
Course Introduction

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Digital Advertising explores the strategies, tools, and platforms essential for effective promotion in the digital landscape. This course covers the principles of online advertising, including search engine marketing, display ads, social media campaigns, and influencer partnerships. Students will learn to create targeted campaigns, utilize analytics to measure performance, and apply best practices for audience engagement and brand building. Emphasis is placed on current industry trends, privacy considerations, and ethical challenges, equipping students with practical skills to plan, execute, and optimize digital advertising efforts in a rapidly evolving marketplace.
Recommended Textbook Kleppners Advertising Procedure 18th Edition by Ron Lane
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Q1) The ________, the organization formed as the successor to the War Advertising Council, has created such memorable characters as Smokey the Bear and McGruff the Crime Dog, and they did it pro bono!
Answer: Ad Council
Q2) Advertising executive Claude Hopkins started researching the market in the 1920s. His methods included:
A)radio appeal responses.
B)coupon responses.
C)subliminal advertising research.
D)lifestyle analysis.
E)behavioral research.
Answer: B
Q3) Despite various criticisms about modern advertising, consumers use it to:
A)learn what is relevant.
B)avoid cynicism and resentfulness.
C)seek information when making purchase decisions.
D)engage companies whose advertisements they see.
E)entertain themselves.
Answer: C
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Q1) The communication component in the marketing mix is divided into four primary categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A)personal selling
B)interactivity
C)sales promotion
D)public relations
E)advertising
Answer: B
Q2) The greater a product's value gap, the more insulated the product is from price competition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Another term for the social role of advertising is its ________ role.
A)behavioral
B)symbolic
C)public
D)inadvertent
E)consequential
Answer: B
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Q1) In the competitive stage, a pioneer of a newly accepted product usually:
A)faces diminishing growth in the product category.
B)has established an advantage of leadership that can give dominance in the market.
C)has not established the brand in the consumer's mind.
D)must cut back on advertising expenditures to remain competitive.
E)is a brand extension that may work.
Answer: B
Q2) According to the advertising spiral, products entering new pioneering stages are really in different stages in different markets. This differs from the typical product life-cycle models.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Called the ________ stage, according to the life-cycle model of advertising, it's when the necessity for a product is not recognized but needs to be established, or when the need is established but the success of the product in filling that need has to be established.
Answer: pioneering
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Q1) Product-user segmentation is a strategy based on the consumption patterns of a brand or category that allow marketers to use a targeted rather than shotgun approach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Characteristics that apply to 18-to 34-year-old men include:
A)were in front of their television sets more than other groups.
B)have relatively high disposable incomes.
C)have relatively high discretionary income.
D)have been courted more aggressively by businesses than women.
E)have formed brand loyalties.
Q3) Researchers of brand loyalty have found there are six such segments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to a Walt Disney executive, marketing to multicultural populations:
A)is a fad.
B)will become easier as populations converge.
C)is increasingly difficult as the population becomes even more diverse.
D)will simplify targeting.
E)is dangerous.
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Q1) Types of work for which an agency can negotiate a fixed fee include:
A)a finder's fee for the tip that a client was in need of a particular service.
B)account planning at an hourly fixed rate.
C)artwork charges based on the salary of the personnel involved.
D)advertising-recall scores.
E)a fixed commission plus expenses.
Q2) Your client's ad runs in an issue of Leisure Gourmet magazine and costs $10,000.
What is the standard agency commission for the placement?
A)$1,000
B)$1,500
C)$1,765
D)$8,500
E)$1,265
Q3) Doremus is an agency that specializes in:
A)health care.
B)multiculturalism.
C)real estate marketing.
D)corporate and financial marketing.
E)the Arab market.
Q4) Discuss the early role of computers in research for advertising.
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Q1) Today, retailers and other channel members control shelf space and receive most of the marketing dollars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What percentage of the money marketers spend is spent on digital experimentation?
A)30 to 40 percent
B)20 to 30 percent
C)15 to 25 percent
D)10 to 20 percent
E)5 to 10 percent
Q3) Among the approaches for advertising budgeting, the one that looks at advertising as an investment rather than as an expenditure is:
A)task method.
B)objective method.
C)payout plan.
D)competitive budgeting.
E)percentage of sale.
Q4) Discuss briefly the essential components of persuasion.
Q5) Discuss the notion of risk and its impact on advertising,
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Q1) It is realistic for advertisers to expect their media planner to find a medium that provides an audience in which every member is of equal benefit to them, that is, with zero waste circulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prospects in different sectors of the nation display different attitudes and opinions about various product categories.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the function and value of CPM in the new world of media.
Q4) Of the four primary elements that a media planner deals with to develop a final media plan, the one that focuses on the length of time that a campaign will run, is:
A)frequency.
B)coverage.
C)continuity.
D)distance.
E)range.
Q5) List and highlight the four primary elements in developing a final media plan.
Q6) List some fundamental characteristics of the media that affect planning.
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Q1) When it comes to advertising spending by types of television available, the category that receives the least advertising revenue in 2008 was:
A)syndicated TV.
B)cable networks.
C)local cable.
D)spot.
E)cable local spot.
Q2) The list of effects television programming has had on U.S. culture do NOT include:
A)creating fads, including hairstyles.
B)TV catchphrases becoming part of everyday language.
C)setting the political agenda.
D)advertising slogans entering the vocabulary.
E)having a positive impact on academic education.
Q3) A rating for a prime-time network program usually achieves between 6 and 16, with an average of less than 9.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are qualitative ratings, and how are they derived?
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Q1) If you wanted to have your advertising message be a clean, crisp experience with the least interference because of atmospheric conditions, you'd likely choose an AM station. A)True B)False
Q2) If your product category has broad appeal, to gain effective reach and frequency, you must buy several networks or radio stations.
A)True B)False
Q3) Fundamentals of buying radio are unique in comparison with a buy in other media. A)True B)False
Q4) One of the contributing factors to the rebirth of network radio is ________ technology.
Q5) The number of commercials on radio has always been less than that on television. A)True B)False
Q6) Called ________, it refers to the number of commercials and the amount of nonprogram content on radio.
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Q1) According to the Newspaper Association of American, about what percent of newspaper advertising revenues come from classified advertising?
A)44 percent
B)37 percent
C)30 percent
D)26 percent
E)20 percent
Q2) Newspapers have experienced dramatic increases in advertising rates and CPM caused by:
A)rising fixed costs.
B)increased union demands.
C)local government regulations.
D)federal government regulations.
E)deregulation of trucking.
Q3) The primary determinant in the survival and success of ethnic-oriented newspapers is ________, just as it is for mainstream media.
Q4) Newspapers use ________ to provide advertisers partial coverage of a market and do it typically by distributing weekly inserts to specific sections of that market.
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Q1) Research indicates larger advertisements deliver greater impact and recall over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The real challenges for magazine publishers going to the Web are to find ways to make their site profitable for themselves and their advertisers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A Web version of a magazine can increase loyalty among readers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The basic or open rate for a magazine ad is:
A)the point from which all rebates are taken.
B)derived by looking at the volume or frequency of insertions.
C)the one-time, full-page rate of publication.
D)the basis for the short sale.
E)the lowest rate available to high volume advertisers.
Q5) ________ for a magazine would be the number of times an individual or household is exposed to the magazine in a set time frame.
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Q1) Although traditional billboards are the primary source of out-of-home advertising revenues-accounting for 66 percent-categories include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)street furniture.
B)alternative outdoor.
C)transit.
D)stadiums.
E)gas pumps.
Q2) Which of the following aspects of outdoor advertising may make providing reliable audience research data so challenging?
A)the lack of understanding the importance of sophisticated research techniques
B)an audience that is at home
C)an audience that is on the move
D)the speed at which each board is viewed
E)the resonance the image has
Q3) Because of its ________ format, outdoor rarely is well suited to deliver a complete sales message.
Q4) Called a(n)________, it is the number of posters used in an individual buy for outdoor advertising.
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Q1) Advertising is usually used as one step in the process of building awareness and brand equity that could lead to a future sale, whereas direct response's main purpose is to:
A)make the customer fully aware of a service or product.
B)fit an appeal to the demographics of the prospect.
C)create an immediate sale.
D)fit an appeal to the psychographics of the prospect.
E)verify the contact information on the purchased list.
Q2) Research in direct mail began in the early 1920s when personal computers were introduced.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the natural, logical extension of long-form infomercials?
A)reality TV
B)Tupperware parties
C)discount clubs such as Costco
D)QVC network
E)lower ratings
Q4) Describe the challenges direct-mail advertisers face.
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Q1) Describe the major benefits retailers can derive from co-op advertising and other coop programs.
Q2) Which of the following items was NOT listed in a survey as a primary reason to use specialties?
A)to use in conjunction with trade shows
B)to skirt company policies prohibiting employees from accepting business gifts
C)to build goodwill and enhance company image
D)to create awareness for new products and services
E)to promote customer retention and appreciation
Q3) These computer-inserted brand messages that are not seen and don't even actually exist, for example, in a televised sports event, are the result of a technique called
Q4) Today, co-op is a major category of trade promotion as well as a means of overcoming significant rate premiums charged to national advertisers, particularly by newspapers and sometimes by other media.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the importance of event marketing and how it affects corporate brands and consumers.
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Q1) From sociology, advertisers have learned that people aspire to be like:
A)people in the social class below them.
B)people in the social class immediately above them.
C)people in their own social class.
D)people with whom they never will associate.
E)people in social classes outside their own country.
Q2) The behavioral science that examines the role of motivation, learning, and cognition in consumer behavior is ________.
Q3) Among the following, which is a category for commercial testing of unfinished commercials on film or videotape?
A)relematics
B)animatics
C)morphamatics
D)ripamatics
E)videomatics
Q4) Anthropologists have determined that specific activities and needs are common to people worldwide but each society attaches its own traditions and values to them.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to John Hegarty, the one word that defines great advertising is irreverence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All humans are born with which of the following desires and instincts?
A)need for self-preservation
B)need for drink
C)need for love
D)need for food
E)need to touch
Q3) If your copy leads with a psychological appeal to love, hate, or fear, you are using the:
A)factual approach.
B)emotional approach.
C)imaginative approach.
D)Bernbach approach.
E)psychosocial approach.
Q4) Called ________, it is a constraint that interferes with our assimilating the ever-growing and surplus numbers of messages directed at us.
Q5) Compare and contrast reductive and expansive messages.
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Q1) Design terminology is universal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to research cited by The Color Marketing Group, color increases brand recognition by up to:
A)50 percent.
B)65 percent.
C)80 percent.
D)90 percent.
E)95 percent.
Q3) In advertising, layout refers not only to the total design of an ad but also to the physical rendering of the design of the ad as a blueprint for production purposes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the importance of visualization in developing a creative idea for advertising.
Q5) What creative elements are needed to attract attention to an ad, and how can they be used?
Q6) Discuss George Lois' perspective on advertising.
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Q1) Blueline, Velox, overlay, and press are all types of color proofs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a major classification of type?
A)text
B)digital
C)Modern Roman
D)decorative
E)sans serif
Q3) One of the most crucial roles of the magazine production manager for an advertiser is:
A)managing closing dates.
B)basic mechanical production requirements.
C)determining digital ad specs.
D)achieving color reproduction that satisfies agencies and clients.
E)changing closing dates to accommodate advertisers.
Q4) As an advertiser dealing with a publication, you have full control over how ads are to be produced and presented.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) For a rapid succession of short or quick scenes, or to separate impressionistic shots when they are grouped together for a montage effect, you call for a wipe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The typical copy development and production timetable logically sequences the 14 steps involved in bringing an ad from creative to its ship date.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Advice that will keep you out of trouble if you decide to use the demonstration technique in a TV spot includes:
A)puffery is acceptable, so the product can be manipulated to make it look better than it normally does.
B)create the unexpected and delight the audience.
C)strive for an unbelievable benefit message.
D)the demonstration must correspond to actual usage.
E)always have an attractive or handsome actor.
Q4) Describe some of the so-called CGI wizardry that is used to make videos and commercials.
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Q1) The first step the advertiser or agency takes in the production process for a radio spot is to:
A)receive management approval for the script.
B)select appropriate music or sound effects.
C)appoint the producer whose job is to convert a script into a recording ready to air.
D)determine the strategic viewpoint.
E)select the talent.
Q2) If you expect a listener to stay tuned to your radio spot, according to copywriter Tom Monahan, the things that "must be good for the spot to be good" include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)casting.
B)pricing.
C)copy.
D)production.
E)concept.
Q3) What essential elements can advertisers draw upon to make radio an effective advertising medium?
Q4) Briefly discuss the role of humor in radio copywriting.
Q5) Describe the nature of radio, especially in comparison to other media.
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Q1) If you are a company with a recognized brand name, list the kinds of online brand abuses that you would need to monitor.
Q2) If you want to convey the feeling of elegance and sophistication for your product, you'd be wise to feature what color in your packaging?
A)white
B)black
C)yellow
D)red
E)green
Q3) Advertisers must use a trademark with a(n)________ classification so the trademark does not become the name of the product as has happened to companies that thought they owned the terms thermos, cornflakes, and linoleum.
Q4) Insurance companies, airlines, even weight-loss centers can protect their identification mark by registering it with the USPTO in Washington, D.C., as a ________ mark.
Q5) The product package must protect its contents and must be reasonably priced.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Burger King had used a key phrase for a successful campaign since the mid-1970s, but decided to drop it. It went with at least 16 other approaches until 2004, when it resumed its venerable ________ slogan.
Q2) Explain the role of posttesting in a campaign.
Q3) Your authors indicate that successful advertising and marketing begins with a good:
A)product or service.
B)situation analysis.
C)pinpointing of prospects.
D)knowledge of the competition.
E)plan of action.
Q4) Many marketing experts believe that advertisers should change their campaigns more often to keep things interesting.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is one voice, and how might you achieve it in a campaign?
Q6) Describe the various types of similarity and their importance in a campaign.
Q7) Every aspect of the integrated marketing communication must function to communicate with ________.
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Q1) It can be argued that the global business revolution of the last decade is fundamentally a:
A)fluke.
B)fad.
C)communication revolution.
D)success story for mercantilism.
E)none of the above
Q2) Essentially, the growth of communication technology, especially because of the Internet, has:
A)fueled rebellion in China.
B)eliminated the caste system in India.
C)helped spread democracy in the Middle East.
D)fueled the aspirations of people in the Third World for First World living standards.
E)helped make Venezuela more open to democracy.
Q3) One of the major management challenges for multinational corporations is developing a strategic plan for branding and advertising that can be easily adapted globally.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about the principle of caveat emptor?
A)literally means "let the buyer beware"
B)literally means "let the seller beware"
C)assumes perfect knowledge on the part of participants in the marketplace
D)assumes seller and buyer have equal information
E)It assumes that buyers and sellers will act rationally, making correct economic choices without government interference.
Q2) Prior to settlement of the Bates v. State of Arizona case, there was an absolute prohibition on advertising by attorneys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Robinson-Patman Act evolved from which of the following?
A)Federal Sherman Antitrust Act
B)Wheeler-Lea Amendment
C)Clayton Trust Act
D)Federal Trade Act
E)Slotting Fees Act
Q4) Describe cause-related or social marketing, its role in brand building, and the three tactical categories associated with it.
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