Diversity and Inclusion in Business Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental concepts and practices of diversity and inclusion within the business environment. Students will examine the social, cultural, and legal dimensions that influence workforce diversity, including race, gender, age, ability, sexuality, and cultural background. Emphasis is placed on understanding unconscious bias, fostering inclusive organizational cultures, and analyzing the impact of diverse teams on business performance and innovation. Through case studies, interactive discussions, and real-world examples, learners will develop practical strategies for implementing inclusive policies and leading an equitable workplace that leverages diversity as a competitive advantage.
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The Legal Ethical and Regulatory Environment of Business in a Diverse Society 1st Edition by Dawn
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Business and Ethics
Environment in a Diverse Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defamation is most likely to be an example of _____.
A) violation of public law
B) a tort
C) violation of substantive law
D) a felony
Answer: B
Q2) The executive branch of government has the president as the chief executive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is a bailment? Explain with an example.
Answer: A bailment is the legal relationship created when a person gives possession of property but not title to the property to another for a specific purpose, such as the owner of a car leaving the car-that is, giving over possession-to the car repair shop owner to have the car repaired, or leaving your cat, which is considered your personal property, with your friend to care for while you are out of town on vacation.
Q4) Compare civil law and criminal law.
Answer: 11ea679f_0dd2_535f_8b3b_0d7c251affec_TB1590_00
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Alternative Dispute Resolution
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Q1) Which of the following is the largest arbitration organization in the U.S?
A) Federal Mediation & Conciliation Service
B) Chicago International Dispute Resolution Association
C) American Arbitration Association
D) Commercial Arbitration and Mediation Centre for the Americas (CAMCA)
Answer: C
Q2) Discuss conciliation.
Answer: Conciliation is one of the three most common types of ADR. The very first thing a party with a conflict should do is to attempt conciliation also called negotiation, with the other party to the dispute. It is the easiest, cheapest thing to do. Conciliation simply involves the parties talking to each other about their dispute, either orally or in writing, in an effort to reach a resolution of the conflict.
Q3) The decision reached by an arbitrator is called an award.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Court System and Legal Process
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Q1) According to the principle of stare decisis:
A) federal courts can not consider those cases that represent hypothetical issues.
B) a case can be considered ripe if it rests upon future, contingent events.
C) judicial reasoning that is unnecessary to a decision has no binding effect on later courts.
D) courts are encouraged to follow their own prior decisions.
Answer: D
Q2) What is an injunction?
A) A counterclaim against the plaintiff.
B) A court order to do or stop doing a particular thing.
C) The time frame allowed for filing a law suit.
D) An affirmative defense filed by the defendant.
Answer: B
Q3) Punitive damages are used in contract law to specify the predetermined amount of damages for which a defendant will be liable in case of breach of contract.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Administrative Law
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding de novo review of the administrative decisions?
A) De novo review means reviewing only the administrative decision without a new trial.
B) The review takes place at the trial court level.
C) Generally, de novo review tales place for cases related to racial discrimination.
D) The review takes place at the appellate court level.
Q2) Which of the following types of law addresses federal and state government agencies and their role in carrying out their delegated authority?
A) Corporate law
B) Administrative law
C) Criminal law
D) Consumer rights
Q3) Congress has quasi-legislative authority.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the powers of administrative agencies.
Q5) Define administrative law.
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Chapter 5: Contracts and Sales
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Q1) What are the two sets of laws that govern contracts?
Q2) The _____ is a compilation of the most common approaches to states' common law of contracts, but is not, in and of itself, law.
A) Code of Federal Regulations
B) Federal Register
C) Restatement of Contracts
D) Uniform Commercial Code
Q3) While the obligor's permission is not necessary for a valid assignment, if the obligor gives permission, so that now all three parties agree to the assignment, it is called a
A) quasi contract
B) suertyship agreement
C) sponsored agreement
D) novation
Q4) Discuss with an example, the mailbox rule.
Q5) Under the UCC, a change in the offer by offeree will only be considered a counteroffer if the offeree intends it to be so.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Torts
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding palming off?
A) Palming off involves intentionally making false statements about the quality or ownership of someone's goods.
B) Palming off is also known as injurious falsehood.
C) In the case of palming off, usually what the purchaser buys is of inferior quality or at least not the brand or quality they thought they were purchasing.
D) An individual can sue a person for palming off when the person intentionally interferes with either an existing or a prospective contract the individual has with another.
Q2) What is product liability?
Q3) Wiretapping is most likely to be an example of _____.
A) publication of private facts
B) false light
C) appropriation of name or likeness
D) intrusion upon seclusion
Q4) Discuss briefly the four torts included under invasion of privacy.
Q5) Explain battery.
Q6) Discuss defamation in the context of news media.
Q7) Discuss with example appropriation of name or likeness.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Property, Real and Personal
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Q1) Explain with an example joint tenancy with right of survivorship.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding a stolen property?
A) One who steals personal property acquires title to the property.
B) One who steals personal property can convey title to a buyer by selling the property to the buyer.
C) The true owner retains the right to the goods, even though he or she is not in possession of them.
D) A person who purchases a stolen property can acquire the title of the stolen property if can prove that at the time of purchasing the property, he did not know that the property was stolen.
Q3) The one who makes a will is called a _____.
A) testator
B) tenant
C) donor
D) grantor
Q4) Trees are most likely to be an example of _____ property.
A) tangible personal
B) real
C) intangible personal
D) intellectual
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Chapter 8: Business Crimes
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Q1) Price fixing is an antitrust violation under the _____.
A) Dodd-Frank Act
B) Deficit Reduction Act
C) Sherman Act
D) Commodity Futures Modernization Act
Q2) Price discrimination is an antitrust violation under the _____.
A) Federal Trade Commission Act
B) Robinson-Patman Act
C) Sherman Act
D) Clayton Act
Q3) Price discrimination involves:
A) a corporate insider, buying or selling a security while in possession of inside information.
B) bidders agreeing ahead of time who will win the award.
C) two or more competitors conspiring to sell a product for the same price.
D) charging different rates to different purchasers for an item that costs the same to produce.
Q4) Discuss the Fifth Amendment.
Q5) What is bid rigging?
Q6) Define perjury.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Secured Transactions and Bankruptcy
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Q1) The right of _____ allows the surety to obtain a court decree ordering the debtor to pay the creditor.
A) reimbursement
B) exoneration
C) subrogation
D) contribution
Q2) James has taken a loan of $10,000 from a bank with Julia and Robert as his sureties. However when the money becomes due, James is unable to pay the amount. Robert, as one of James' sureties, pays the entire amount to the bank. Robert, now, has the right to receive a proportionate share of this obligation from Julia. This right is known as the right of ___.
A) reimbursement
B) exoneration
C) contribution
D) subrogation
Q3) Which of the following is a category of goods used as collateral?
A) Instruments
B) Stocks
C) Fixtures
D) Bonds
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Chapter 10: Agency and Business Organizations
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Q1) What are the various functions performed by the promoter of a corporation?
Q2) An agent is a person who by agreement with the principal acts on behalf of and subject to the control of the principal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a ___, the outstanding shares of stock are held by a small number of persons, frequently family relatives or friends.
A) closely held corporation
B) government corporation
C) professional association
D) public corporation
Q4) Discuss limited partnership.
Q5) Discuss with an example a third party contract where the principal is undisclosed.
Q6) Discuss corporate dissolution.
Q7) Explain the terms general agent and special agent.
Q8) Sharing of losses is a condition of partnership.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Employment Relationship and Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) Pregnant employees cannot be made to leave work early and take maternity leave at a certain arbitrarily set date.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jim Crow laws are related to discrimination based on ___.
A) religion
B) gender
C) affinity orientation
D) race and color
Q3) Intent to discriminate must be shown, in a disparate impact case.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Affirmative action is:
A) paying certain amount as fine for discriminating at the workplace.
B) a defense used for discrimination claims that are based on disparate impact.
C) making a plan to include in the workplace those who have traditionally been excluded from the workplace due to generations of discrimination.
D) a defense used for discrimination claims that are based on disparate treatment.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Labor and Management Relations
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Q1) _____ are specifically excluded from the NLRA.
A) Part-time workers
B) Nonmanagerial employees
C) Subagents
D) Domestic workers
Q2) Wages, hours and other terms, and conditions of employment come under ____.
A) permissive subjects of bargaining
B) employee subjects of bargaining
C) mandatory subjects of bargaining
D) management subjects of bargaining
Q3) Which of the following statements is true for labor laws?
A) They do not offer protection against unfair labor practices.
B) They don't give employees the right to form labor organizations.
C) They give the courts extra power for regulating union activities.
D) They provide union members with a bill of rights.
Q4) Legislation provided union members with a bill of rights to protect them from union abuses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define a bargaining unit?
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Chapter 13: Securities Regulation and Compliance
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Q1) In the context of Sarbanes-Oxley Act, what is meant by reporting up and reporting out?
Q2) The _____ oversees all the U.S. stock exchanges and any organization connected with the selling of securities.
A) Domestic Policy Council
B) Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)
C) Council of Economic Advisers
D) Commission on Civil Rights
Q3) A proxy solicitation is a writing signed by a shareholder of a corporation authorizing a named person to vote his or her shares of stock at a specified meeting of the shareholders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) SEC guarantees accuracy of the information printed in the prospectus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the following statement "Management's Discussion and Analysis (MD&A) is often the most important disclosure item in the annual report."
Q6) What is a proxy solicitation?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Antitrust and Trade Regulation
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Q1) Oligopolies are not free to interact independently outside the reach of the Sherman Act and the FTC §5.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The EC Treaty:
A) governs anticompetitive measures between the member states.
B) does not have any jurisdiction over mergers in the European Union.
C) permits the EC to take private causes of action in antitrust cases.
D) does not allow members to bring an action against violators.
Q3) Identify the behavior which is both a horizontal and vertical per se violation.
A) Cartels
B) Price fixing
C) Exclusive dealing contracts
D) Exclusive selling agreements
Q4) Two telecom companies in the same market are vertical competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the provisions of the Robinson-Patman Act.
Q6) What is meant by oligopoly?
Q7) Why are horizontal mergers subject to most scrutiny?
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Chapter 15: Intellectual Property
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Q1) According to the work-for-hire doctrine, an employer is entitled to any ownership of property created by an independent contractor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following best represents a formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information that is used in one's business and that gives one an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or have it?
A) Service mark
B) Trade secret
C) Certification mark
D) Collective mark
Q3) The term trade dress refers to the total image of a product, including the size, shape, color, texture, graphics, or particular sales technique employed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patent gives the inventor the right to make, use, or sell the invention.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Environmental Law and Business
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Q1) In 1997, a group of interested nations negotiated a treaty with the goal of stabilizing greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere at a level that would not harm the climate. This treaty was known as the:
A) Kyoto Protocol.
B) Montreal Protocol.
C) Hague Protocol.
D) Bonn Protocol.
Q2) The U.S. government has created the Environmental Protection Agency to guide businesses in the right direction with regards to the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mention some of the doctrines and principles that address the issue of ownership of water.
Q4) The public gets _____ days to comment, after which the final Environmental Impact Statement is reported upon.
A) 60
B) 45
C) 15
D) 30
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Chapter 17: International Law and Business
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the International Sale of Goods (CISG) treaty?
A) It is also known as the Geneva Convention.
B) It is applicable only between merchants doing business.
C) It is not yet adopted by the United States.
D) It applies to household goods purchased for personal use.
Q2) What are the three broad principles of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
Q3) The BIS is charged with the development, implementation, and interpretation of U.S. export control policy for purely commercial commodities, dual-use commodities, software, and technology. In this context, a dual use commodity is one which has commercial but also _____ applications.
A) military
B) scientific
C) environmental
D) educational
Q4) What is dumping?
Q5) Explain with an example, implications of cultural differences in international business.
Q6) Discuss briefly the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA).
Page 19
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