the blood in the abdomen.
D)the temperature at the abdomen to be less than the temperature at the feet.
E)the loss of the maximum possible amount of heat to the environment.
Q2) The specialized function shared by the cells that line the lungs and those that line the lumen of the gut is that both types of cells
A)receive their oxygen directly from inhaled air and ingested foods.
B)provide abundant exchange surface.
C)have exceptionally high numbers of cellular organelles in the cytoplasm.
D)offer greater protection due to increased membrane thickness.
E)have a lowered basal metabolic rate due to cooperative exchange between cells.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Because adult lampreys attach onto the surface of large fish for long periods of time to feed on body fluids, they can accomplish nutritional balance without need for a A)liver.
B)pancreas.
C)intestine.
D)stomach.
E)gallbladder.
Q2) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because
A)they are autotrophic.
B)cattle, like rabbits, re-ingest their feces.
C)they manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver.
D)cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose.
E)they have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen (PO )in such conditions is
A)160 mm Hg.
B)16 mm Hg.
C)120/75.
D)21/760.
E)760/21.
Q2) Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?
A)the lungs of a vertebrate
B)the gills of a fish
C)the tracheal system of an insect
D)the skin of an earthworm
E)the parapodia of a polychaete worm
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44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
A)respond to T-independent antigens.
B)lyse tumour cells.
C)stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
D)interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E)interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
Q2) A patient who undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from
A)an autoimmune disease.
B)a typical allergy that can be treated by antihistamines.
C)an organ transplant, such as a skin graft.
D)the effect of exhaustion on the immune system.
E)anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Birds that live in marine environments and thus lack access to fresh drinking water
A)osmoregulate without using a transport epithelium for this purpose.
B)drink sea water and secrete excess ions through their kidneys only.
C)drink sea water and secrete excess ions mainly through their nasal salt glands.
D)have plasma that is isoosmotic to ocean water.
E)obtain water by eating only osmoregulating prey.
Q2) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid
A)is readily soluble in water.
B)is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products.
C)requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing body mass.
D)excretion allows birds to live in desert environments.
Q3) The typical osmolarity of human blood is
A)30 mOsm/L.
B)100 mOsm/L.
C)200 mOsm/L.
D)300 mOsm/L.
E)500 mOsm/L.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it structurally resembles, and interferes with, the endocrine secretions of the
A)pancreatic islet cells.
B)thyroid gland.
C)adrenal medulla.
D)ovaries.
E)hypothalamus.
Q2) When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a population of target cells, then
A)the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms.
B)the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein.
C)the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell.
D)the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
E)the steroid hormones affect only the release of proteins from the target cell, whereas peptide hormones affect only the synthesis of proteins that remain in the target cell.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the A)sperm cells.
B)hypothalamus.
C)Leydig cells.
D)anterior pituitary gland.
E)seminiferous tubules.
Q2) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when
A)pathogens are rapidly diversifying.
B)a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations.
C)there is some potential for rapid overpopulation.
D)a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings.
E)a species is in stable and favourable environments.
Q3) The drug RU-486 functions by
A)inhibiting release of gonadotropins from the pituitary.
B)blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus.
C)preventing release of the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
D)reducing sexual interest.
E)prolonging the endurance of the corpus luteum.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) The small portion of the embryo that will become its dorsal side develops from the A)morula.
B)primitive streak.
C)archenteron.
D)grey crescent.
E)blastocoel.
Q2) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a A)blastocyst.
B)gastrula.
C)fetus.
D)somite.
E)zygote.
Q3) Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos are A)light and temperature.
B)salt gradients and membrane potentials.
C)gravity and pH.
D)moisture and mucus.
E)location of sperm penetration and cortical reaction.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the neurons in the human brain are
A)sensory neurons.
B)motor neurons.
C)interneurons.
D)auditory neurons.
E)peripheral neurons.
Q2) In the communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle
A)the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell.
B)the motor neuron is considered the postsynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the presynaptic cell.
C)action potentials are possible on the motor neuron but not the skeletal muscle.
D)action potentials are possible on the skeletal muscle but not the motor neuron.
E)the motor neuron fires action potentials but the skeletal muscle is not electrochemically excitable.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that
A)schizophrenia results in hallucinations.
B)schizophrenia results in both manic and depressive states.
C)schizophrenia results in decreased dopamine.
D)bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment.
E)bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines.
Q2) Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A)astrocytes metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B)oligodendrocytes produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system
C)microglia produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D)radial glia the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
E)Schwann cells provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons
Q3) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to
A)decreased heart rate.
B)increased secretion by the pancreas.
C)increased secretion by the gallbladder.
D)increased contraction of the stomach.
E)relaxation of the airways in the lungs.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) The structure diagrammed in the figure is the A)neuromast.
B)statocyst.
C)taste bud.
D)ommatidium.
E)olfactory bulb.
Q2) Tastes and smells are similar in that
A)both types of stimuli are present in thousands of different chemicals.
B)both types of stimuli must be dissolved in a body fluid before they can be detected.
C)both types of stimuli are proteins (that is, molecules of very large size and high molecular weight).
D)both types of stimuli evoke action potentials in the cells to which they bind.
E)any given stimulus for one system evokes a response from the other system.
Q3) A skeletal muscle deprived of adequate ATP supplies will
A)immediately relax.
B)release all actin-myosin bonds.
C)enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate.
D)fire many more action potentials than usual and enter a state of "rigour."
E)sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Q1) White-crowned sparrows can only learn the "crystallized" song for their species by
A)listening to adult sparrow songs during a sensitive period as a fledgling, followed by a practice period until the juvenile matches its melody to its memorized fledgling song.
B)listening to the song of its own species during a critical period so that it will imprint to its own species song and not the songs of other songbird species.
C)practicing as a fledgling until the innate species-specific song becomes perfected.
D)performing the crystallized song as adults when they become sexually mature, as the song is programmed into the innate behaviour for the species.
E)observing and practising after receiving social confirmation from other adults at a critical period during their first episode of courtship behaviour.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
A)savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
B)tundra-long summers, mild winters
C)temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters
D)temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
E)tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature
Q2) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by
A)whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B)their tolerance to shade.
C)their seed dispersal rate.
D)their size.
E)their growth rate.
Q3) A rain shadow is
A)the leeward side of the mountain that receives dry air.
B)the windward side of the mountain that receives much of rain.
C)the region close to shore sheltered by the mountains.
D)the windward side of the mountain that receives little rain.
E)regions near 30 degrees N and 30 degrees S latitude that have dry air.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?
A)Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
B)Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
C)Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.
D)Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.
E)The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.
Q2) Carrying capacity is
A)seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean.
B)the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
C)fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.
D)determined by density and dispersion data.
E)the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia?
A)Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska.
B)Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms in Asia.
C)Test for the presence of H5N1 in poultry used for human consumption worldwide.
D)Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets.
E)Keep domestic and wild fowl from interacting with each other to minimize the probability that wild fowl could get infected and migrate out of Asia.
Q2) According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is
A)large and close to a mainland.
B)large and remote.
C)small and remote.
D)small and close to a mainland.
E)environmentally homogeneous.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) Which data is most useful to measure primary productivity in a terrestrial ecosystem?
A)temperature readings
B)potential evapotranspiration
C)intensity of solar radiation
D)annual precipitation
E)amount of carbon fixed
Q2) Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity?
A)the energy contained in the standing crop
B)the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration
C)the energy used by autotrophs in respiration
D)the energy fixed by photosynthesis
E)all solar energy
Q3) What is secondary production?
A)energy converted by secondary consumers from primary consumers
B)solar energy that is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis
C)food that is converted to new biomass by consumers
D)energy that is not used by consumers for growth and reproduction
E)growth that takes place during the second year of life in consumers
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) According to most conservation biologists, the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is
A)chemical pollution of water and air.
B)stratospheric ozone depletion.
C)overexploitation of certain species.
D)alteration or destruction of the physical habitat.
E)global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.
Q2) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?
A)increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B)the depletion of the ozone layer
C)overexploitation of selected species
D)habitat destruction
E)zoned reserves
Q3) Study the information above about quail habitats. Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?
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