Dietetic Food Preparation
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dietetic Food Preparation explores the principles and techniques of preparing meals that meet specific dietary needs and health objectives. Emphasizing nutritious ingredient selection, recipe modification, and cooking methods, this course provides students with practical experience in creating balanced menus tailored to various medical conditions and lifestyle requirements. Students will learn to adapt traditional recipes to reduce fats, sugars, and sodium while maintaining flavor and appeal, as well as practice safe and sanitary food handling in compliance with nutritional guidelines. This course is essential for those pursuing careers in dietetics, nutrition, or health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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Chapter 1: Food Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) MyPlate
A) provides directions from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics as to the amounts of food required to give you the nutrients you need.
B) is a list of dietary recommendations concerning diet, exercise, and other lifestyle factors (e.g., alcohol consumption).
C) is a pictorial illustration of the concepts of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines.
D) provides nutrient intake recommendations for all Americans aged 2 through 65.
Answer: C
Q2) Consistency is expressed in terms of A) brittleness.
B) chewiness.
C) thinness.
D) elasticity (rubbery or gummy).
E) all of the above answers are correct
Answer: E
Q3) The SuperTracker is a graphic representation of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Food Evaluation
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Q1) A 9-point scale ranging from "Like Extremely" to "Dislike Extremely" best describes
A) discriminative tests.
B) descriptive tests.
C) analytical tests.
D) none of the above answers is correct
Answer: D
Q2) atomic absorption
A)used to measure mineral content
B)measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
C)measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
D)measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
E)measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
Answer: A
Q3) Males can usually detect sweetness better than females.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ dictates whether a substance is a solid, liquid, or gas.
A) Specific heat
B) Molecular movement
C) Freezing point
D) Heat of solidification
Answer: B
Q2) A pressure cooker speeds up heating time by _____.
A) decreasing atmospheric pressure to five pounds
B) decreasing the boiling point by ten degrees
C) increasing atmospheric pressure to fifteen pounds
D) increasing the boiling point by twenty degrees
Answer: C
Q3) The sterol of least significance in food is cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Approximately 95% of all food lipids are triglycerides.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of foodborne illness is caused by _____.
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) parasites
D) industrial chemicals
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is facultative and can thrive at refrigerator temperatures?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Yersinia enterocolitica
D) Shigella
Q3) Regarding reheating, all hot foods must be reheated to a minimum internal temperature of _____?F for at least _____ seconds.
A) 145; 15
B) 155; 30
C) 165; 15
D) 175; 30
Q4) HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics
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Q1) parboil
A)to add a liquid to the surface of roasting meat to preserve the moistness of the meat
B)to dip briefly into boiling water
C)any compound that enhances the flavor already found naturally in a food
D)a substance that adds a new flavor to food
E)to boil but only partially cook a food
Q2) To _____ a food is to cut it lengthwise into very thin, stick-like shapes.
A) dice
B) julienne
C) mince
D) shred
E) slice
Q3) Dried herbs and spices should be kept below 60 degrees F for optimal potency and replaced every 12 months.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The basics of food preparation are an exact science.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Meal Management
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Q1) Silence cloths are used to help absorb the noise of loud laughter and talking during the meal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the early 1900s, large city _____ began allowing retailers of individual products to sell merchandise from inside booths.
A) food cooperatives
B) health food stores
C) grocery stores
D) warehouses
Q3) Dinnerware must always match, and the patterns should harmonize.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The trend toward healthier eating has contributed to the suggestion of a national "fat tax" aimed at
A) snack foods sold at the grocery store.
B) bakeries.
C) fast-food restaurants.
D) high-end, sit-down restaurants.
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Chapter 7: Meats
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Q1) Frozen meat should be wrapped and stored at 32 degrees F or lower for a maximum of 18 months.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the meat is a bright cherry red, it means that it is fresh and still capable of picking up nitrogen from the air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One limitation of cooking in a microwave oven is that meats do not taste the same as when prepared by other methods, primarily because browning does not occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fat content of meat varies with
A) the source animal's genetics and age.
B) the source animal's diet and exercise.
C) the cut of the meat.
D) all of the above
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Chapter 8: Poultry
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Q1) Chicken or turkey roasted with the skin on is usually drier than that which is roasted with the skin off.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Whole poultry that has been frozen should be thawed under running water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cornish game hens
A)a chicken that is a cross between a Cornish hen and another breed of chicken
B)any chicken over the age of 10 months
C)chickens of either sex slaughtered under 10 weeks of age
D)chickens of either sex, processed between 10 and 12 weeks and weighing at least 6-8 pounds
E)neutered male chickens, usually under 4 months of age and weighing 12-14 pounds
Q4) About one-fourth of all chickens in the United States carry Salmonella and about half carry Campylobacter jejuni.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish
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Q1) Shellfish (fresh)is highly perishable and therefore one should make sure it is dead when purchased.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shrimp are purchased by size, not count.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pink/orange hue seen in some salmon, trout, and crustaceans comes from A) astaxanthins.
B) exposure to oxygen.
C) omega-3 fatty acids.
D) anthocyanins and anthoxanthins.
Q4) When using fish protein to increase protein and calcium content in foods, the food industry has devised a method that includes
A) grinding the bones.
B) dehydrating the fish.
C) removing the fat.
D) answers a and b only
E) answers a, b, and c are correctf. none of the answers is correct
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Chapter 10: Milk
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Q1) Children are drinking less milk than in the past because they are drinking more of other beverages, such as soft drinks and fruit juices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cow's milk by itself cannot serve as a complete source of nutrition for humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ultrapasteurization is a process in which a milk product is heated to temperatures up to _____ degrees F for 0.01 to 15 seconds.
A) 260
B) 280
C) 300
D) 340
Q4) Milk is _____ percent water with a pH of _____.
A) 74.2, 5.5
B) 80.6, 6.0
C) 87.4, 6.6
D) 92.2, 7.4
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Chapter 11: Cheese
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Q1) Processed cheese is a cheese made
A) from heated cheddar cheese and blue cheese mixed with other natural ingredients.
B) by combining different varieties of natural cheese, heating, and adding other ingredients to produce a stable emulsion.
C) through minimum processing of enzyme-coagulated cheese with or without heat.
D) from all-natural cheese that are melted and then remolded.
Q2) Which of the following represents the time and temperature at which cheese should be cooked?
A) long time and short temperatures
B) long time and low temperatures
C) short time and high temperatures
D) short time and low temperatures
Q3) Very hard cheese
A)A cheese aged for a very short period, containing 50-75% moisture.
B)A cheese that is not aged, containing greater than 80% moisture.
C)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 30-40% moisture.
D)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 40-50% moisture.
E)A cheese aged for the longest period of time, containing approximately 30% moisture.
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Chapter 12: Eggs
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Q1) As an ingredient in prepared foods, eggs are one of the most _____ of all ingredients.
A) complicated to work with B) costly
C) controversial
D) versatile
Q2) Coagulation temperatures for
A) egg whites begin at about 140 degrees F.
B) egg yolks begin at slightly lower temperatures than for whites.
C) beaten eggs begin at about 144 degrees F.
D) both egg whites and yolks are the same.
Q3) What is the purpose of adding salt to an egg white foam?
A) to increase foam volume up to 40 percent
B) no purpose - salt is rarely added to foams
C) to allow whites to whip into a more stable foam
D) to act as an interfering agent
Q4) The weeping seen on the tops of meringue pies may be avoided by adding cornstarch to the sugar before beating it into the egg whites.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flavor of cabbage and onions change dramatically when they are cooked and these changes are due to sulfur compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When potatoes are stored in the refrigerator, glucose is converted to starch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an alkaline medium, the betalain pigment shifts to A) red.
B) yellow.
C) white.
D) purple.
E) green.
Q4) Although the interior color of pineapple and banana skin comes from a mixture of pigments, the one that predominates is A) lycopene.
B) carotene.
C) xanthophyll.
D) none of the above answers is correct
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Chapter 14: Fruits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are some raisins brown-colored and some raisins golden-colored?
A) Dark-colored raisins are darker because of heat treatment, which changes the pH of the fruit, thus darkening it.
B) Dark-colored raisins are treated with metal salts.
C) Light-colored raisins are often treated with sulfur dioxide, which prevents enzymatic browning.
D) Light-colored raisins are treated with ethylene gas to facilitate ripening.
Q2) Freezing fruit decreases the quality of the fruit's A) taste.
B) color.
C) texture.
D) nutrients.
Q3) There are several fruits that fit into the classic botanical definition of "fruits" but are used in meal patterns as vegetables because they are NOT A) acidic.
B) acerbic.
C) sweet.
D) flavorful.
E) fragrant.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are included in gelatin-based gel preparation?
A) hydration of gelatin granules or sheets to prevent clumping
B) heating without stirring to avoid crystallization
C) stirring the sol at room temperature to promote gelation
D) cooling for 1 to 6 hours in the freezer
Q2) Heating time for which of the following stocks should not exceed about 30 minutes?
A) beef and pork
B) lamb and pork
C) fish and vegetable
D) chicken, turkey, and duck
Q3) A standard mirepoix is made out of
A) onions, celery, and carrots.
B) leeks, celery, carrots, and salt.
C) leeks, celery, carrots, and a bouquet garni.
D) parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper corns.
Q4) The addition of solid ingredients such as fruits, vegetables, and nuts into a gel strengthens gel formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas
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Q1) Asian noodles are often made from semolina flour and as a result appear translucent or clear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which part of the caryopsis is also called the chaff?
A) bran
B) germ
C) husk
D) endosperm
E) aleurone
Q3) husk
A)the largest portion of the grain, containing all of the grain's starch
B)the smallest portion of the grain, and the embryo for a future plant
C)the hard outer covering just under the husk that protects the grain's soft endosperm
D)the seeds of the grass family Gramineae
E)the rough outer covering protecting the grai
Q4) Grains, especially whole grains, are excellent sources of complex carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures
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Q1) Enriched flour has added thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folate, and iron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adding too much sugar to a yeast mixture
A) generates more carbon dioxide, making the dough rise higher.
B) increases the temperature at which yeasts multiply best while decreasing the optimum fermentation temperature.
C) pulls water osmotically from the dough and into the yeast cells.
D) can kill the yeast cells.
Q3) The primary difference between a batter and a dough is that a batter is
A) dry enough to be handled on a board.
B) stiff enough to hold a wooden spoon in the middle.
C) not dry enough to be handled and kneaded.
D) any product made from flour and water with eggs added.
E) leavened with yeast.
Q4) Most of the leavening in flour mixtures is produced by
A) air incorporated when mixing in the flour.
B) carbon dioxide produced by biological or chemical sources.
C) steam rising from the flour mixtures.
D) steam produced from biological or chemical sources.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces
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Q1) The main difference between a roux and beurre manié is that
A) in a beurre manié, the butter and flour are not cooked.
B) a beurre manié is mixed in all at once.
C) larger quantities of a beurre manié are needed for the same thickening power.
D) with a beurre manié, extended simmering gets rid of the floury taste.
Q2) Which of the following is not a basic ingredient in a thickened sauce?
A) a liquid
B) a thickening agent
C) a seasoning or flavoring agent
D) a meat bone
Q3) One result of dextrinization is
A) an increase in sweetness.
B) an increase in thickening power.
C) an increase in the amount of water needed for sufficient absorption.
D) a pale color of the final product.
Q4) The trick to a smooth Hollandaise sauce is to heat the sauce without curdling the egg.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Quick Breads
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Q1) Which of the following statements about popovers is incorrect?
A) They are made from one of the thinnest of all quick bread batters consisting of a one to one ratio of liquid to flour.
B) Too much fat weakens popover structure.
C) Popovers rely on protein coagulation and starch gelatinization for structure.
D) Opening the oven or removing the popovers too soon can cause them to collapse.
E) Cutting a small slit in the top of the popover before baking prevents a soggy popover.
F) all of the above answers are correct
Q2) Scones
A) are the same as biscuits except that they are cut into different shapes.
B) contain eggs and milk or cream and are richer than ordinary biscuits.
C) contain fat, which is melted before being added to the other ingredients.
D) are kneaded so that a lot of gluten development is created.
Q3) Popovers are baked at two different temperatures to first promote leavening and then set the structure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Yeast Breads
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Q1) Which of the following statements about bread ingredients is false?
A) Yeast grows well in warm liquid with a small amount of sugar added.
B) All-purpose and bread flours can be used interchangeably in yeast bread recipes.
C) Oats are commonly added to whole-grain breads for their texture and nutty taste.
D) Fat in bread dough enhances moisture loss and reduces the bread's shelf life.
Q2) The most commonly used flour for a yeast bread is
A) buckwheat.
B) millet.
C) rye.
D) wheat.
E) corn.
Q3) The bottom of a loaf of bread will sound hollow when tapped if it is done.
A)True B)False
Q4) The optimum fermentation temperature range for yeast breads is 68-100° F. A)True B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Sweeteners
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Q1) Which of the following statements about sugar crystallization is false?
A) Sugar crystallization on the outside of brownies forms a sweet, crunchy coating during baking.
B) The formation of just one crystal in a sugar solution can trigger the precipitation of many others in a domino effect.
C) Sugar crystals may form on nicks or cracks in the surface of a pan used to heat a sugar solution.
D) Invert sugar is routinely used in confectionary production because it promotes crystallization.
Q2) Despite the controversies over the safety of nonnutritive sweeteners, they are popular with people who have diabetes or are trying to lose weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Maillard reaction is a browning reaction involving sugars and complex carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fats and Oils
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Q1) The shortening power is greater in a fat that contains
A) fewer highly saturated fats.
B) more highly saturated fats.
C) more highly unsaturated fats.
D) No differences in composition result in a change of shortening power.
Q2) The three stages of _____ involve initiation, propagation, and termination.
A) hydrolytic rancidity
B) oxidative rancidity
C) flavor reversion
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) How would you classify homemade oil-and-vinegar and commercial French salad dressings, respectively?
A) temporary and semi-permanent emulsions
B) semi-permanent and permanent emulsions
C) temporary and permanent emulsions
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q4) Placing cold, wet food in heated frying oil introduces moisture, making the oil prone to oxidative rancidity.
A)True
B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies
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Q1) Unshortened cakes rely on _____ for their structure.
A) foams made from egg yolks
B) foam formation
C) whipped whole eggs
D) whipped milk solids
Q2) A sponge or foam cake is an example of a(n)
A) shortened cake.
B) unshortened cake.
C) chiffon cake.
D) specialty cake.
Q3) When a cake batter stands too long the volume of the final product will be increased.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are cookies crispier than cakes?
A) Sugar, starch, and flour proteins compete for water.
B) Gluten development is strengthened by the additional eggs found in cookies.
C) Cookies are cooked for a longer period of time.
D) More starch gelatinization occurs in cookies.
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Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies
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Q1) The major differences among pastries are created by all of the following except the A) mixing method in which eggs are introduced to the flour.
B) type of fat.
C) major leavening source.
D) addition of sugar or salt.
E) baking technique.
Q2) Which of the following fats causes increased gluten formation in pastry dough?
A) oil
B) high-quality butter
C) inexpensive butter and margarine
D) butter-flavored hydrogenated shortening
Q3) To make choux dough, _____ whole eggs are beaten into a pound of flour mixture and then this combination is cooked.
A) 4
B) 7
C) 10
D) 14
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Chapter 25: Candy
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Q1) Candy contributes primarily _____ and possibly _____ to the diet, depending on the type of candy.
A) fat; protein
B) carbohydrate; fat
C) carbohydrate; protein
D) sugar alcohol; protein
Q2) In confections, lactose
A) inhibits bloom defect.
B) provides lecithin and monoglycerides, which aid in emulsification.
C) provides a reducing sugar moiety that can participate in Maillard browning.
D) produces desirable or undesirable flavor compounds through oxidation and/or hydrolysis.
Q3) Approximately _____ of the candy consumed in America is in the form of chocolate.
A) 25%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts
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Q1) By law, ice cream must contain at least
A) 30% cream.
B) 10% milk fat by weight.
C) 20% milk fat by weight.
D) 90% milk-based products with added sugar.
E) 85% milk solids-not-fat by weight.
Q2) By law, sherbets must contain
A) less than 5% milk fat.
B) the same milk fat level as imitation ice cream.
C) more than 2% but less than 5% milk fat.
D) less than 2% milk fat.
E) less fat than ice cream but more sugar.
Q3) Ice cream
A) is a colloid food foam.
B) contains an unfrozen liquid phase containing sugars and salts in solution.
C) contains frozen ice crystals and air bubbles surrounded with fat globules and coated with an emulsified protein layer.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
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Chapter 27: Beverages
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Q1) artesian water
A)water that has surfaced on its own from an aquifer
B)water that has been heated to form steam and then re-condensed into a liquid
C)water that must have the same mineral content as that flowing naturally to the surface
D)water pumped from an aquifer, an underground source of water
E)water that has undergone deionization, distillation, reverse osmosis, or any other method that removes minerals, chemicals, and flavor
Q2) Which of the following food additives in soft drinks is obtained from apples, cherries, and plums?
A) citric acid
B) malic acid
C) phosphoric acid
D) sorbic acid
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Compared to coffee, the caffeine and theobromine content of tea is
A) about the same.
B) greater.
C) less.
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Chapter 28: Food Preservation
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Q1) The foods most susceptible to food spoilage are those that A) are high in sugars and water.
B) contain large concentrations of lipids and proteins.
C) contain large concentrations of proteins and/or water.
D) contain large concentrations of water.
E) contain proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
Q2) Modified-atmosphere packaged foods must be aseptically packaged. A)True
B)False
Q3) Food contamination is obvious and detectable while food spoilage is not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Edible coatings are commonly used to protect fruits, vegetables, cheeses, in-shell eggs, and processed meats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Foods wrapped tightly in air-tight, vapor-resistant materials usually are not susceptible to freezer burn.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a nutrient content claim?
A) calcium builds strong bones
B) fiber maintains bowel regularity
C) antioxidants maintain cell integrity
D) all of the above answers are nutrient content claims
E) none of the above answers is a nutrient content claim
Q2) The passage of federal food legislation in the United States started with the Food and Drug Act of 1938.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Health claims can be made for dietary supplements as long as they are not disease claims, which are only allowable for drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Labeling, food additives, research, and education are under the auspices of the A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C) Federal Trade Commission.
D) Department of the Treasury.
E) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
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Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the following website with the correct professional association in the food and nutrition field: HYPERLINK "http://www.eatright.org" www.eatright.org.
A) Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics (AND)
B) Institute of Food Technologists
C) American Culinary Federation
D) Foodservice Professionals Network
E) American Society for Nutrition (ASN)
Q2) When making a decision on which university or college to attend, students should consider which of the following factors?
A) location
B) price
C) program emphasis
D) faculty
E) job placement
F) financial aid
G) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) Any individual applying for graduate school must submit his or her TOEFL scores.
A)True
B)False
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