Dietetics and Nutrition
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dietetics and Nutrition is a comprehensive course that explores the scientific principles of human nutrition and their practical applications in promoting health and preventing disease. Students will examine the role of nutrients in the body, the relationship between diet and chronic conditions, and evidence-based strategies for planning balanced diets across different life stages. The course also delves into the social, cultural, and psychological aspects influencing eating habits, as well as the professional responsibilities of dietitians in clinical, community, and food service settings. Practical components may include dietary assessment, menu planning, and the analysis of current nutritional guidelines to prepare students for careers in the field of nutrition and dietetics.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition Therapy and Pathophysiology 3rd Edition by Marcia Nelms
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Role of the Dietitian in the Health Care System
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Q1) The AND's Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Performance requires that outcomes are measurable and evidence-based.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Medical doctors are commonly responsible for the initial nutrition screening of patients and for notifying the dietitian if a patient's intake is inadequate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Describe the dietitian's knowledge base as used in clinical practice.
Answer: The knowledge base is the dietitian's knowledge about nutrition and its role in health and disease. It includes information and theories related to communications, physical and biological sciences, research, food science, nutrition, management, informatics, and governance of dietetics practice.
Q4) Dietetics practice should not be based on tradition but on _______________ research.
Answer: evidence-based
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3
Chapter 2: The Nutrition Care Process
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Q1) Identifying Ms. S's current height and weight is an example from which domain of the nutrition assessment terminology?
A) Food and nutrition related history
B) Nutrition-focused physical findings
C) Anthropometric measurements
D) Medical tests and procedures
E) Client history
Answer: C
Q2) A nutrition diagnosis is written in terms of a client problem for which nutrition-related activities provide the primary intervention.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A form of charting based on the steps of the NCP, the ADIME stands for assessment, diagnosis, intervention, monitoring and _______________.
Answer: evaluation
Q4) Interventions are derived from accurate diagnoses and largely driven by
Answer: client involvement, patient involvement
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Chapter 3: Nutrition Assessment - Foundation of the Nutrition
Care Process
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Q1) During a 24-hour recall, the information is gathered _______________ from the client about food intake over the last day.
Answer: retrospectively
Q2) _______________ refers to the likelihood that an individual who does not have a particular condition or disease will be correctly excluded when administered a test designed to detect that condition or disease.
Answer: Specificity
Q3) The ability to obtain adequate food to maintain an active, healthy lifestyle is called
Answer: food security
Q4) Which condition is an example of chronic disease-related malnutrition?
A) closed head injury
B) anorexia nervosa
C) major infection
D) sarcopenic obesity
E) thermal burns
Answer: D
Q5) _______________ protein refers to skeletal muscle.
Answer: Somatic
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Chapter 4: Nutrition Intervention and Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
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Q1) A nutrition diagnosis includes an etiology of the problem and:
A) examples of the effects of the problem.
B) a reason for solving the problem.
C) a statement describing the problem.
D) a plan for changing the problem.
E) signs and symptoms describing the problem.
Q2) The first step in prevention or treatment of malnutrition is an adequate supply of
Q3) _______________ is a communication technique that lets clients know the counselor is listening and allows the client to clarify misunderstandings.
Q4) Which is an example of a closed-ended question?
A) "Are you taking your medication?"
B) "When did you start losing weight?"
C) "How often do you use nutrition supplements?"
D) "Who do you live with?"
E) "What types of food do you enjoy?"
Q5) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using commercially-prepared medical food supplements.
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Q6) "Nutrition problem no longer exists" would be recorded as "_______________."
Chapter 5: Enteral and Parental Nutrition Support
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Q1) Which is an example of a research-supported reason to use enteral nutrition support?
A) Decreased risk of respiratory infections
B) Improved wound healing
C) Increased tolerance of formulas
D) Complete nutritional coverage
E) Ease of administration
Q2) Which element is not added routinely to standard parenteral nutrition formulas?
A) selenium
B) zinc
C) iron
D) chromium
E) copper
Q3) Enteral formulas are often the sole source of water for patients receiving them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Benefits attributed to fiber, particularly improved bowel function, have more often been associated with insoluble fiber.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Documentation of the Nutrition Care Process
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Q1) One of the most important goals of documentation in the medical record is:
A) to be clear and concise.
B) to follow ADA format.
C) to develop a new method of charting.
D) to use medical abbreviations.
E) to demonstrate knowledge of medicine and dietetics.
Q2) The data in the EMR is the legal record of what happened to the patient during his or her encounter with the care delivery organization and is owned by the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "P" in PIE notes stands for:
A) procedure.
B) plan.
C) policy.
D) problem
E) patient.
Q4) Describe the importance of developing a personal medical notebook and note its use, advantages, and disadvantages.
Q5) A set of readers to whom the text is directed is known as the _______________.
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Chapter 7: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Q1) Ions with a positive charge are referred to as:
A) electrolytes
B) cations
C) anions
D) molecules
E) particles
Q2) Hypophosphatemia can result from vitamin _______________ deficiency.
Q3) What route of fluid loss is the most variable and will accommodate changes in dietary fluid intake?
A) feces
B) respiration
C) urine
D) perspiration
E) metabolism
Q4) Total urine output is the sum of obligatory urine and facultative urine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mechanism of thirst is regulated in the _______________.
Q6) Explain the role of arginine vasopressin in fluid balance.
Q7) Describe the thirst mechanism.
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Chapter 8: Acid Base Balance
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Q1) _______________ is the actual decrease in pH within the body to <7.35.
Q2) Explain Kussmaul breathing.
Q3) _______________ is the ion that moves in the opposite direction of HCO3-.
Q4) _______________ present in the plasma can act as buffers; their contribution is most important intracellularly.
Q5) Discuss the effect of acid and base shifts on electrolyte balance.
Q6) Nonvolatile or _______________ acids are produced as end products of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism.
Q7) The term hypercapnia indicates that there is ____.
A) too much calcium in the blood
B) a lack of the blood gas carbon dioxide
C) a lack of the blood gas oxygen
D) an excess of the blood gas carbon dioxide
E) an excess of the blood gas oxygen
Q8) What does the hemoglobin buffer system primarily buffer against?
A) uric acid changes
B) kidney phosphate changes
C) carbonic acid changes
D) blood oxygen changes
E) excess red blood cell production
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Cellular and Physiological Response to Injury -
the Role of the Immune
System
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Q1) Protein-energy malnutrition in infancy and early childhood has adverse effects on the _______________.
Q2) Sensitization is the production of IgE antibodies after exposure to an allergen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The clinical course or _______________ includes impact and duration of the disease.
Q4) Describe the signs and symptoms of inflammation.
Q5) What organ is responsible for destruction of old RBCs and is a major site for the initiation of the immune response?
A) spleen
B) liver
C) bone marrow
D) tonsils
E) thymus
Q6) List the different classes of interferons.
Page 11
Q7) Initially, _______________ were called lymphokines because the first ones discovered were produced by lymphocytes.
Q8) Describe active immunization.
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Chapter 10: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) was identified as the blueprint of life in
Q2) DNA contains non-coding regulatory sequences called _______________ to which molecules can bind in order to signal unwinding of a specific region of DNA for creation of a needed protein.
Q3) _______________ is a technology used to measure expression of thousands of genes simultaneously.
Q4) What gene mutation is responsible for familial hypercholesterolemia?
A) cholesterol generating gene
B) fatty acid assimilating gene
C) HDL-receptor gene
D) VLDL-receptor gene
E) LDL-receptor gene
Q5) There are predicted to be a few hundred _______________ genes in humans.
Q6) Discuss the regulation of gene expression.
Q7) The recommendation of one diet intervention in response to one polymorphism is likely to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Discuss the link between genetics and obesity.
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Chapter 11: Pharmacology
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Q1) Explain what DASH stands for and what it is used for.
Q2) Amitriptyline, a common antidepressant, may cause a decrease in _______________ production.
Q3) What class of meds results in decreased absorption of calcium as well as increased urinary loss of calcium -- creating high risk for bone fracture and osteoporosis?
A) corticosteroids
B) NSAIDs
C) cyclosporins
D) statins
E) H2 blockers
Q4) When an individual takes nitroglycerin for angina, it is usually administerd via the sublingual route.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The top selling dietary product in the Natural and Health Food Market is _______________.
Q6) Give an example of the effect of drugs on nutrient metabolism.
Q7) Many medications are bound to a protein carrier called _______________.
Q8) Give an example of a negative drug-nutrient interaction involving MAOIs.
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Chapter 12: Diseases and Disorders of Energy Imbalance
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Q1) If CP's BMI were above 50, she would most likely be a candidate for which type of bariatric surgery?
A) adjustable gastric banding
B) non-adjustable gastric banding
C) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
D) vertical sleeve gastrectomy
E) duodenal switch with biliopancreatic diversion
Q2) The most common type of bariatric surgery performed in the United States is:
A) laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding.
B) open adjustable gastric banding.
C) laparoscopic vertical sleeve gastrectomy.
D) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.
E) the duodenal switch with biliopancreatic diversion.
Q3) Of the four bariatric procedures, _______________is the most complicated and the least frequently performed, but also results in the greatest amount of weight loss.
Q4) A(n) _______________ is a nation that is generally regarded as one with a high standard of living, a high per capita income, and a well-developed infrastructure.
Q5) Describe the basic formula for calculating BMI in adults.
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Chapter 13: Diseases of the Cardiovascular System
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Q1) A dietitian is educating a client about how to prevent infection after a heart transplant. Which foods would the dietitian counsel the client to avoid?
A) pasteurized milk
B) homemade eggnog
C) canned fish
D) cooked sprouts
E) hard cheese
Q2) The repeating contraction and relaxation of the heart is termed the:
A) ejection fraction.
B) end diastolic volume.
C) stroke volume.
D) cardiac output.
E) cardiac cycle.
Q3) Describe the "5 A's" of nutrition counseling for hypertension, including examples of interventions from the dietitian.
Q4) A(n) _______________ is a medical procedure used for heart failure that mechanically pumps blood from the left side of the heart to the rest of the body.
Q5) Describe the formula used for calculating blood flow and vessel resistance.
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Chapter 14: Diseases of the Upper Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Food storage occurs primarily in which part of the stomach?
A) corpus
B) antrum
C) fundus
D) pyloric canal
E) cardia
Q2) Which complication is most likely associated with Barrett's esophagus?
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) esophageal cancer
C) diverticulitis
D) pyloric stenosis
E) atrophic gastritis
Q3) List the seven functions of saliva in the oral cavity.
Q4) Most medications are absorbed in the _______________.
Q5) Describe clinical manifestations of GERD.
Q6) Major innervation for the enteric nervous system is supplied by parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers of the autonomic nervous system. Parasympathetic impulses are carried by the _______________.
Q7) Discuss nutrition therapy used for jaw fracture; include examples of recommended foods.
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Lower Gastrointenstinal Tract
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Q1) Approximately 95% of patients with ulcerative colitis have disease only involving the rectum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _______________ is the primary site for reabsorption of bile acids.
Q3) Which sphincter or valve protects the small intestine from bacteria translocation from the large intestine?
A) pyloric sphincter
B) ileocecal valve
C) sphincter of Oddi
D) lower esophageal sphincter
E) internal anal sphincter
Q4) A dietitian is counseling a client with irritable bowel syndrome about how best to avoid gas-producing foods. Which food would the dietitian most likely suggest that the client avoid?
A) beets
B) artichokes
C) mushrooms
D) okra
E) green peas
18
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Liver - Gallbladder - and Exocrine Pancreas
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Q1) Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through which route?
A) exposure to blood or body fluids from an infected person
B) the fecal-oral route
C) excessive alcohol intake
D) contaminated drinking water
E) sewage
Q2) Nutrition interventions for a client with alcoholic hepatitis include a diet that is:
A) low in carbohydrates.
B) high in saturated fat.
C) low in artificial sugars.
D) low in protein.
E) high in carbohydrates.
Q3) A patient's eligibility to be placed on the waiting list for a liver transplant is determined based on the _______________ scoring system.
Q4) The most deleterious complication of cystic fibrosis with cirrhosis is
Q5) Explain why malnutrition is prominent in the patient with alcoholism or alcoholic hepatitis.
19
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Endocrine System
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Q1) The varieties of insulin available are made by genetically modifying the _______________ sequence so that there are varying pharmacokinetics.
Q2) Insulin is a catabolic hormone that controls the metabolic fate of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pituitary tumors are the most common cause of hypopituitarism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many ways are there to diagnose diabetes?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
E) 1
Q5) Intensive insulin therapy requires multiple _______________ injections of rapid-acting insulin.
Q6) Discuss nephropathy in regards to diabetes.
Q7) Discuss pituitary tumors.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Renal System
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Q1) Which of the following is likely true about KL's situation?
A) He goes to a dialysis center 3x per week.
B) His caloric intake needs to be adjusted to account for calories in dialysate.
C) He will have to wait 6 weeks for the fistula to mature.
D) His prostate infection needs antibiotic therapy.
E) He is not a candidate for a kidney transplant.
Q2) What is a measure of both visceral protein status and acute-phase inflammatory response?
A) plasma protein
B) serum albumin
C) blood sugar levels
D) percentage of hematocrit
E) blood creatinine levels
Q3) What vegetables are low in potassium?
A) beans, artichokes, beets
B) squash, broccoli, Brussels sprouts
C) cucumbers, celery, onions
D) carrots, lentils, parsnips
E) potatoes, pumpkin, legumes
Q4) Describe the use of immunosuppressants for kidney transplants.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Hematological System
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Q1) Chronic toxicity from iron overload leads to functional _______________, hepatomegaly, and eventually cirrhosis.
Q2) What is the most common cause of a nutritional anemia?
A) protein deficiency
B) vitamin E toxicity
C) lead toxicity
D) iron deficiency
E) thiamin deficiency
Q3) What is the upper intake level of iron, established for the United States?
A) 15 mg/day
B) 25 mg/day
C) 35 mg/day
D) 45 mg/day
E) 55 mg/day
Q4) What is the iron rich compound found in breast milk?
A) lactoferrin
B) ferrous glycinate
C) ferric glycinate
D) phytase
E) ferrous fumarate
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Diseases and Disorders of the Neurological System
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Q1) What is the best means of determining KL's caloric needs while in the hospital?
A) Mifflin-St Jeor equation
B) Harris-Benedict equation
C) WHO standards
D) indirect calorimetry
E) Glasgow coma scale
Q2) Define the term stroke.
Q3) Although the exact cause of Parkinson's disease is unclear, it results in the loss of serotonin-producing cells in the thalamus portion of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What drug for epilepsy inhibits both vitamin D and folate metabolism?
A) valproate
B) carbamazepine
C) gabapentin
D) phenytoin
E) topiramate
Q5) Discuss the prevention of stroke and acute care following stroke.
Q6) Explain the clinical manifestations of ALS.
Q7) Distinguish between complete and partial spinal cord injuries. Page 23
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) What type of alveolar epithelium produces surfactant?
A) type I cells
B) type II cells
C) type III cells
D) goblet cells
E) acinar cells
Q2) How long after surgery can most lung transplant patients begin to eat solid food?
A) 12 hours
B) 1-2 days
C) 3-5 days
D) 1 week
E) 2 weeks
Q3) An upper respiratory infection is commonly known as the _______________.
Q4) What are leukotrienes and how are they involved in asthma.
Q5) Discuss the pathophysiology of lung transplantation and organ rejection.
Q6) Inflammation is the primary problem in asthma and is thought to be _______________ mediated.
Q7) Individuals with bronchitis frequently have a _______________ BMI.
Q8) Discuss the etiology of COPD in relation to cigarette smoking.
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Chapter 22: Metabolic Stress and the Critically Ill
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Q1) The increased rate of gluconeogenesis during the stress response creates reliance on protein as a source of _______________.
Q2) What vitamins should be given to metabolically stressed patients while recovering?
A) vitamins A and B6
B) vitamins B7 and C
C) vitamins C and E
D) vitamins D and E
E) vitamins D and K
Q3) What happens to the basal metabolic rate during starvation?
A) no change
B) increases C) reduces D) wildly fluctuates
E) unpredictable
Q4) _______________ burns destroy all layers of the skin and can involve underlying muscle, organs, and bone.
Q5) General anesthesia may result in a post-operative _______________.
Q6) Explain what methods are used to feed the critically ill and when weaning can occur.
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Chapter 23: Neoplastic Disease
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Q1) African-American women have a 10% _______________ incidence rate than white females for all cancers combined.
Q2) Cancer of the lung and bronchus remains the number one killer in both men and women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Studies suggest that _______________ nutrition may be beneficial when used perioperatively in severely malnourished patients.
Q4) What is the primary tumor marker for ovarian cancer that's found in the blood?
A) CEA
B) HE4
C) PSA
D) AFP
E) CA15-3
Q5) List the primary signs and symptoms of cancer.
Q6) Cancer is a disorder of cell _______________ and regulation.
Q7) The most _______________ chemotherapeutic agents include cisplatin, methotrexate, doxorubicin, and cyclophosphamide.
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Q8) Describe the GI side effects of chemotherapy and how they can be managed.
Chapter 24: HIV and Aids
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Q1) What % body weight has NP lost?
A) 12.6%
B) 8.4%
C) 3.1%
D) 10.8%
E) 5.1%
Q2) What is the name for the medications that interrupt the viral replication cycle by inhibiting fusion of the HIV virus to the target cell?
A) retro meds
B) integrase strand transfer inhibitors
C) protease inhibitors
D) fusion inhibitors
E) entry inhibitors
Q3) What is a virus called that has not undergone mutations due to the use of antiviral meds?
A) wild type
B) pristine sample
C) original viron
D) first generation
E) mother type
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) _______________ are mature osteoblasts surrounded and entrapped by the ECM they have synthesized and calcified.
Q2) Describe the treatment for osteomalacia.
Q3) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked disorder that mainly affects what demographic?
A) people with Down's Syndrome
B) adult males
C) adult females
D) boys
E) girls
Q4) What is the most common cause of rickets?
A) calcium deficiency
B) phosphorus deficiency
C) vitamin C deficiency
D) vitamin D deficiency
E) lack of physical activity
Q5) _______________ reduces bone turnover, prevents bone loss, increases BMD by 5%-10% in the hip, spine, and total body, and significantly reduces fracture risk, but can also increase the risk of breast cancer.
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Chapter 26: Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) What is a typical sign of an inborn error of metabolism that mothers quickly pick up on?
A) baby smells funny
B) baby won't wake up
C) baby bleeds from the ears
D) baby yawns uncontrollably
E) baby makes high-pitched screeches
Q2) What is the highest total amount of phenylalanine that PD should consume during any single day?
A) 168.5
B) 246 mg
C) 304.5 mg
D) 391 mg
E) 451.5 mg
Q3) What occurs with the amino acid disorder homocystinuria?
A) cysteine is unable to be converted to homocysteine
B) homocysteine is unable to be converted to cysteine
C) homocysteine is unable to be converted to lysine
D) homocysteine is unable to be converted to leucine
E) cysteine is unable to be converted to leucine
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