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Differentiated Instruction is a dynamic educational approach focused on tailoring teaching methods, learning activities, and assessments to meet the diverse needs, interests, and abilities of all students. This course examines various strategies for identifying individual learning profiles and designing lessons that accommodate varied readiness levels, learning styles, and backgrounds. Through theoretical foundations, practical applications, and case studies, students will explore how to implement flexible grouping, modify content, process, and product, and use ongoing assessment to inform instruction. Emphasis is placed on creating inclusive classroom environments where all learners can achieve their full potential.
Recommended Textbook
Exceptional Learners An Introduction to Special Education 12th Edition by Daniel P. Hallahan
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1039 Verified Questions
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64 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the relationship between litigation and legislation using the case of Hudson v. Rowley to illustrate the relationship.
Answer: Legislation involves making laws while litigation involves interpreting what the laws require in practice. In the case of Hudson v. Rowley, Amy Rowley's parents contended that an "appropriate public education" (as included under IDEA legislation)would allow her to achieve her maximum potential and that she could better do that if she were provided with a sign language interpreter in the classroom. In litigation, the court decided that the school had fulfilled its obligation to provide an appropriate education by designing an individualized program for Amy and that "appropriate" does not necessarily mean education that will produce maximum possible achievement.
Q2) Effective national parents' organizations have existed in the United States only since about 1950.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Discuss the effect of recent legislation on (a)early intervention and (b)transition.
Answer: Federal laws require that services be available to infants and toddlers who are identified as having disabilities and that an individualized family service plan (IFSP)be developed (similar to an IEP). Regulations stipulate that the family be involved in the development of the IFSP. Federal laws, including IDEA require that transition plans be included within older students' IEPs. The legislation recognizes that transition involves more than just employment. Such legislation has led to improved services, sometimes first-ever services, for a huge number of individuals, expanding the ages of people eligible to receive services from birth to age 21.
Q2) In collaborative consultation, the special education teacher
A)teaches students with disabilities in the regular classroom.
B)acts as an expert in providing advice to the regular education teacher.
C)shares daily decisions about programming with the regular education teacher equally.
D)pulls out students with disabilities for special instruction in a resource room.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standardized tests may be biased for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A)Most test items draw on specific experiences that students from some subcultures may not have had.
B)Language used may be unfamiliar to members of some subcultures.
C)Tests may be administered in ways that penalize students with impaired ability to answer in a standardized way.
D)Minority group members are inherently more likely to score lower on any achievement test.
Answer: D
Q2) Each of the following is a major component or element of culture EXCEPT A)skin color.
B)values and typical behavior.
C)nonverbal communication.
D)world views or general perspectives.
Answer: A
Q3) An individual can be a member of many subcultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive behavior and intervention supports should be applied during routines that families normally engage in. These routines are
A)family activity settings.
B)family intervention opportunities.
C)family routine supports.
D)family intervention settings.
Q2) In dealing with the feelings of a child with a disability, parents should
A)respond honestly to specific questions asked by the child.
B)assure the child that he or she is no different from others and their disability doesn't matter.
C)speak about their disability in general, rather than specific ways.
D)wait until the child is an adolescent so he or she will be better able to understand.
Q3) Parents generally go through a series of emotional reactions in a predictable and sequential fashion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the theory that the direction of causation between child and adult behavior is a two-way street.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers have found that such things as the ability to manage money, prepare meals, maintain a clean house, and keep one's clothing and self well groomed are key factors for
A)functional academics.
B)elementary programming.
C)supported employment.
D)community adjustment.
Q2) IQ is generally considered the single best index of how well a person will do in school. A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common know hereditary cause of intellectual disabilities is Fragile X syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Encephalitis results more often in intellectual disabilities than does meningitis. A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe three environmental causes of intellectual disabilities.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are features of Direct Instruction EXCEPT
A)fast-paced lessons.
B)emphasis on drill and practice.
C)student-centered lessons.
D)immediate corrective feedback.
Q2) Which is a more convincing method for determining whether learning disabilities are inherited: heritability studies or familiality studies? Why?
Q3) Individuals who have a cluster of disabilities in social interaction, math, visual-spatial tasks, and tactual tasks are referred to as having A)nonverbal learning disabilities.
B)motivational problems.
C)social cognition problems.
D)locus of control deficits.
Q4) The degree to which a certain condition, such as a learning disability, occurs in a single family is determined by A)heritability studies.
B)neuroimaging studies.
C)familiality studies.
D)retrospective studies.
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Q1) Diagnosis of young children with ADHD is particularly difficult because
A)there is no funding to do assessment in preschool.
B)the symptoms usually do not appear before a child is eight years of age.
C)preschool teachers have no training in identifying children with disabilities.
D)many preschoolers without ADHD exhibit a great deal of activity and impulsivity.
Q2) About one-third of individuals diagnosed with ADHD in childhood will continue to have significant symptoms into adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An appropriate method for monitoring academic progress is
A)momentary time sampling.
B)program monitoring
C)response-cost.
D)curriculum-based measurement.
Q4) All of the following are cautions concerning Ritalin EXCEPT
A)It should not be prescribed at the first sign of a behavioral problem.
B)The results for academic outcomes are unclear.
C)Proper dosage levels vary considerably.
D)It is an over-the-counter substance with little chance of abuse.
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Q1) A social-learning analysis attributes withdrawal and immaturity to A)inadequate environment.
B)internal conflicts.
C)unconscious motivations.
D)conscious motivations.
Q2) Discuss the controversy associated with the present federal definition of E/BD and list three advantages of the National Mental Health and Special Education Coalition definition.
Q3) A biologically determined behavioral style is a A)personality.
B)temperament.
C)learning style.
D)attitude.
Q4) What are the four factors thought to contribute to E/BD and what is the degree to which they are thought to be responsible for E/BD?
Q5) Teachers' informal identifications of students as having emotional or behavioral disorders are notoriously unreliable and invalid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Neurological research that involves the brain and head size of people with autism strongly suggests that for many
A)their brains are larger than average at birth.
B)their brains increase in size after about age five years.
C)their brains grow suddenly and excessively in the first two years of life.
D)their brains reach maximum size around age two or three years.
Q2) The natural inclination for most people to bring order and meaning to information in their environment by perceiving it as a meaningful whole rather than as disparate parts is
A)lateral coherence.
B)central coherence.
C)lateral adherence.
D)central synthesis.
Q3) Two critical areas of assessment for students with autism spectrum disorders are
A)progress in academic skills and functional skills.
B)progress in academic skills and social/adaptive behavior.
C)progress in language development and functional skills.
D)progress in language development and social/adaptive behavior.
Q4) Why has autism been "fertile ground for faddish and unproven treatment methods?"
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Q1) What should be considered when developing an assessment-based intervention plan for a student with communication disorders?
Q2) Which one of the following is an articulation disorder?
A)lisping
B)stuttering
C)aphasia
D)mutism
Q3) Which statement is true concerning the comparison between the language of a normally developing child and one with a language disorder?
A)The sequence of development is similar, but milestones are reached at later years by the child with a disorder.
B)The sequence of development is different, but milestones are reached at around the same ages.
C)The sequence of development is different, and milestones are reached later by the child with a disorder.
D)There is no developmental difference; they just sound different.
Q4) Explain why communication does not require speech.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total communication approach utilizes
A)Braille and manual communication.
B)sign language and a typewriter.
C)a telephone and a computer.
D)oral and manual communication.
Q2) The "speech reception threshold" is best defined as the A)dB level at which one can understand speech.
B)intensity and frequency of spoken English.
C)Hz level at which the average person can detect sound.
D)level at which the human ear can discriminate between similar sounds.
Q3) From an educational perspective, deafness is defined as a hearing loss of more than 90 dB in either ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process of hearing within the context of the anatomy and physiology of the ear.
Q5) A mutation in the connexin-26 gene is the most common cause of congenital deafness.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Itinerant teacher services to a general education classroom is the most popular placement for students with visual impairments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blindness occurs most often in A)adulthood.
B)adolescence.
C)early childhood.
D)preadolescence.
Q3) The condition that results when the cornea or lens of the eye is irregular resulting in blurred vision is known as A)myopia.
B)hyperopia.
C)astigmatism.
D)glaucoma.
Q4) Most people with visual impairment use braille as their primary method of reading. A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements about the outcomes for individuals with deaf-blindness is true EXCEPT
A)All interactions with adults and the environment should be viewed as learning opportunities.
B)The quality and intensity of instruction the person receives is critical
C)The more severe the impairments, the greater the impact on a person's ability to adapt.
D)Additional disabilities do not tend to increase the impact on a person's ability to adapt.
Q2) Write a case description of an individual with traumatic brain injury (TBI)that illustrates (by example)four possible effects of TBI.
Q3) Possible effects of TBI include each of the following EXCEPT
A)problems learning new information.
B)difficulty processing information.
C)sudden improvement in memory.
D)becoming easily tired.
Q4) The best place to teach domestic skills is not always the student's home.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Harris has a congenital midline defect resulting from failure of the bony spinal column to close completely during fetal development. His condition is known as A)cleft lip.
B)spinal meningitis.
C)spina bifida.
D)cleft palate.
Q2) Cerebral palsy is a condition that occurs
A)during the birth process.
B)before birth.
C)after birth.
D)before brain maturity.
Q3) Abrupt, involuntary movements and difficulty in maintaining balance is known as A)spastic movements.
B)atonic movements.
C)choreoathetoid movements.
D)atonic spasticity.
Q4) Although cerebral palsy is not contagious, it is progressive. A)True
B)False

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Q5) Describe the procedures to be followed when a child has a seizure.
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Q1) According to the text, typical points of disagreement regarding the definition of giftedness include all of the following EXCEPT
A)the domains in which gifted children excel.
B)how giftedness is measured.
C)the degree to which a child excels that is necessary to be considered gifted.
D)the age at which giftedness can be identified.
Q2) All of the following are principles of identification that help ensure fairness EXCEPT A)assessments that go beyond a narrow conception of talent.
B)reliable and valid instruments.
C)multiple measures/criteria approach.
D)appreciation of large group studies and focus on a combination of scores.
Q3) In adulthood, people with gifts are prone to emotional instability and early decline. A)True B)False
Q4) Describe three strategies that could be used to promote identification of equal proportions of all ethnic groups as having special gifts or talents.
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