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This course explores the principles and application of dietetic practice within a variety of community settings, focusing on the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nutrition programs and interventions. Students will develop skills to work with diverse populations, address nutritional needs across the lifespan, and collaborate with multidisciplinary teams. Emphasis is placed on cultural sensitivity, public health strategies, food security, and health promotion to prevent and manage nutrition-related diseases at the community level. Practical experiences and case studies will prepare students for effective professional practice in community and public health nutrition environments.
Recommended Textbook
Community Nutrition in Action An Entrepreneurial Approach 6th Edition by Marie A. Boyle
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20 Chapters
1448 Verified Questions
1448 Flashcards
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is Mary's job an example of a public health nutritionist or community nutritionist? Explain.
Answer: Mary is a public health nutritionist as she works for a government program.
Q2) The type of prevention effort characterized by activities aimed at preventing disease by controlling risk factors related to disease is
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) essential prevention.
Answer: A
Q3) What policies might Mary need to become familiar with as she starts her new job?
Answer: The policies of WIC;her county office's policies;WIC legislation;and reimbursement and qualifying guidelines are all examples.
Q4) List three different communities in which a community nutritionist may work.
Answer: Answers will vary,but they will tend to be segmented by demographics,disease states,or wellness interests.
Q5) What are the three arenas of community nutrition?
Answer: People,policy,and programs.
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Q1) There is no one right way to begin data collection for a needs assessment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The extent of the community assessment will vary depending on the scope of the assessment and its target audience.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Discuss the contribution of the target population to community needs assessment planning and priority setting.
Answer: The target population forms the basis of the assessment.The choice of the target population is influenced by the initial perception about the nutritional problem,and may shift to be more inclusive during the data collection.Usually,though,the target population remains a constant over the course of the needs assessment.Interviews of members of the target population identified as key informants or stakeholders and observation of the population can provide useful qualitative data.
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
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Q1) What primary social group has the most influence on health and nutritional status and why?
Answer: The family exerts the most influence over an individual's health as it is the first social group to which an individual belongs.
Q2) If the survey method were to be used,what might affect the survey's validity?
Answer: Answers will vary,but could include the following concepts:
The respondent's knowledge of the services,literacy level,education level,conscientiousness in completing the instrument,and ability to follow instructions
The questionnaire design including the difficulty of instructions,ease of recording the answer,and the number and types of questions asked
Adequacy of reference data,depending on questions asked
Accuracy of data input and management
Q3) Compare and contrast three direct assessments of nutritional status.
Answer: See Table 3-6 for a summary of the methods,strengths,and limitations of selected dietary assessment tools.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within the logic model,_____ are the ultimate goals.
A) inputs
B) outcomes
C) outputs
D) external factors
Q2) The process of measuring a program's effectiveness in changing one or more aspects of nutritional status is called _____ evaluation.
A) outcome
B) impact
C) process
D) fiscal
Q3) Providing company incentives for employees to join local fitness clubs is an example of a _____ intervention.
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
Q4) What are the four components of a well-written objective? Why is each component important?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the phases of the epidemiologic method is illustrated in this statement? "Many years of investigation have shown that atherosclerosis can be induced in laboratory animals by feeding them a diet rich in fats and cholesterol."
A) Counting cases or events
B) Making comparisons
C) Observing
D) Relating cases to the at risk population
Q2) In planning an experimental trial,the investigator identifies a cause-effect comparison to be tested as a research hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The day-to-day variation in an individual's nutrient intake is called within-person variation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the steps of the scientific method in order.
Q5) List 8 different risk factors of heart disease,noting which are risk factors that can be controlled.
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Q1) The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics has a PAC that has the legal authority to raise funds to support a given Presidential candidate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which federal department houses the Agricultural Research Service,the agency that oversees research related to nutrient needs,food trends,composition of the diet,nutrient interactions,and bioavailability of nutrients?
A) Department of Health and Human Services
B) Department of Agriculture
C) National Academy of Sciences
D) Food and Drug Administration
Q3) Identify three ways in which the community nutritionist can influence policy making.
Q4) A functional food is one that may provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Who might be interested in partnering in the public policy initiative?
Q6) Draw the grassroots pyramid,and justify your current level of involvement.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe appropriate uses of current dietary guidance systems.
Q2) Data collected for monitoring purposes are used for
A) health planning.
B) program management and evaluation.
C) intervention efforts to prevent acute food shortages.
D) All of these
Q3) Which of the following Dietary Reference Intake values represents the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement for the nutrient in half of the people of a specific age and gender?
A) Adequate Intake
B) Estimated Average Requirement
C) Recommended Dietary Allowance
D) Tolerable Upper Intake Level
Q4) Choose one of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and translate the guideline into food-specific advice that consumers can implement in their homes,at the grocery store,or in restaurants.
Q5) Nongovernment,nonprofit health organizations issue dietary recommendations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the history of the food and nutrition consumption surveys. Page 9
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Q1) Which of the following national surveys is/are used most frequently to assess obesity data for Americans?
A) BRFSS
B) CSFII
C) NHANES
D) a and c
E) b and c
Q2) If public health approaches to address obesity are implemented,the obesity epidemic can be expected to follow a pattern similar to smoking rates,which A) dropped sharply.
B) rose sharply, then dropped gradually.
C) reached a plateau, then started to drop.
D) dropped and then rose again repeatedly.
Q3) A BMI of 30 translates into about 30 extra pounds for an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the research,parents are reported as "gatekeepers" for children's eating and physical activity behaviors.What does this mean?
Q5) Many of the policy initiatives address children rather than adults.Why?
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Q1) A major contributor to health care expenditures in the U.S.is the administrative cost of the insurance process itself.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An organization that contracts to deliver comprehensive health care to an enrolled group for a prepaid fee is a(n)
A) PPS.
B) HMO.
C) NIH.
D) DRG.
Q3) Differentiate between traditional systems of health care and managed forms of health care.
Q4) List and describe several current health care cost containment measures.
Q5) Discuss some of the current trends and issues that will shape the future of health care.
Q6) The Social Security Act of 1935 included provisions for Medicare and Medicaid.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the philosophy behind the HMO idea.
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Q1) Describe the demographic and economic circumstances of households receiving SNAP benefits.
Q2) _____ is an optional program for states intended to improve the likelihood that program participants will make healthful choices within a limited budget and choose active lifestyles consistent with the Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
A) WIC
B) SNAP-ED
C) SNAP
D) Emergency Food Assistance Food Program
Q3) When grocery shopping she purchases energy-dense foods instead of nutrient-dense foods,and bypasses the legumes and fresh vegetables and fruits.Why might she make these choices?
Q4) In 2010,approximately _____ percent of all Americans age 65 and over were living below the poverty threshold.
A) 5
B) 7.5
C) 9
D) 12.5
Q5) Describe the five components of the concept of food security.
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Q1) The recommended anthropometric measures to be performed on infants include the following except
A) head circumference.
B) heel-to-toe length.
C) recumbent length.
D) weight.
Q2) Maternal age can be a risk factor during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of weight a woman should gain during pregnancy depends on her pre-pregnancy BMI and the number of children she is carrying.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Who would be eligible for participation in the WIC program?
A) Pregnant teenager at 175% of the poverty line
B) Breastfeeding woman receiving SNAP EBT cards
C) Homeless pregnant woman eligible for Medicaid
D) a and b
E) a, b, and c
Q5) What factors contribute to maternal and infant health?
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Q1) Physiologically,how do overweight and obesity affect the growth and maturation of children?
Q2) The Expert Panel on Blood Cholesterol Levels in Children and Adolescents of the National Cholesterol Education Program classifies a total blood cholesterol level of _____ or an LDL-cholesterol level of _____ as high,when associated with a family history of hypercholesterolemia.
A) 300/150
B) 240/160
C) 200/130
D) 160/53
Q3) Iron-deficiency anemia is associated with all of the following except A) delayed growth.
B) impaired immune function.
C) enhanced cognitive function.
D) behavior changes.
Q4) Discuss three USDA nutrition assistance programs aimed at improving the health and nutritional status of children,including their purpose,types of assistance offered to clients,and eligibility requirements.
Q5) What are some factors that contribute to overweight and obesity in children?
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Q1) Seniors interviewed in focus groups have shown no interest in changing their eating behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program was designed to specifically assist the older population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As _____ prevention,nutrition can lessen risks from chronic diseases.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) essential
Q4) Physiological risk factors influencing the nutritional status of older adults include all of the following except
A) loneliness and depression.
B) lack of appetite and polypharmacy.
C) oral health problems and physical disability.
D) chronic disease and alcohol abuse.
Q5) What is the Mini Nutritional Assessment?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutrient is deficient in victims of the disease xerophthalmia?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin E
D) Iodine
Q2) Why is land reform of great importance to efforts to end poverty and hunger?
A) Land reform encourages families to have more children to help grow food for local consumption.
B) Land reform helps attract multinational corporations whose local operations provide employment for the poor.
C) Land reform allows people the opportunity to produce food for export and sale.
D) Land reform allows people the opportunity to produce food for local consumption.
Q3) _____ seem(s)to be at the root of food insecurity and overpopulation.
A) Inadequate food supplies
B) Multinational corporations
C) Poverty
D) Governmental policies
Q4) List four causes of world food insecurity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within the theory of planned behavior,how are attitudes determined?
Q2) Rogers and Shoemaker are most frequently associated with which of the theories below?
A) Diffusion of innovation model
B) Health belief model
C) Social cognitive theory
D) Stages of change model
Q3) Self-efficacy is the determination to act in a certain way.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The subjective norm is the perceived social pressure to perform or not perform a behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Of the following,which one does not promote self-efficacy?
A) Health belief model
B) Diffusion of innovation model
C) Theory of trying
D) Motivational interviewing
Q6) Describe and contrast three of the theories of consumer health behavior.
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Q1) Based on the constructs within the Campinha-Bacote model of cultural competency,how would you describe your degree of cultural competence regarding the Jewish culture? Justify your answer.
Q2) Identify reasons community nutrition professionals need to gain cultural and linguistic expertise.
Q3) Discussions of how food is used in a culture are a good icebreaker.
A)True B)False
Q4) What is acculturation? Why is it of importance when providing nutrition education?
Q5) Explain the LEARN communication guidelines for health practitioners.
Q6) Briefly describe two legislative,regulatory,and/or accreditation mandates related to lessening health disparities.
Q7) Give examples of some guidelines for creating a comfortable cross-cultural interaction.
Q8) Rural Americans have lower rates of chronic illness and enjoy better overall health than those living in urban areas.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) All nutrition professionals have extensive training in educating individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly explain the five nutrition messages discussed in Chapter 17 that were based on focus group results and are designed to help consumers make healthful choices that fit into their lifestyle.
Q3) Briefly describe the guiding principles of a well-written instructional objective.
Q4) In order to identify a target population's educational needs,a community nutritionist can obtain useful information from which of the following?
A) Community needs assessment
B) Formative research
C) Focus groups
D) Review of the literature
E) All of the above
Q5) What are the parts of the nutrition education plan? What is the necessity of the plan?
Q6) What are some recommendations for teaching adult learners?
Q7) Write a nutrition message based on the objectives you wrote in #8.
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Q1) Within social marketing,a value change is the most difficult to achieve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe methods for collecting both primary and secondary data for the situational analysis step of marketing research.
Q3) Healthcare providers and school boards are two examples of distribution channels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Important characteristics of the product related to the four P's of the marketing mix include all of the following except A) monetary value.
B) special features.
C) packaging.
D) quality.
Q5) Define market segmentation,and describe how it is used effectively to market nutrition interventions.
Q6) Apply the four main components of social marketing to this scenario.
Q7) List 3 characteristics of tomorrow's consumer.
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Q1) Delegation,a critical skill within the controlling function of management,is the assignment of part of a manager's duties to others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following functions of management is the process of regulating organizational activities so that actual performance meets established standards and goals?
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Leading
D) Controlling
Q3) The span of control is the same for everyone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The performance appraisal interview is a good time for reviewing and changing both organizational and personal goals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the main difference between data and information?
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Q1) Which type of evaluation occurs at the end of a program to document its success and the extent to which project objectives were achieved?
A) Process
B) Formative
C) Summative
D) Impact
Q2) How does a literature review assist the grant seeker in generating ideas?
Q3) Which of the following is especially critical for novice grant seekers or those who are changing their focus?
A) Knowledge of the credentials of the reviewers
B) Knowledge of funding priorities
C) Collaboration with others
D) Familiarity with the guidelines for writing the proposal
Q4) What are characteristics of the best collaborators?
Q5) _____ measures the overall worth and value of the program.
A) Impact evaluation
B) Formative evaluation
C) Summative evaluation
D) None of these
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