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Digital Marketing introduces students to the strategies, tools, and best practices used to promote brands, products, and services through digital channels. The course covers fundamental concepts such as search engine optimization (SEO), social media marketing, email campaigns, pay-per-click (PPC) advertising, content marketing, web analytics, and mobile marketing. Students will learn how to design effective digital marketing plans, analyze performance metrics, leverage digital platforms for audience engagement, and adapt to emerging trends in the fast-evolving online landscape. Through case studies and practical projects, the course provides hands-on experience in applying digital marketing techniques to real-world business scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Management 13th Edition by Phil Kotler
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Q1) Marketing has been described being both an "art" and a "science." Discuss the differences and similarities between these two marketing thrusts.Provide your theoretical response and a "real-life" example where you have seen both processes work effectively at creating customer value and loyalty.
Answer: The student should demonstrate his or her understanding that the marketer must use data to understand customer needs and translate this understanding into properly designed products and services.They should also see the "art" side of human behavior,where the customer makes decisions based on emotions,such as the perceived benefits.
Q2) ________ are basic human requirements; ________ are the ways in which we satisfy those requirements,and they are shaped by our society.
A) Wants; needs
B) Demands; wants
C) Needs; wants
D) Needs; demands
E) Demands; needs
Answer: C
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Q1) Through its cutting-edge point-of-sale inventory management technology and highly efficient shipping practices,Wal-Mart is able to keep its inventory and logistics costs extremely low and to pass these cost savings on to consumers in the form of low prices.Wal-Mart's strategy is best described as ________.
A) focus
B) integrative growth
C) differentiation
D) market development
E) overall cost leadership
Answer: E
Q2) If you wanted to find out more about target markets and the organization's value proposition,which of the following types of plans would most likely contain information that might be useful to you in your quest
A) the marketing plan
B) the organizational plan
C) the strategic marketing plan
D) the tactical marketing plan
E) the marketing-mix plan
Answer: C
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Q1) The major responsibility for identifying significant marketplace changes falls to the ________.
A) U.S. Department of Labor
B) company's marketers
C) American Marketing Association
D) industry lobby groups found in Washington D.C.
E) marketing research industry
Answer: B
Q2) With the rapidly changing global picture,the firm must monitor six major forces.All of the following would be among those forces EXCEPT ________.
A) demographic
B) economic
C) social-cultural
D) natural
E) promotional
Answer: E
Q3) What four trends in technology should marketers monitor
Answer: The four trends are: (1)the pace of change,(2)the opportunities for innovation,(3)varying R&D budgets,and (4)increased regulation.
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Q1) Which of the following types of marketing research firms would best be described as being one that gathers consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee (e.g.,Nielsen Media Research)
A) Custom marketing research firms
B) Syndicated-service research firms
C) Specialty-line marketing research firms
D) General-line marketing research firms
E) Nonprofit marketing research firms
Q2) If you decided to interview members of your class with regard to issues relating to the university and college life,you would have selected the ________ as a means of sampling members of the total population.
A) simple random sample
B) stratified random sample
C) cluster (area) sample
D) convenience sample
E) quota sample
Q3) According to information presented in the text,what are the seven characteristics of good marketing research
Q4) What are the six steps in the marketing research process
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Q1) Describe the process of database marketing.
Q2) A profitable customer is a person,household,or company that over time yields a revenue stream that exceeds by an acceptable amount the company's cost stream of attracting,selling,and servicing the customer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Typically,________ gains the most benefit from introducing a frequency program.
A) the first company to introduce a frequency program in an industry
B) the fast follower, who is second to introduce a frequency program in an industry,
C) the industry sales leader
D) the niche player in the industry
E) the low-cost leader in the industry
Q4) What are the three ways that customer profitability can be assessed
Q5) Marketers from which of the following are most likely to use database marketing
A) An airline
B) A candy bar manufacturer
C) A grand piano maker
D) A toothpaste manufacturer
E) None of the above would use database marketing.
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Q1) At the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs (shown as a pyramid in the text)are ________ needs.
A) esteem
B) self-actualization
C) social
D) safety
E) physiological
Q2) Because of selective retention,we are likely to forget about the good points of competing products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Repeated exposures to information provide greater opportunity for processing and thus the potential for ________.
A) more profits
B) more sales
C) stronger associations
D) increased brand personality
E) more one-to-one relationships
Q4) Identify three types of risk consumers might perceive in the context of purchasing a car.
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Q1) Researchers have found that buyer-supplier relationships could be classified into eight different categories.What category would be appropriate for a relationship where,although bonded by a close,cooperative relationship,the seller adapts to meet the customer's needs without expecting much adaptation or change on the part of the customer in exchange
Q2) Business buyers are ultimately purchasing solutions to two problems: the organization's economic and strategic problem and ________.
A) their own personal need for individual achievement and reward
B) the community's continued health and well-being
C) the fulfillment of the company's social impact goals
D) to maximize overall firm performance
E) none of the above
Q3) The best way to generate leads among small businesses is for business suppliers to cold call them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The buying center is where consumers go to purchase their goods and services.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A ________ consists of two parts: a naked solution and discretionary options.
A) differentiated market offering
B) flexible market offering
C) rigid market offering
D) vertical market offering
E) horizontal market offering
Q2) In the ________ step of the market segmentation process,the marketer evaluates the segment using criteria such as market growth and market access.
A) need-based segmentation
B) segment identification
C) segment attractiveness
D) segment profitability
E) segment "acid test"
Q3) Psychographic segmentation schemes are the same across cultures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To be useful,market segments must rate favorably on five key criteria.What are those criteria
Q5) Identify the five decisional roles people can play in the buying decision.
Q6) Age and life cycle can be tricky variables with which to segment a market.Why
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Q1) Brand extensions can reduce the costs of introductory launch campaigns and make it easier to convince retailers to stock and promote a new product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a brand element has the characteristic of being memorable,the brand is credible and suggestive of its corresponding category.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first step in the brand valuation process is ________.
A) the brand strength assessment
B) quantification of the role of branding
C) calculation of the net present value of the earnings forecast
D) the division of markets in which the brand is sold into mutually exclusive customer segments
E) financial analysis of the company's earnings before interest and taxes
Q4) The most effective advertising strategy for an extension emphasizes the parent brand.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________,a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product.
A) an award winning promotional campaign
B) a customer-focused value proposition
C) a demand channel
D) everyday low pricing
E) strategic window of opportunity
Q2) Characterize the differences between style,fashion,and fad life cycles.
Q3) According to the illustrations describing the product life cycle,during which stage of the cycle is there a strong likelihood that negative profits will be the norm
A) Introduction
B) Growth
C) Maturity
D) Decline
E) Abandonment
Q4) Associations that make up points-of-difference are based exclusively on product features.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A preemptive defense is basically a strategic retreat until resources can be assembled for a more advantageous attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A market challenger must decide who to attack.All of the following are considered as likely possible targets (as per information found in the text)EXCEPT ________.
A) the market leader
B) firms its own size that are not doing the job
C) firms its own size that are underfinanced
D) a global conglomerate that is market hungry
E) small local firms
Q3) A competitor's share of industry sales is known as the firm's ________.
A) share of market
B) share of mind
C) share of heart
D) share of competitive space
E) share of psychological field
Q4) What differentiates a "good" competitor from a "bad" one
Q5) How should a company deal with customers who are neither vulnerable nor valuable
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Q1) Explain the concept of line stretching and the three uses for it.
Q2) How do the four product-mix dimensions (width,length,depth,and consistency)affect a firm's product and corporate strategies
Q3) Sellers must label their products.Labels serve many purposes beyond just "naming" the product.List the additional services provided by a product's label.
Q4) Marketers must see themselves as benefit providers.For example,when a shopper purchases new shoes,he/she expects the shoes to cover his/her feet and allow them to walk unobstructed.This is an example of what level in the consumer-value hierarchy
A) Pure tangible good
B) Basic product
C) Augmented product
D) Potential product
E) Consumption system
Q5) A product system is a group of diverse but related items that function in a compatible manner and includes the product mix and product assortment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Bill always takes his shoes to the same cobbler when they need to be resoled because that cobbler always has the shoes ready quickly.This cobbler excels at which of the following five determinants of service quality
A) Reliability
B) Responsiveness
C) Assurance
D) Empathy
E) Tangibles
Q2) The quality of services is independent of who provides them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because service encounters are complex interactions affected by multiple elements,adopting a holistic marketing approach might not work effectively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intangibility with regards to a service means that the service cannot be duplicated across providers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Consumers often rank brands according to price tiers in a category.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ consist of the sum of the fixed and variable costs for any given level of production.
A) Total costs
B) Manufacturing costs
C) Delivery costs
D) Fixed costs
E) Variable costs
Q3) A company's costs take two forms.________ are costs that do not vary with production or sales revenue.
A) Fixed costs
B) Variable costs
C) Adjusted costs
D) Attributed costs
E) Unknown costs
Q4) Identify and discuss the six steps of the pricing procedure.
Q5) How can the Internet impact consumer price sensitivity
Q6) Explain the difference between everyday low pricing (EDLP)and high-low pricing.
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Q1) Shoppers who primarily seek stores that suit people like themselves or members of groups they aspire to join are known as ________.
A) price/value customers
B) affinity customers
C) service/quality customers
D) variety-loving shoppers
E) high-value deal seekers
Q2) Designing a marketing channel system involves analyzing customer needs,________,identifying major channel alternatives,and evaluating major channel alternatives.
A) establishing channel partners
B) establishing channel costs
C) establishing channel members
D) establishing channel budgets
E) establishing channel objectives
Q3) A horizontal marketing system brings two related firms together to marshal the resources or programs necessary to provide an emerging marketing opportunity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Retailers develop their own "store brands" to differentiate themselves from other retailers and the national branded merchandise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The retailer must decide on product-assortment breadth and ________.
A) store location
B) layout
C) prices
D) selection
E) depth
Q3) If the shipper owns its own truck or air fleet,it becomes a ________.
A) containerized carrier
B) private carrier
C) contract carrier
D) common carrier
E) diversified carrier
Q4) Inventory costs increases at a decreasing rate as customer-service levels approach 100% fulfillment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Why do companies use sales promotion tools,and what three distinctive benefits do these tools offer
Q2) A well-chosen celebrity can draw attention to a product or brand but also poses certain risks.Identify three of those risks.
Q3) The objective-and-task method of promotions budgeting calls upon marketers to develop promotion budgets by defining specific objectives,determining the tasks that must be performed to achieve these objectives,and estimating the costs of performing these tasks.What is the major advantage of using this method
Q4) Promotional offers in the form of coupons or two-for-one deals encourage consumers to make a mental commitment to buy a product,particularly if the consumer does not have an expressed category need.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Integrated marketing communications is a concept of marketing communications planning that recognizes the added value of a comprehensive plan.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Relate the concept of marginal profit to the communications budgeting decision.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the PR department
A) Press relations
B) Product publicity
C) Corporate communications
D) Counseling
E) All of the above are functions performed by the PR department.
Q2) In designing and evaluating an ad campaign,it is important to distinguish the message strategy or positioning of an ad from it creative strategy.To develop a message strategy,advertisers go through three steps.List and explain these three steps.
Q3) Manufacturers use a number of trade promotion tools.Give four reasons why manufacturers award money to the trade.
Q4) A decade ago,the advertising-to-sales-promotion ratio was about 60:40.Today,in many consumer-packaged-goods companies,sales promotion accounts for 75% of the combined budget.Several factors contribute to this rapid growth.List and explain these factors.
Q5) Developing successful sponsored events involves a number of decisions.What are the three decisions that must be made to utilize sponsorships effectively
Q6) Explain how format elements of a print ad can impact the ad's impact.
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Q1) Interactive marketing offers many unique benefits to the direct marketer.Explain some of the benefits afforded to marketers using interactive marketing.
Q2) Some of the public and ethical issues in direct marketing include irritation,unfairness,deception and fraud,and ________.
A) invasion of privacy
B) smoothness of the commercials
C) phone calls at the dinner hour
D) prying on the less sophisticated
E) downright illegal activities
Q3) In which step is the salesperson "telling the story" of his product or service
A) Preapproach
B) Prospects
C) Presentation
D) Closing
E) Follow-up
Q4) The company's best prospects are customers who have never bought its products.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the five elements of an offer strategy
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Q1) In the past,creating physical prototypes was costly and time consuming,but computer-aided design and manufacturing programs have changed that.Today,firms can use ________ to design products on a computer,and then produce rough models of each.
A) computer-aided design
B) rapid prototyping
C) model making
D) perceived reality
E) none of the above
Q2) ________ exhibit replacement cycles dictated by physical wear or obsolescence associated with changing style,features,and performance.
A) Expensive products
B) Inexpensive products
C) Commodity products
D) Frequently purchased products
E) Infrequently purchased products
Q3) You have been asked to participate in an idea-generating session at work.You and your group have been asked to list all the normal assumptions about desk chairs and then asked to reverse them.What creative technique area you using
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Q1) Once a company decides to target a particular country,it must determine the best mode of entry.Its broad choices are indirect exporting,direct exporting,licensing,joint ventures,and direct investment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The impact of country of origin is independent of the type of product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the choices available to companies when setting prices to avoid price escalation problems
Q4) A company can carry on direct exporting in several ways. A traveling export sales representative is ________.
A) a home-based sales representative that travels abroad to find business
B) a distributor or agent who holds limited or exclusive rights to represent the company in that country
C) a sales branch in the foreign country that handles sales and distribution there
D) a home-based department that manages exporting
E) none of the above
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Q1) ________ is the size of the average customer purchase from the company as a percentage of the size of the average customer purchase from an average company.
A) Overall market share
B) Customer penetration
C) Customer loyalty
D) Customer selectivity
E) Price selectivity
Q2) The actual success of the social marketing program should be evaluated in terms of the program objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common form of marketing organization consists of ________ reporting to a marketing vice president.
A) a sales staff
B) functional specialists
C) a departmental head
D) interns
E) none of the above
Q4) Discuss BAMT.
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