Disease Mechanisms in Human Health Exam Preparation Guide
Course
Introduction
This course explores the molecular, cellular, and physiological mechanisms underlying human diseases. Students will gain an understanding of how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors contribute to disease processes, with an emphasis on the pathogenesis of key disorders affecting major organ systems. Through the integration of current research findings and case studies, the course examines the complex interactions that result in disease development, progression, and potential therapeutic approaches. The course prepares students to critically evaluate disease mechanisms and apply this knowledge in the context of biomedical research and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 7th Edition by McCance
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesizes and transports lipids.
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Secretory vesicle
D)Lysosomes
Answer: A
Q2) What occurs during exocytosis?
A) Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes.
B) All substances are secreted into the cellular matrix.
C) No repairs in the plasma membrane can take place.
D) Solute molecules flow freely into and out of the cell.
Answer: A
Q3) The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells?
A) Platelets
B) Epidermal cells
C) Connective tissue cells
D) Fibroblast cells
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
A) Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis.
B) Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production.
C) Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
D) Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Answer: B
Q2) It is true that melanin is: (Select all that apply.)
A) Rarely found in epithelial cells
B) Found in cells called keratinocytes, which are present in the retina
C) A factor in the prevention of certain types of cancer
D) Most influential in managing the effects of short-term sunlight exposure
E) Accumulated in specific cells found in the skin
Answer: B,C,E
Q3) Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of:
A) Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
B) Hemoglobin, which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells
C) Albumin, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
D) Amino acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids
and Bases
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Q1) Is inversely related to HCO concentration.
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: B
Q2) Which arterial pH will initiate the formation of ammonium (NH )from ammonia (NH ),referred to as academia,in the tubular lumen of the kidney?
A) 7.25
B) 7.35
C) 7.55
D) 7.65
Answer: A
Q3) Causes of hyperkalemia include:
A) Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
B) Vomiting and diarrhea
C) Renal failure and Addison disease
D) Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Q1) Huntington disease
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of the genetic principle of:
A) Penetrance
B) Expressivity
C) Dominance
D) Recessiveness
Q3) Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease?
A) Sex-linked dominant
B) Sex-influenced
C) Sex-linked
D) Sex-linked recessive
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6
Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Q1) What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
A) Diet high in saturated fats
B) Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
C) Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
D) Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Q2) What factors are typically considered when assessing an individual's risk for developing such common diseases as hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Diet
C) Exercise habits
D) Family history
E) Spiritual beliefs
Q3) Traits caused by the combined effects of multiple genes are referred to by which term?
A) Polygenic
B) Multifocal
C) Modifiable
D) Involuntary
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A) They are already differentiated.
B) They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C) They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D) They are said to be pluripotent.
Q2) Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A) Activated
B) Altered
C) Mutated
D) Imprinted
Q3) The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is:
A) DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
B) Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
C) Epigenetic modifications can be reversed.
D) No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.
Q4) Genes responsible for the maintenance of all cells are referred to as:
A) Universal
B) Managerial
C) Housekeeping
D) Executive
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy?
A) Lactobacillus
B) Candida albicans
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q2) During phagocytosis,what is occurring during the step referred to as opsonization?
A) Phagocytes recognize and adhere to the bacteria.
B) Microorganisms are ingested.
C) Microorganisms are killed and digested.
D) An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
Q3) In the later stages of an inflammatory response,which phagocytic cell is predominant?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Chemokines
D) Eosinophils
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) When a person is exposed to most antigens,antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within:
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 3 days
D) 6 days
Q2) Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Th1 cells
C) Th2 cells
D) Regulatory T (Treg) cells
Q3) Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
A) Yeast
B) Cancer cells
C) Bacteria
D) Fungus
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Q1) Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Modulation
B) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
C) Neutrophil-mediated damage
D) Complement-mediated lysis
Q2) How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
D) Natural killer cells
Q3) Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
A) Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
B) Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
C) Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
D) Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Q1) Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc)portion of an antibody to:
A) Hide in cells to avoid triggering an immune response
B) Form self-protecting toxins
C) Make staining possible for microscopic observation
D) Produce a protective "self" protein
Q2) Which statements are true regarding endotoxins? (Select all that apply.)
A) Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides.
B) Endotoxins are located in the walls of bacteria.
C) Endotoxins are created during the process of lysis.
D) Endotoxins are found in gram-negative microorganisms.
E) Endotoxins are released during the destruction of its host.
Q3) What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?
A) Reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA.
B) It is needed to produce integrase.
C) It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus.
D) It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes?
A) Suppression of B-cell responses and enhancement of T-cell responses
B) Suppression of T-cell responses and enhancement of B-cell responses
C) Suppression of B- and T-cell responses
D) Enhancement of B- and T-cell responses
Q2) Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q3) The increased production of proinflammatory cytokines is associated with which considerations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chronic respiratory dysfunction
B) Elevated anxiety levels
C) Immune disorders
D) Age and gender
E) Dementia
Q4) Constricts peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Q1) What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
A) Herpes simplex virus type 6
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Human immunodeficiency virus
Q2) Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
A) Osteogenic sarcoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Adenocarcinoma
Q3) The survival rate for stage IV Hodgkin disease can be as high as:
A) 99%
B) 70%
C) 40%
D) 20%
Q4) Kaposi sarcoma
A)HPV
B)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
C)Hepatis B virus (HBV)
D)Helicobacter pylori
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Q1) Which environmental factors have been shown to have greatest significant effect on the frequency of genetic mutations in humans? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tobacco use
B) Radiation exposure
C) Obesity
D) Severe allergies
E) Stressful occupation
Q2) Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?
A) Liver
B) Endometrial
C) Stomach
D) Colon
Q3) Which cancers pose the highest risk for radiologists?
A) Thyroid
B) Breast
C) Leukemia
D) Brain
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A) Down syndrome
B) Wilms tumor
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Q2) A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)has an increased risk of developing:
A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Epstein-Barr
D) Leukemia
Q3) Currently,what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 80%
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16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? (Select all that apply.)
A) The BBB is dependent on astrocytes.
B) It uses the meningeal layers of the brain.
C) It restricts the flow of large molecules, such as potassium.
D) Naturally occurring inflammatory mediators affect the BBB.
E) The BBB appears to play a role in slowing down the onset of degenerative brain disease.
Q2) A Schwann cell: (Select all that apply.)
A) Can form the myelin sheath.
B) Is also referred to as a neurolemmocyte.
C) Affects the function of the nodes of Ranvier.
D) Is located in the peripheral nervous system.
E) Is responsible of decreasing conduction velocity.
Q3) The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?
A) 80%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 10%
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the gate control theory (GCT)of pain?
A) The pain gate is located in the brain.
B) A closed gate increases pain perception.
C) The brain primarily controls the pain gate.
D) An open gate facilitates the brain in processing the pain.
Q2) A heat stroke is characterized by:
A) Core temperatures usually reaching approximately 39.9° C (103.9° F)
B) Sweat production on the face occurring even during dehydration
C) A rapidly decreasing core temperature as heat loss from the evaporation of sweat ceases
D) Symptoms caused by the loss of sodium and prolonged sweating
Q3) What is a long-term complication of rewarming as a treatment for hypothermia?
A) Acidosis
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Shock
D) Renal failure
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18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems,Cerebral
Hemodynamics,and Motor Function
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Q1) After a cerebrovascular accident,a man is unable to either feel or identify a comb with his eyes closed.This is an example of:
A) Agraphia
B) Tactile agnosia
C) Anosognosia
D) Prosopagnosia
Q2) With receptive dysphasia (fluent),the individual is able to:
A) Respond in writing, but not in speech.
B) Produce verbal speech, but not comprehend language.
C) Comprehend speech, but not verbally respond.
D) Neither respond verbally nor comprehend speech.
Q3) Characteristics of primary motor neuron atrophy include:
A) Loss of sensation in distal, proximal, or midline muscles
B) Fasciculations and muscle cramps
C) Flaccid paralysis with paresthesia
D) Spastic paralysis with increased deep tendon reflexes
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19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Q1) What group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma?
A) Children
B) Adolescents
C) Adults
D) Older adults
Q2) The type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage is:
A) Cavernous angioma
B) Venous angioma
C) Capillary telangiectasia
D) Arteriovenous malformation
Q3) Cryptococcus neoformans
A)Complication of mastoiditis
B)Opportunistic infection
C)CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
D)Mosquito-borne viral infection
E)Tick-borne bacterial infection
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is used to treat depression:
A) In pregnant women
B) By enhancing the effect of antidepressants
C) As a first-line treatment before medications
D) That is unipolar
Q2) When treating individuals with depression,the result produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is believed to be an alteration in:
A) The monoamine systems
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) The limbic system
Q3) Condition is characterized by an inability to have emotional experiences.
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Q1) Develops in the vermis of the cerebellum and may extend to the fourth ventricle.
A)Medulloblastoma
B)Ependymoma
C)Cerebellar astrocytoma
D)Craniopharyngioma
E)Neuroblastoma
Q2) Originates in the neural crest that normally forms the sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla.
A)Medulloblastoma
B)Ependymoma
C)Cerebellar astrocytoma
D)Craniopharyngioma
E)Neuroblastoma
Q3) The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
A) 2 years
B) 1 year
C) 10 months
D) 5 months
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22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) Glycoproteins
A)Anterior pituitary
B)Posterior pituitary
C)Thyroid
D)Adrenal cortex
E)Adrenal medulla
Q2) Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
A) Thyroxine
B) Oxytocin
C) Growth hormone
D) Insulin
Q3) Regulation of the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla is an example of which type of regulation?
A) Negative feedback
B) Positive feedback
C) Neural
D) Physiologic
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) The term used to describe a person who experiences a lack of all hormones associated with the anterior pituitary is:
A) Panhypopituitarism
B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency
C) Hypopituitarism
D) Anterior pituitary failure
Q2) The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)is related to an organic lesion of the:
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Thalamus
C) Posterior pituitary
D) Renal tubules
Q3) The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include:
A) Constipation with gastric distention
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea
C) Hyperthermia and tachycardia
D) Constipation and lethargy
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
A) Enhancement of the motility of sperm
B) Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
C) Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria
D) Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse
Q2) Testosterone is believed to have a role in: (Select all that apply.)
A) Male-patterned baldness
B) Libido levels
C) Acne development
D) Altered cholesterol metabolism
E) Thinning of the larynx
Q3) Which immunoglobulin is contained in breast milk?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a cause of galactorrhea?
A) Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast
B) Hypothyroidism, resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone
C) Excess prolactin secretion from the pituitary
D) Drugs such as high-dose oral contraceptives and phenothiazines
Q2) Which term is used to identify the descent of the posterior bladder and trigone into the vaginal canal?
A) Rectocele
B) Vaginocele
C) Cystocele
D) Enterocele
Q3) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB),secondary to ovarian dysfunction,is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from: (Select all that apply.)
A) Endometriosis
B) Progesterone deficiency
C) Sexually transmitted infections
D) Congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure
E) Estrogen excess
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Q1) What term is used to identify an inflammation of the glans penis?
A) Glanitis
B) Balanitis
C) Priapism
D) Hydrocelitis
Q2) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A) Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B) Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C) Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D) Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
Q3) The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism?
A) Penile
B) Testicular
C) Prostate
D) Epididymal
Q4) What is the first sign of puberty in boys?
A) Thickening of the scrotal skin
B) Growth of pubic hair
C) Enlargement of the testes
D) Change in voice
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Chapter 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV)from mother to fetus?
A) Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
B) The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
C) The risk is higher in women who experience ruptured membranes more than 6 hours before delivery.
D) The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used.
Q2) During reactivation (release from latency),herpes virus genomes are transported through which nerves to the dermal surface?
A) Somatic
B) Peripheral sensory
C) Autonomic
D) Peripheral motor
Q3) Which treatment is used for trichomoniasis?
A) Topical application of 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
B) Topical application of acyclovir
C) Systemic metronidazole
D) Systemic tetracycline
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Chapter 27: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Where are alveolar macrophages found?
A) Skin
B) Breasts
C) Gastrointestinal tract
D) Lungs
Q2) What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
A) 20 to 30
B) 60 to 90
C) 100 to 120
D) 200 to 240
Q3) Which statements characterize albumin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Retains sodium to maintain water balance.
B) Provides colloid osmotic pressure.
C) Is synthesized in the liver.
D) Is a carrier for drugs that have low water solubility.
E) Is a small molecule
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) How is the effectiveness of vitamin B therapy measured?
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Serum transferring
C) Hemoglobin
D) Serum vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q2) Sideroblastic anemia can occasionally result from an autosomal recessive transmission inherited from which relative?
A) Mother
B) Father
C) Grandfather
D) Grandmother
Q3) Which conditions are generally included in the symptoms of pernicious anemia (PA)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Weakness
B) Weight gain
C) Low hemoglobin
D) Paresthesias
E) Low hematocrit
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Q1) Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease-related lymphadenopathy are a result of which of the following?
A) Pressure and ischemia
B) Pressure and obstruction
C) Inflammation and ischemia
D) Inflammation and pressure
Q2) Which term is used to describe a red-purple discoloration caused by diffuse hemorrhage into the skin tissue?
A) Petechiae
B) Hematoma
C) Ecchymosis
D) Purpura
Q3) Multiple myeloma
A)Epstein-Barr virus
B)Bence Jones protein
C)Diagnosed by the Reed-Sternberg cell
D)Diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Q1) When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN),why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
A) Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible.
B) Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
C) The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble to water-soluble form.
D) The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Q2) Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an:
A) Allergic disease in which maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
B) Alloimmune disease in which maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
C) Autoimmune disease in immature nucleated cells that are released into the bloodstream
D) Autosomal dominant hereditary disease
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15714
Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA)node because it:
A) Has a superior location in the right atrium.
B) Is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization.
C) Has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve.
D) Depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.
Q2) Where in the heart are the receptors for neurotransmitters located?
A) Semilunar and atrioventricular (AV) valves
B) Endocardium and sinoatrial (SA) node
C) Myocardium and coronary vessels
D) Epicardium and AV node
Q3) Within a physiologic range,what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload)result in?
A) Increase in force of contraction
B) Decrease in refractory time
C) Increase in afterload
D) Decrease in repolarization
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15715
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
A) Congenital malformation
B) Cardiac failure
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the cells' ability to synthesize cholesterol?
A) Cell production of cholesterol is affected by the aging process.
B) Cells produce cholesterol only when dietary fat intake is low.
C) Most body cells are capable of producing cholesterol.
D) Most cholesterol produced by the cells is converted to the low-density form.
Q3) Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD)because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Obesity
D) High alcohol consumption
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15716
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
A) The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
B) The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
D) An intermittent murmur is present.
Q2) The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?
A) Right-to-left blood shunting
B) Left-to-right blood shunting
C) Blood flow from the umbilical cord
D) Blood flow to the lungs
Q3) Foramen ovale
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Abnormal communication between the atria
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15717
Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures belong to the upper conduction airway? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oropharynx
B) Larynx
C) Nasopharynx
D) Trachea
E) Bronchi
Q2) Initiates cough reflex
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
Q3) Where does the tracheal bifurcation occur?
A) Larynx
B) Bronchi
C) Carina
D) Nasopharynx
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15718
Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)is the result of an increase in:
A) Levels of serum sodium and water
B) Capillary permeability
C) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Oncotic pressure
Q2) Pulmonary edema usually begins to develop at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of how many millimeters of mercury (mm Hg)?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Q3) Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Atelectasis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Ischemia
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15719
Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is not a clinical manifestation of croup?
A) Rhinorrhea
B) Sore throat
C) Low-grade fever
D) Barking cough
E) Coarse rhonchi
Q2) The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
A) 16 and 20
B) 20 and 24
C) 24 and 30
D) 30 and 36
Q3) Which cytokines activated in childhood asthma produce an allergic response?
A) Interleukin (IL)-1, IL-2, and interferon-alpha (IFN- )
B) IL-8, IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF- )
C) IL-4, IL-10, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
D) IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13
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Chapter 37: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15720
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Aldosterone
C) Erythropoietin
D) Angiotensinogen
Q2) Which statement is true regarding urodilatin?
A) Urodilatin inhibits sodium chloride and water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
B) It inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to prevent water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
C) Urodilatin is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume.
D) It is stimulated by a fall in blood pressure and a decrease in extracellular volume.
Q3) On average,what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 30% to 35%
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15721
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding renal colic? (Select all that apply.)
A) Renal colic results in mild-to-moderate pain.
B) Pain originates in the flank area.
C) Renal colic indicates the presence of renal stones.
D) Pain radiated to the groin.
E) Renal colic indicates obstruction of the renal pelvis or proximal ureter.
Q2) Which glomerular lesion is characterized by thickening of the glomerular capillary wall with immune deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG)and C3?
A) Proliferative
B) Membranous
C) Mesangial
D) Crescentic
Q3) Detrusor hyperreflexia develops from neurologic disorders that originate where?
A) Spinal cord between C2 and S1
B) Spinal cord between S2 and S4
C) Above the pontine micturition center
D) Below the cauda equina
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15722
Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptoms are considered part of the nephrotic syndrome in children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Proteinuria
B) Pyuria
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Edema
E) Hypoalbuminemia
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the narrow chemical safety margin that infants demonstrate? (Select all that apply.)
A) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the excretion of potassium.
C) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the reabsorption of bicarbonate.
D) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to aldosterone.
E) The safety margin begins to expand after 2 years of age.
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Chapter 40: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15723
Sample Questions
Q1) Delays gastric and small bowel emptying.
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q2) Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
A) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin K
D) Folic acid
Q3) The formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the by-products of lipid hydrolysis is accomplished by:
A) Micelles
B) Phospholipase
C) Chylomicrons
D) Colipase
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42
Chapter 41: Alterations of Digestive Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15724
Sample Questions
Q1) What stimulates the desire to eat?
A) Agouti-related protein (AgRP)
B) Alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (a-MSH)
C) Cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART)
D) Peptide YY (PYY)
Q2) Which statements are true regarding chronic gastritis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults.
B) It causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.
C) Chronic gastritis results in chronic inflammation and mucosal atrophy.
D) Mucosal atrophy is a common outcome of chronic gastritis.
E) Epithelial metaplasia is often observed with chronic gastritis.
Q3) What is the cause of reflux esophagitis?
A) Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) Congenital anomaly
D) Secretory response to gastroesophageal reflux
Q4) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15725
Sample Questions
Q1) Celiac sprue
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q2) Which foods should be eliminated from the diet for children who have gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Citrus fruits
B) Starchy vegetables
C) Cereal grains
D) Red meat
E) Dairy
Q3) Which disorder is characterized by damage to the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum and impaired secretion of secretin,cholecystokinin,and pancreatic enzymes?
A) Wilson disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
D) Galactosemia
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15726
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false about muscles?
A) Muscle comprises 50% of an adult's body weight and 40% of a child's body weight.
B) Muscle is 75% water, 20% protein, and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
C) Muscle contains 32% of all protein stores for energy and metabolism.
D) Muscles are encased in fascia.
Q2) In adults,hematopoiesis takes place in which bone marrow cavities? (Select all that apply.)
A) Skull
B) Shoulders
C) Sternum
D) Long bones
E) Pelvis
Q3) After puberty,the epiphyseal plate calcifies,and the epiphysis merges with the
A) Epiphyseal line
B) Epiphyseal plate
C) Metaphysis
D) Articular cartilage
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Chapter 44: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15727
Sample Questions
Q1) In osteoarthritis,what is the effect of the disruption of the pumping action of proteoglycans?
A) Pump malfunction stimulates the induction of nitric oxide synthase and nitric oxide, which degrades the cartilage.
B) Cartilage is damaged by proteolytic enzymes because they cannot be pumped out of the joint.
C) Cartilage becomes dry, brittle, and wears away because fluid cannot be pumped into the cartilage.
D) Cartilage takes in too much fluid and is unable to withstand the stresses of weight bearing.
Q2) What is the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis?
A) Bone deformity
B) Bone pain
C) Pathologic fracture
D) Muscle strain
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15728
Sample Questions
Q1) At birth,the diagnosis of cerebral palsy (CP)may be made based on what factor?
A) Brain trauma during birth
B) Prematurity
C) Major brain malformation
D) Genetic defect
Q2) What is the cause of osteochondrosis?
A) Imbalance between calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
B) Nutritional deficiency of calcium and phosphorus
C) Bacterial infection of the bone
D) Vascular impairment and trauma to bone
Q3) Which muscular dystrophy syndrome develops from an X-linked recessive mode of inheritance?
A) Duchenne
B) Facioscapulohumeral
C) Myotonic
D) Limb girdle
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Chapter 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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43 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15729
Sample Questions
Q1) Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular,demarcated,and salmon pink,measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter,and is usually located on the trunk?
A) Lichen planus
B) Pityriasis rosea
C) Psoriasis
D) Acne rosacea
Q2) The alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?
A) myc
B) TP53
C) src
D) Ras
Q3) Which medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Antibiotics
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Beta blockers
E) Lithium
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Chapter 47: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15730
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common contact source of tinea corporis?
A) Mites
B) Kittens
C) Ponies
D) Ticks
Q2) Rubeola is a highly contagious acute disease in children caused by which type of infection?
A) Bacterial
B) Fungal
C) Yeast
D) Viral
Q3) Which statements are true regarding Koplik spots? (Select all that apply.)
A) Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.
B) They appear as white spots.
C) The lesions are surrounded by a red ring.
D) The lesions of Koplik spots are large in size.
E) Koplik spots are primarily found on buccal mucosa.
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Chapter 48: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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33 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15731
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is best defined as a clinical syndrome involving a systemic response to infection,which is manifested by two or more of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria?
A) Bacteremia
B) Sepsis
C) Septicemia
D) Septic shock
Q2) Which feedback loop will further impair oxygen in all types of shock? (Select all that apply.)
A) Activation of the fibrinolytic cascade
B) Increased circulating volume
C) Hypermetabolic state
D) Lysosomal enzyme release
E) Activation of the clotting cascade
Q3) Daily evaporative water loss after a burn injury is approximately how many times the normal?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15732
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the primary goals for the treatment of shock?
A) Maximizing oxygen delivery and minimizing oxygen demand
B) Maintaining hydration and adequate urinary output
C) Supporting all facets to the cardiovascular system
D) Maintaining all vital signs within normal functioning ranges
Q2) Which behaviors in newborns would support the possibility of shock? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased heart rate variability
B) Temperature instability
C) Hyperalertness
D) Increased muscle tone
E) Hypoglycemia
Q3) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A) Cytokines are released after the damaged tissue.
B) Immature kidneys are unable to compensate for the electrical burn.
C) Cardiac output is reduced.
D) Myoglobin is released from damaged muscles.
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Page 51