Dietetics
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Dietetics is the scientific study of food, nutrition, and their impact on human health and disease prevention. This course explores the principles of healthy eating, nutrient metabolism, and dietary planning across the lifespan. Students will learn to assess nutritional needs, develop balanced meal plans, and address specific dietary requirements for various populations. The course also covers the role of dietitians in clinical, community, and food service settings, emphasizing ethical practice and evidence-based approaches to promote overall well-being and manage dietary-related health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between a health claim and a structure-function claim on a food label.
Answer: Health claims describe the relationship of a food or food component to a disease or health-related condition. In some cases, the FDA authorizes health claims based on an extensive review of the scientific literature. Structure-function claims describe the effect that a substance has on the structure or function of the body but do not make reference to a disease-for example, "calcium builds strong bones." Unlike health claims, which require food manufacturers to collect scientific evidence and petition the FDA, structure-function claims can be made without any FDA approval.
Q2) The six diet planning principles include _____.
A) adequacy, B vitamins, carbohydrates, meat, variety, and portion control
B) abundance, balance, carbohydrates, moderation, vegetables, and variety
C) adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, moderation, variety, and nutrient density
D) abundance, B vitamins, kcalorie control, milk, vegetables, and nutrient density
E) adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, moderation, variety, and protein
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle sweetener in cakes and cookies is _____.
A) fructose
B) galactose
C) maltose
D) sucrose
E) starch
Answer: D
Q2) Experts agree that moderate amounts of sugar in the diet may pose a number of major health risks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Sucrose is never referred to as _____.
A) white sugar
B) milk sugar
C) table sugar
D) cane sugar
E) beet sugar
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food contains cholesterol?
A) corn
B) fruit
C) peanut butter
D) milk
E) bran
Answer: D
Q2) Trans-fatty acids are found in the greatest amounts in ____.
A) animal foods
B) plant foods
C) foods made with partially hydrogenated oils
D) the essential fatty acids
E) artificially sweetened beverages
Answer: C
Q3) Not all fatty acids have the same cholesterol-raising effect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are composed of chains of ____.
A) monosaccharides
B) fatty acids
C) ketones
D) amino acids
E) glucose molecules
Q2) Marasmus may best be described as a nutritional deficiency disease caused by ____.
A) a chronic, severe deprivation of food
B) excess energy intake
C) a chronic, severe deprivation of protein
D) a deficiency of protein and vitamins
E) a chronic, severe deprivation of enzymes
Q3) The dramatically different shapes of proteins enable them to perform different tasks in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
Q5) What are some health advantages of a vegetarian diet?
Q6) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Involuntary muscle contractions move food through the intestinal tract. The movement that forces the contents back a few inches before pushing it forward again is called ____.
A) segmentation
B) rotation
C) peristalsis
D) liquefaction
E) digestion
Q2) Which recommendation is appropriate for preventing foodborne illnesses?
A) Fresh produce should be washed before it is eaten.
B) Only new sponges and towels should be used in the kitchen.
C) Leftovers can safely be covered and left at room temperature until the next meal.
D) Meats should be marinated at room temperature.
E) Vegetables should be cooked and never eaten raw.
Q3) Describe the difference between low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoproteins (HDL). What is the relationship between blood levels of these lipoproteins and risk of heart disease?
Q4) Describe the role of the stomach in the process of digestion.
Q5) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the first few days of fasting, body protein is used primarily to _____.
A) rebuild tissue
B) replace worn out cells
C) provide glucose
D) stabilize fluid balance
E) provide glycerol
Q2) Normally, the nervous system consumes less than 50% of the total glucose used each day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Within a day of beginning a fast, most of the body's stores of _____ are depleted.
A) glycogen
B) amino acids
C) fatty acids
D) glycerol
E) adipose tissue
Q4) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
Q5) Discuss the characteristics of the female athlete triad?
Q6) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best form of physical activity for a person who is trying to lose weight is _____.
A) running 5 miles at least 3 times a week
B) walking 2 miles in 30 minutes
C) a daily workout at the gym
D) something he or she enjoys and will do regularly
E) cycling 10 miles every morning
Q2) The long-term safety and effectiveness of gastric surgery largely depends on _____.
A) compliance with dietary instructions
B) avoidance of all fats
C) following recommended food combining patterns
D) regular monitoring of blood glucose levels
E) a baseline physical activity schedule of at least 30 minutes per day
Q3) The Dukan Diet _____ daily exercise and provides a(n) _____ structured plan
A) encourages; individually
B) discourages; loosely
C) encourages; loosely
D) discourages; highly
E) encourages; highly
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of a vitamin absorbed and used by the body is called _____.
A) vitamin efficiency
B) bioavailability
C) fortification
D) vitamin equivalency
E) vitamin intake
Q2) The best food sources for the water-soluble vitamins are ______.
A) butter and vegetable oils
B) oranges and cereals
C) sugar and cornstarch
D) egg yolks and apples
E) fish and seaweed
Q3) The active form of vitamin A that functions in vision is _____.
A) opsin
B) retinol
C) retinal
D) retinoic acid
E) tryptophan
Q4) Identify groups of people who are at risk for vitamin E deficiency, in addition to those with diseases.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low potassium and high sodium intakes can _____.
A) contribute to weight loss
B) block reabsorption of water
C) raise blood pressure
D) raise blood sugar
E) inhibit energy metabolism
Q2) Why is selenium important in the body and why might it be used to treat cancer?
Q3) Osteoporosis is more prevalent in women because _____.
A) women consume more calcium
B) women's bodies don't utilize calcium as readily
C) women have larger bodies
D) women have lower bone mass
E) bone loss begins later in women versus men
Q4) Iron is a component of the protein _____, which functions to _____.
A) myoglobin; protect against free radicals
B) transferrin; transport oxygen in the blood
C) hemosiderin; help blood clotting
D) hemoglobin; transport oxygen in the bloodstream
E) hemostatin; excrete excess iron
Q5) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the desirable composition of a pregame meal and explain why certain categories of foods should be avoided.
Q2) Explain what a person has to do in terms of type, frequency, intensity, and duration of activity to meet the ACSM's guidelines for physical activity.
Q3) Aerobic exercise results in _____.
A) a weaker heart muscle
B) increased stroke volume
C) decreased stroke volume
D) less efficient breathing
E) increased blood pressure
Q4) A person's own _____ is usually a reliable indicator of the intensity of an activity.
A) perceived effort
B) heart rate
C) feelings of self-worth
D) positive attitude
E) competitiveness
Q5) Does lactate really cause muscle fatigue during intense exercise?
Q6) Describe some of the conditioning effects of cardiorespiratory training.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-carbohydrate diets during pregnancy _____.
A) help to prevent excess weight gain for the mother
B) may impair brain development in the fetus
C) may lead to pre-term labor
D) aid in preventing gestational diabetes
E) may boost brain development in the fetus
Q2) Which food is not provided by the WIC program?
A) milk
B) iron-fortified cereal
C) granola bars
D) eggs
E) dried beans
Q3) Jane does not eat many fruits and vegetables and she dislikes dairy products. To increase her folate and calcium intake, you would recommend that she consume plenty of _____.
A) yogurt
B) calcium-fortified orange juice
C) calcium-fortified cheese
D) enriched grains
E) calcium-fortified milk
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe characteristics of vegetables preferred by children.
Q2) A good age to introduce solid foods to infants is _____.
A) one to two weeks
B) two to three months
C) four to six months
D) one year
E) two years
Q3) Which food is most likely to cause anaphylactic shock?
A) peanuts
B) rice
C) oatmeal
D) bananas
E) barley
Q4) A leading cause of pediatric hypertension is _____.
A) a low intake of whole-grain foods
B) obesity
C) excessive sodium intake from soft drink consumption
D) type 1 diabetes
E) a high intake of fruits and vegetables
Q5) Discuss the role of genetics in obesity and diabetes development.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) One nutrient that is under-consumed by many elderly people is _____.
A) vitamin A
B) protein
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin C
E) triglycerides
Q2) The older adult's intake of fruits and vegetables may be limited because of _____.
A) decreased visual acuity
B) decreased muscle mass
C) adequate cooking facilities
D) chewing problems
E) decreased sense of smell
Q3) A food recovery program might involve _____.
A) taking leftover food from a local shelter to a fundraiser
B) planting berry bushes in an already harvested field
C) cutting the crust off bread and saving it
D) the delivery of day-old bread to a soup kitchen
E) collecting unused WIC vouchers
Q4) Describe the possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diet manuals are least likely to contain information about ____.
A) foods that are allowed
B) foods that not allowed
C) the principles of nutrition education
D) rationale and indications for the use of diets
E) sample menus for each diet
Q2) Transthyretin is also known as ____
A) prealbumin
B) retinol-binding protein
C) transferrin
D) albumin
E) hemoglobin
Q3) In order to minimize fecal volume, a patient may be placed on a ____ diet prior to surgery.
A) low fiber
B) fat-restricted
C) low sodium
D) high-kcalorie, high-protein
E) high-protein diet
Q4) Describe how prolonged bed rest may compromise nutrition status.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should Mr. Hare be counseled regarding his vitamin K intake?
Q2) The anticonvulsants phenobarbital and phenytoin increase levels of the liver enzymes that metabolize ____.
A) folate
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin B
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q3) People taking lithium are advised to maintain a consistent intake of _____ from day to day in order to maintain stable lithium blood levels.
A) calcium
B) zinc
C) sodium
D) alcohol
E) potassium
Q4) Naturopathic medicine is based on the theory that "like cures like."
A)True
B)False
Page 17
Q5) Discuss the ways in which drugs can affect food intake.
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who do not have _____ are candidates for home enteral nutrition.
A) dysphagia
B) gastroparesis
C) gastric outlet obstruction
D) pancreatic conditions that cause malabsorption
E) short bowel syndrome
Q2) To minimize the risk of aspiration of formula in tube-fed patients, the head of the patient's bed should be elevated _____.
A) after administering the feeding
B) during administration of the feeding
C) during and for 30 minutes after administration of the feeding
D) during and for 1 hour after administration of the feeding
E) during and for 2 hours after administration of the feeding
Q3) Candidates for PPN include patients who _____.
A) have fragile peripheral veins
B) have fluid restrictions
C) have high nutrient needs
D) require short-term nutrition support
E) are also candidates for TPN
Q4) Describe the current procedure for administering a TPN feeding.
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help delay stomach emptying and reduce diarrhea following a gastrectomy, foods high in _____ may be useful.
A) fat
B) insoluble fiber
C) protein
D) soluble fiber
E) simple sugars.
Q2) Current research suggests that periodontal disease may increase the risk of developing _____.
A) heart disease
B) renal failure
C) arthritis
D) dermatitis
E) dementia
Q3) A full-liquid diet is sometimes used as a transitional diet between the clear liquid diet and diets that contain solid foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Noel's Crohn's disease has most likely resulted in inflammation of her _____.
A) gallbladder
B) ileum and/or colon
C) duodenum and/or jejunum
D) pancreas
E) liver
Q2) Diverticulitis and ulcerative colitis are the two most prevalent inflammatory bowel diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Noel will need to monitored for _____, due to the increased risk that accompanies Crohn's disease.
A) diverticula
B) gluten sensitivity
C) gallbladder disease
D) obesity
E) intestinal cancer
Q4) A high-fiber diet increases stool weight and fecal water content.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which malabsorption disorder is caused by an intestinal infection?
A) celiac disease
B) Crohn's disease
C) radiation enteritis
D) cystic fibrosis
E) giardiasis
Q2) Celiac disease affects intestinal tissue and results in _____.
A) a significant reduction in mucosal surface area
B) ulceration, irritation, and bleeding
C) cessation of the production of digestive enzymes
D) bacterial overgrowth
E) cobblestone appearance of the intestinal mucosa
Q3) Which laboratory test can diagnosis lactose intolerance?
A) stool fat test
B) biopsy
C) hydrogen breath test
D) xylose absorption
E) endoscopy
Q4) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
Q5) What is the cause of cystic fibrosis?
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) hepatitis C
A)itchy skin associated with bile obstruction
B)primary plasma protein synthesized by the liver
C)neurological condition associated with advanced liver disease
D)virus transmitted sexually or via contaminated blood; a vaccine is available
E)immunosuppressant drug given after a liver transplant
F)composed of mucus, cholesterol crystals and bilirubin granules
G)procedure that removes fluid associated with ascites
H)increased levels associated with liver disease impair neurotransmitter production
I)carries blood to the liver from the digestive tract
J)virus spread via infected blood and needles; no vaccine is available
Q2) Cirrhosis patients frequently develop insulin resistance and consequently must follow a diet that _____.
A) maintains blood glucose control
B) is low in fiber
C) provides consistent vitamin K intake
D) is low in sodium
E) is low in protein
Q3) Describe the possible causes of hepatic encephalopathy.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary defect in type 2 diabetes is autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mr. Joiner's blood glucose level meets the criteria for a diagnosis of _____.
A) type 1 diabetes
B) type 2 diabetes
C) prediabetes
D) ketoacidosis
E) hypoglycemia
Q3) Explain "sick-day management" for a patient with diabetes.
Q4) Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by all of the following except _____.
A) severe ketosis
B) blood glucose >250 mg/dL
C) acidosis
D) blood cholesterol >250 mg/dL
E) dehydration
Q5) The hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is a complication of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several hours after a myocardial infarction (MI), the patient's diet should consist of
A) foods restricted in sodium
B) increased portion sizes
C) more frequent meals
D) decreased carbohydrates
E) increased lipids
Q2) To reduce her risk of CHD, Mrs. Winslow's LDL should be _____ mg/dL.
A) <100
B) <130
C) >140
D) >120
E) <150
Q3) Which dietary factor raises triglyceride levels?
A) high saturated fat intake
B) low soluble fiber intake
C) high protein intake
D) low cholesterol intake
E) high sodium intake
Page 24
Q4) Explain the medical nutrition therapy for hypertriglyceridemia.
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A renal patient who shows an increase in weight gain and blood pressure is most likely _____.
A) retaining sodium and fluid
B) retaining calcium
C) experiencing salt wasting
D) retaining phosphorus
E) developing diabetes
Q2) hyperkalemia
A)the solution used in dialysis to draw wastes and fluids from the blood
B)abrupt decline in kidney function over a period of hours or days
C)blood in the urine
D)elevated serum potassium levels
E)elevated serum phosphate levels
F)elevated urinary oxalate levels
G)increased urine production
H)low serum potassium levels
I)elevated serum calcium levels
J)elevated urinary calcium levels
Q3) Which medications are used to prevent or treat calcium oxalate stones?
Q4) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for calcium oxalate stones.
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) Respiratory distress is characterized by _____.
A) C-reactive peptide action
B) elevated cortisol
C) decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide
D) histamine secretion
E) elevated blood pressure
Q2) Nutrition care for patients in acute respiratory failure is aimed at providing a low-fat, high-carbohydrate diet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a patient with MODS, mechanical ventilation is used to support the _____.
A) GI tract
B) heart
C) lungs
D) kidney
E) liver
Q4) Describe the causes of the four classic signs of inflammation.
Q5) Describe the medications used to treat COPD and the possible metabolic side effects.
Q6) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS. Page 26
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these side effects frequently accompany cancer therapies except _____.
A) altered taste perception
B) mouth sores
C) chronic blood loss
D) diarrhea
E) nausea
Q2) hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
A)the accumulation of fatty tissue at the base of the neck
B)the process of cancer development
C)a fungal infection of the mouth and throat
D)to spread from one part of the body to another E)substances that can cause cancer
F)a wasting syndrome, associated with cancer, that is characterized by anorexia, muscle wasting, weight loss, and fatigue
G)the use of drugs to arrest or destroy cancer cells
H)benign tumor composed of fatty tissue
I)a common virus that can cause blister-like lesions on the lips and in the mouth
J)transplantation of the stem cells that produce red and white blood cells
Q3) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?
Page 28
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