Dietary Planning and Management Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Dietary Planning and Management explores the principles and practices involved in creating and overseeing nutritional programs for diverse populations. The course covers dietary guidelines, nutrient requirements, menu planning, and specialized diets for different age groups, health conditions, and cultural backgrounds. Students learn how to assess nutritional needs, implement effective meal plans, and evaluate the outcomes of dietary interventions, with a focus on promoting overall health and preventing disease. Emphasis is also placed on understanding food labeling, budgeting, and food safety within various institutional and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 13th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often do the cells lining the intestinal tract recycle?
A)Every 2 to 3 days
B)Every 3 to 5 days
C)Every 5 to 7 days
D)Every 10 to 14 days
Answer: B
Q2) Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with
A)enterokinase.
B)trypsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)peptidases.
Answer: C
Q3) The sight or smell of food produces vagal stimulation of the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa, resulting in the increased production of what?
A)Motilin
B)Hydrochloric acid
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Secretin
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate?
A)It does not change the metabolic rate.
B)It increases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
C)It increases the metabolic rate by 14% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
D)It decreases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
Answer: B
Q2) If a patient's body temperature were 104.6°F, what would the BMR be compared with normal?
A)58% of normal
B)135% of normal
C)142% of normal
D)178% of normal
Answer: C
Q3) When is basal metabolism at its highest rate?
A)During the digestion of a meal
B)During periods of sleep
C)During periods of exercise
D)During periods of rapid growth
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Nutrients and Their Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent hemorrhagic disease in newborns, which vitamin is administered to infants shortly after birth?
A)Vitamin C
B)Thiamin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin K
Answer: D
Q2) In the treatment of what condition has supplemental CoQ been demonstrated to be effective?
A)Lung cancer
B)Colon cancer
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Pellagra
Answer: C
Q3) How is vitamin D deficiency manifested in adults?
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteomalacia
D)Hypophosphatemia
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) A nutrient intake analysis (NIA) or calorie count should be recorded for _____ hours.
A)48
B)72
C)24
D)36
Q2) In the patient's _____ history, you would you most likely find out about the patient's cultural views related to health care.
A)medical
B)social
C)medication
D)dietary
Q3) What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency?
A)The patient's level of literacy
B)The time required to collect data
C)The lack of tools for conducting these
D)Reliance on the patient's memory
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Chapter 5: Assessment: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) What syndrome results from inheriting two copies of a deletion in chromosome 15 from the father?
A)Williams syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Angelman's syndrome
D)Klinefelter syndrome
Q2) What is the term that describes a gene that is present but not expressing a particular phenotype?
A)Pedigree
B)Reduced penetrance
C)Dominance
D)Linkage
Q3) Phenylketonuria is what type of genetic disorder?
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Inflammation, Physical and Functional Assessment
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Q1) Height assessment on children younger than 2 to 3 years of age should be performed
A)with the child recumbent.
B)using the arm span.
C)using a stationary meter.
D)using the sitting height.
Q2) During the assessment of nutritional status, which of the following is the most objective measure?
A)Obtaining a dietary history
B)Evaluating biochemical tests
C)Observing meal consumption
D)Evaluating height and weight based on reference standards
Q3) Arm muscle area is determined by using
A)weight and height measurements.
B)triceps skinfold and weight measurements.
C)triceps skinfold and mid-upper arm circumference measurements.
D)mid-upper arm circumference and weight measurements.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The kidneys compensate for a loss of body water by excreting
A)additional fluid and electrolytes.
B)additional electrolytes.
C)more concentrated urine.
D)more dilute urine.
Q2) Which of the following results from ingesting a large amount of sodium in a short time?
A)Hypotension
B)Muscular cramps
C)Increased urinary calcium excretion
D)Increased urinary output of potassium
Q3) Where in the body is interstitial fluid located?
A)Within body cells and the lymphatic system
B)Within body cells
C)Between and around body cells
D)In the blood and the lymphatic system
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9
Chapter 8: Clinical: Biochemical Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following manifestations will occur in iron deficiency anemia?
A)Microcytic anemia
B)Macrocytic anemia
C)High reticulocyte count
D)High MCV
Q2) Which of the following is a measure of glucose control?
A)Highly sensitive C-reactive protein
B)Hemoglobin A1C
C)Homocysteine
D)Apolipoprotein B
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a static assay?
A)Serum hematocrit
B)Serum ferritin
C)Serum zinc
D)Zinc protoporphyrin:heme ratio
Q4) Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in prealbumin levels?
A)Malnutrition
B)Inflammation
C)Protein-wasting disease of the gastrointestinal tract
D)Zinc deficiency
10
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Chapter 9: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) Which term describes the metabolism of drugs by reactions such as oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, or conjugation?
A)Bioavailability
B)Biotransformation
C)Excipient
D)Pharmacodynamics
Q2) Which of the following medications could be given to a patient with cancer or AIDS to stimulate food intake?
A)Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
B)Sibutramine (Meridia)
C)Phentermine (Adipex-P)
D)Oxandrolone (Oxandrin)
Q3) Supplementation of coenzyme Q10 should be considered in patient taking which drug?
A)Carbamazepine
B)Methotrexate
C)Lipitor
D)Cholestyramine
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Chapter 10: Behavioral-Environmental: The Individual in the Community
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Q1) While performing a community assessment, you determine that you need information about local cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.Which of the following would be an appropriate resource for this information?
A)Census Bureau
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)Department of Health and Human Services
D)Area Office on Aging
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the core functions of public health?
A)Community assessment
B)Food security
C)Policy development
D)Public health assurance
Q3) Which of the following is the focus of the traditional public health approach to health care?
A)Primary prevention
B)Secondary prevention
C)Tertiary prevention
D)Patient care
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Chapter 11: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding The Joint Commission?
A)Accreditation by the Joint Commission is required by hospitals.
B)To maintain accreditation, a hospital must undergo a Joint Commission survey every 5 years.
C)The Joint Commission specifies that a qualified dietitian must be involved in establishing a hospital's nutrition care process.
D)The three sections of the "Accreditation Manual for Hospital" are patient-focused functions, staff-focused functions, and structures with functions.
Q2) Which of the following requires that health care providers ensure the protection of their patients' privacy?
A)TJC
B)MCOs
C)HIPAA
D)CMS
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Chapter 12: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Planning the Diet With Cultural Competency
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be required to have a nutrition label?
A)Canned corn
B)Hot dogs
C)Fresh ground turkey
D)American cheese
Q2) A major difference between MyPyramid in the United States and Canada's Food Guide to Healthy Eating is
A)the Canadian guide recommends daily servings of milk.
B)MyPyramid emphasizes eating vegetables.
C)Canada's food guide recognizes cultural, spiritual, and physical importance of Aboriginal foods.
D)only MyPyramid includes a recommendation for physical activity.
Q3) "Low fat" on a food label means that food
A)contains 25% less fat than a reference product.
B)contains less than or equal to 3 g of fat per serving.
C)contains one-third fewer fat calories than a reference product.
D)is naturally low in fat.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Bioactive
Substances and Integrative Care
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Q1) Which of the following trends regarding use of dietary supplements is TRUE?
A)Supplements are used more frequently by younger as opposed to older adults.
B)Supplements are used more frequently by minorities than whites.
C)Supplements are used more frequently by people who read food labels.
D)Supplements are used more frequently by people with BMIs above 25 kg/m2.
Q2) Which type of holistic therapy is based on the belief that you treat like with like?
A)Homeopathy
B)Naturopathy
C)Traditional Oriental medicine
D)Phytotherapy
Q3) For which medical diagnosis is CAM most frequently used in the United States?
A)Headache
B)Arthritis
C)Head cold
D)Back pain
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Chapter 14: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving an intravenous solution that provides 120 g of dextrose monohydrate.How many calories does this provide the patient?
A)132 kcal
B)240 kcal
C)408 kcal
D)480 kcal
Q2) The osmolarity of a 1-L bottle of 5% dextrose solution is _____ mOsm/L.
A)50
B)500
C)200
D)250
Q3) The most important technique for prevention of aspiration in an enterally fed patient is:
A)To position the patient at a 45-degree angle for feeding
B)To use a calorically dense enteral formula
C)To use a large bore feeding tube
D)To administer feedings at a slow rate
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Interventions: Education and Counseling for Behavior Change
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Q1) Assessment of a patient's stage of change should be completed
A)when the patient is referred for counseling.
B)at the beginning of the first counseling session.
C)by the end of the first counseling session.
D)before the second counseling session.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a stage of change?
A)Precontemplation
B)Motivation
C)Relapse
D)Action
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic techniques that all counselors should be competent in to be effective in intercultural counseling?
A)Respect for the client
B)Problem recognition
C)Genuineness
D)Empathic understanding
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) For the first 6 months of lactation, what is the recommended energy intake?
A)200 kcal less than the amount for pregnant women
B)330 kcal more than the amount for nonpregnant women
C)550 kcal more than the amount for pregnant women
D)The same as the amount for the third trimester pregnant women
Q2) How can the risk of neural tube defects occurring in utero be reduced?
A)Increasing folic acid intake throughout the childbearing years
B)Ensuring adequate niacin intake during the first 6 weeks of pregnancy
C)Providing an adequate protein intake throughout the pregnancy
D)Increasing vitamin C during the first trimester
Q3) What nutrient does the American Academy of Pediatricians (AAP) recommend to be supplemented at 2 months of age for breastfed infants, although the DRI for the nutrient in lactating women is at the same level as that in nonpregnant women?
A)Vitamin A
B)Calcium
C)Zinc
D)Vitamin D
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Nutrition During Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are infants particularly susceptible to developing dehydration?
A)Their mass-to-surface ratio is low.
B)Their insulation is poor, resulting in increased water loss.
C)Their renal concentrating ability is less than that of older children.
D)The increased liquidity of their stools results in greater fluid loss.
Q2) Which vitamin is NOT adequately provided by breast milk?
A)Vitamin C
B)Niacin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin A
Q3) For how long do both the American Academy of Pediatricians and the American Dietetic Association recommend exclusive breastfeeding of infants?
A)For 3 months
B)For 6 months
C)For the first year
D)Up until the age of 2 years
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Childhood
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Q1) What does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend in regard to calories from fat in the diet of a young child?
A)Limit fat calories to 30% of total caloric intake.
B)Limit fat calories to 20% of total caloric intake.
C)Fat calories should only be limited in extreme circumstances.
D)Fat calories should be limited for every child older than 1 year of age.
Q2) What is an appropriate food serving size for a 2-year-old child?
A)2 tsp
B)2 Tbsp
C)1/2 cup
D)1 cup
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with impaired academic performance in children?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Food insecurity
C)Skipping breakfast
D)Bringing lunch from home
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) How is hypertension diagnosed in adolescents?
A)Blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
B)Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
C)Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg
D)Average of three blood pressure readings that exceed the 95th percentile
Q2) Which nutrient is important in later adolescence to protect against birth defects in pregnancy?
A)Protein
B)Iron
C)Folic acid
D)Calcium
Q3) When does the greatest increase in height during puberty occur?
A)Over the 18- to 24-month "growth spurt" period
B)Continually over the entire time
C)During the first year of puberty
D)Primarily toward the end of puberty
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21
Chapter 20: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) Which of the following is an effect of the decreased circulation of estrogen associated with menopause?
A)Increase in bone remodeling
B)Increase in HDL levels
C)Increase in LDL levels
D)Increase in energy levels
Q2) Which of the following is the term used to describe microbial foods or supplements that can be used to change or reestablish the intestinal flora and improve the health of the host?
A)Probiotics
B)Phytoestrogens
C)Stanols
D)Lignans
Q3) Increased dietary intake of what is associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease?
A)Grains, fruits, and vegetables
B)Legumes
C)Vegetable oils
D)Trans-fatty acids
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nutrition in Aging
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Q1) Home-delivered meals provided for under the Older Americans Act nutrition program is administered by what agency?
A)USDA
B)USDHHS
C)ALF
D)CMS
Q2) Which of the following theories of aging is a predetermination theory?
A)Genetic theory
B)Wear and tear theory
C)Free radical theory
D)Somatic mutation theory
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes known to be predictive of adverse outcomes in older adults?
A)Depression
B)Diabetes
C)Cognitive impairment
D)Malnutrition
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Chapter 22: Weight Management
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Q1) The NWCR identified which behavior that resulted in successful long-term weight loss?
A)Use of very-low-calorie diets
B)Use of pharmaceuticals
C)Attending support groups
D)Eating breakfast
Q2) Which of the following diets advocates that carbohydrates should contribute no more than 40% of the total calories?
A)Low-carbohydrate diet
B)Protein-sparing modified diet
C)Very-low-calorie diet
D)Zone diet
Q3) What happens to the resting metabolic rate (RMR) as a result of exercise as part of a weight management program?
A)RMR increases as adipose tissue is increased with exercise.
B)RMR decreases as adipose tissue is decreased with exercise.
C)RMR decreases as lean body mass is decreased with exercise.
D)RMR increases as lean body mass is increased with exercise.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) In which eating disorder might a person have an intense fear of becoming overweight even though she is underweight?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Eating disorder not otherwise specified
D)Binge-eating disorder
Q2) In conjunction with anorexia nervosa, the definition of amenorrhea is the absence of _____ menstrual cycle(s) in postmenarchal women.
A)12 consecutive
B)three consecutive
C)at least one
D)six consecutive
Q3) In which eating disorder might a person binge often but not try to compensate for this behavior?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Eating disorder not otherwise specified
D)Binge-eating disorder
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25
Chapter 24: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) Athletes need to increase their water intake to
A)enhance renal excretion of waste products from muscle activity.
B)improve intestinal absorption of nutrients after digestion.
C)maintain water balance in the body as a whole and within cells.
D)increase skin evaporation of water as a cooling mechanism.
Q2) What is the first source of glucose for the exercising muscle?
A)Blood glucose
B)Liver glycogen
C)Muscle glycogen
D)Muscle protein
Q3) Which of the following activities relies heavily on the anaerobic pathway in muscle cells?
A)Jogging
B)Sprinting
C)Hiking
D)Dancing
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Chapter 25: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) Which of the following are bone-forming cells?
A)Osteocytes
B)Osteoblasts
C)Osteoclasts
D)Osteocalcins
Q2) Which of the following statements about exercise and bone is TRUE?
A)Regular weight-bearing exercise has little influence on BMD.
B)Upper-body strength activities may improve overall BMD.
C)Walking several miles each day has a large impact on hip BMD.
D)Swimming regularly has a large impact on vertebral BMD.
Q3) A chronic elevation of which circulating hormone typically leads to an increase in bone resorption and bone loss?
A)Thyroid hormone
B)Parathyroid hormone
C)Corticosteroid hormone
D)Glucagon
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Chapter 26: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) Maternal deficiency of vitamin A could result in what effect in relation to fetal or infant tooth development?
A)Decreased tooth size
B)Salivary gland dysfunction
C)Decreased mineral content
D)Mottled enamel
Q2) Which can reduce the cariogenicity of a meal when it follows the meal?
A)Eating dessert
B)Eating a snack of pretzels
C)Chewing sugar-free gum
D)Eating fruit
Q3) What is the appropriate dietary management for a patient with Sjögren's syndrome?
A)Provide foods that are pureed in form.
B)Provide oral liquid supplements.
C)Provide moist, soft, nonspicy food.
D)Begin fluid restriction.
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Chapter 27: Mnt for Food Allergy and Food Intolerance
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Q1) Food allergies that are most likely to resolve with age are those that first manifest during the first _____ of life.
A)year
B)3 years
C)10 years
D)15 years
Q2) A patient who has a food allergy to shrimp would be considered at what level of nutritional risk in allergy management?
A)No nutritional risk
B)Low nutritional risk
C)Moderate nutritional risk
D)High nutritional risk
Q3) Which food is the most common cause of near-fatal and fatal anaphylactic reactions?
A)Nuts
B)Shellfish
C)Egg
D)Wheat
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) The gastrointestinal effects of smoking include
A)reduction of LES pressure.
B)lower duodenal pH.
C)inhibition of pancreatic bicarbonate secretion.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A recommendation to a patient with gastroparesis who needs to gain weight would be:
A)increase the amount of dietary fiber.
B)ingest liquids or pureed foods.
C)eat more high fat foods.
D)eat meals and avoid snacks.
Q3) What causes the hypoglycemia that occurs after meals in patients who have had a gastrectomy?
A)Poor dietary intake
B)Rapid digestion and absorption of sugars and elevation of insulin levels
C)Pancreatic insufficiency
D)Elevated levels of secretin and pancreozymin
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) What condition is associated with the feeling of incomplete evacuation of the bowel?
A)Inflammatory bowel disease
B)Constipation
C)Irritable bowel syndrome
D)Diverticulosis
Q2) Blind loop syndrome is
A)an abnormal passage between two internal organs.
B)the presence of excessive amounts of gas in the GI tract.
C)a disorder of bacterial overgrowth with resulting malabsorption.
D)a malabsorptive condition resulting from massive bowel resection.
Q3) A lifelong low-fiber diet is considered to be a cause of which disease?
A)Crohn's disease
B)Diverticulitis
C)Ulcerative colitis
D)Tropical sprue
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Chapter
System, and Exocrine Pancreas Disorders
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Q1) Increased serum aromatic amino acids and decreased serum branched-chain amino acids is associated with
A)sclerosing cholangitis.
B)acute pancreatitis.
C)hepatic encephalopathy.
D)cholecystis.
Q2) Which of the following may be provided to a patient with chronic pancreatitis to minimize steatorrhea?
A)Water-soluble form of fat-soluble vitamins
B)Pancreatic enzyme replacements
C)Antacids
D)Proton pump inhibitors
Q3) Which of the following herbal supplements is used to treat liver disease?
A)Milk thistle
B)Centella asiatica
C)ephedra
D)Kava
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) If a patient with type 2 DM receives a nutrition prescription for a 2000-kcal diet, which of the following should be used?
A)50% carbohydrate, 20% protein, 30% fat
B)40% carbohydrate, 30% protein, 30% fat
C)20% carbohydrate, 40% protein, 40% fat
D)A macronutrient distribution individualized based on the patient's metabolic profile
Q2) __________ is NOT a symptom of type 1 DM.
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Loss of thirst sensation
C)Weight loss
D)Polydipsia
Q3) Which insulin peaks in activity 2 to 3 hours after injection?
A)Lispro (Humalog)
B)Determir (Levemir)
C)NPH
D)Regular
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33
Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid and Related Disorders
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Q1) Thyroid heath in some adults can be improved by increasing the conversion of T4 to T3.This can be accomplished by:
A)supplementing with tyrosine.
B)correcting zinc deficiencies with zinc glycinate or zinc citrate.
C)increasing naturally occurring flavonoids in the diet.
D)cautiously supplementing with lipoic acid.
Q2) Thyroid health has been shown to be impacted by the elimination of which foods?
A)Seafood
B)Gluten
C)Mushrooms
D)Barley
Q3) Before 1960, reports surfaced that soy formula-fed infants were developing hypothyroidism.The addition of what supplement to these formulas ameliorated this problem?
A)Iodine
B)Selenium
C)Iron
D)Tyrosine
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Which of the following may reduce the absorption of iron when consumed in large amounts?
A)Coffee or tea with meals
B)Leavened bread
C)Pork
D)Fish
Q2) After absorption, iron is transported by
A)hemoglobin.
B)serum albumin.
C)plasma transferrin.
D)Protoporphyrin.
Q3) Which protein is most responsible for the transport of vitamin B to target cells in the body?
A)Haptocorrin
B)Intrinsic factor
C)Holotranscobalamin I
D)Holotranscobalamin II
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Diuretics work to lower blood pressure by
A)promoting vasodilation.
B)inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system.
C)decreasing blood volume.
D)increasing potassium retention.
Q2) What is the condition in which severe congestive heart failure is characterized by a state of severe malnutrition?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Cardiac cachexia
C)Hypoalbuminemia
D)Tissue hypoxia
Q3) Which mineral has been shown to improve (lower) blood pressure when consumed in adequate amounts?
A)Calcium
B)Magnesium
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of pulse oximetry?
A)It is a pulmonary function test.
B)It gives information on lung volume.
C)It uses light waves to measure oxygen saturation of arterial blood.
D)It measures the ability of the respiratory system to exchange O2 and CO2.
Q2) Which vitamins are thought to be of particular importance in the prevention and treatment of bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
A)Pyridoxine, niacin, and folate
B)Vitamins A, C, and E
C)Folate, B12, and K
D)Thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin D
Q3) Which of the following is a disease of bronchial hyperresponsiveness?
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Emphysema
C)Tuberculosis
D)Asthma
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Chapter 36: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT among the top three considered to cause nephrotic syndrome?
A)Kidney cancer
B)Diabetes
C)Lupus
D)Amyloidosis
Q2) At least how much protein should be provided by the diet of a patient who receives hemodialysis three times per week?
A)0.6 g/kg of body weight
B)1 g/kg of body weight
C)1.2 g/kg of body weight
D)1.5 g/kg of body weight
Q3) In children with CKD the primary goal of MNT is
A)to control of hypertension.
B)fluid balance.
C)normal growth and development.
D)adherence to protein restriction.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
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Q1) Which type of cancer treatment is systemic therapy?
A)Chemotherapy
B)Surgery
C)Radiation therapy
D)Syngeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant
Q2) Common side effects of radiation-induced enteritis combined with small bowel resection include
A)sore throat, mucositis, and severe dental and gum destruction.
B)nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C)maldigestion, malabsorption, dehydration, and malnutrition.
D)edema, ascites, and weight gain.
Q3) For the pharmacologic management of patients with anorexia and cachexia associated with cancer and cancer treatment, which of the following has been demonstrated to promote weight gain and increase in lean body tissue?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Dronabinol
C)Megestrol acetate
D)Oxandrolone
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Chapter 38: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for HIV and AIDS
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Q1) What is the primary adverse effect of some kinds of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?
A)Drug interactions
B)Increase in side effects and disease progression
C)Decreased adherence
D)Micronutrient malabsorption
Q2) Which herbal supplement is contraindicated when used with antiretroviral medication such as indinavir?
A)Echinacea
B)Cat's claw
C)Milk thistle
D)St.John's wort
Q3) What should a pregnant woman who is HIV positive be advised in regard to feeding her baby?
A)Breastfeed her baby.
B)Do not breastfeed her baby.
C)Breastfeed her baby only if she is asymptomatic.
D)Breastfeed her baby only if her disease is in its early stage.
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Chapter 39: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Metabolic
Stress: Sepsis, Trauma, Burns, and Surgery
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Q1) Nutrition support cannot replete lean body mass
A)in starvation-related malnutrition.
B)in patients with MODS and SIRS.
C)chronic disease-related malnutrition.
D)after GI surgery.
Q2) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) generally begins with A)coagulopathy.
B)lung failure.
C)liver failure.
D)intestinal failure.
Q3) What are interleukin 1, interleukin 6, and tumor necrosis factor examples of?
A)Catecholamines
B)Acute phase proteins
C)Cytokines
D)Anti-inflammatory proteins
Q4) In contrast to stress, which of the following is a characteristic of starvation?
A)Increased resting energy expenditure
B)Decreased energy expenditure
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased nitrogen excretion
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Chapter 40: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) Which of the following CAM therapies has been demonstrated as effective in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Copper bracelets
B)Echinacea
C)Borage and evening primrose oil
D)Thunder god vine
Q2) What drugs are the first line of therapy for controlling the inflammatory process seen in arthritis?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Salicylates
C)Gold salts
D)Methotrexate
Q3) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
A)include the drug Tylenol.
B)work by inhibiting the COX-1 enzyme.
C)work by blocking interleukin.
D)have significant catabolic effects.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) What is dysphagia?
A)Inhalation of a foreign object into the lungs
B)Impaired taste
C)Difficulty swallowing
D)Impairment of the tongue or other muscles essential to speech
Q2) On the Dysphagia Outcome and Severity Scale, at what level is total assistance for the patient necessary?
A)Level 7
B)Level 5
C)Level 3
D)Level 1
Q3) Which of the following requires the greatest coordination and control in order to swallow?
A)Solid foods
B)Liquids of thin consistency
C)Soft foods with high water content
D)Thick, viscous liquids
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Psychiatric Conditions
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Q1) Flavonoid-rich foods include
A)peaches, apricots, and sweet potatoes.
B)fish and seafood.
C)kale, broccoli, and spinach.
D)apples, oranges, berries, and chocolate.
Q2) Which of the following conditions may be improved by supplementation of long-chain fatty acids?
A)Anxiety disorder
B)Eating disorders
C)Depression
D)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency has been associated with A)bipolar disorder.
B)delusional disorder.
C)active mood disorder.
D)generalized anxiety.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for
Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) Which of the following is the recommendation for administration of IV fat emulsion to an LBW infant?
A)Provide at least 40% of nonprotein calories.
B)Do not exceed 60% of nonprotein calories.
C)Provide 10% to 15% of nonprotein calories.
D)Provide only the 10% emulsion.
Q2) Compared with term infants, preterm infants have an increased need for vitamin A)A.
B)C.
C)D.
D)E.
Q3) The energy needs of a premature infant fed parenterally differ from those of a premature infant fed enterally because parenterally fed infants
A)require less energy per kilogram of body weight.
B)require an equal amount of energy per kilogram of body weight.
C)require more energy per kilogram of body weight.
D)have very erratic energy requirements.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which fatty acid oxidation disorder is the most common?
A)Short-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
B)Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
C)Long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
D)Long-chain 3-hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Q2) Which of the following will NOT result in the development of phenylketonuria?
A)Deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase
B)Deficiency in dihydropteridine reductase
C)Insufficient synthesis of biopterin
D)Insufficiency of dietary tyrosine
Q3) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
A)Hereditary glucose intolerance
B)Glycogen storage disease
C)Galactosemia
D)Fructose 1,6-diphosphatase deficiency
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Chapter 45: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Children with _____ may be affected by Arnold Chiari malformation of the brain.
A)autism
B)spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q2) An obturator is a
A)feeding device.
B)cover for a cleft palate.
C)measuring device useful for children with scoliosis or contractures.
D)surgical device used to restore and hold the spinal cord within the spinal column.
Q3) By current methods, which developmental disorder is preventable?
A)Down syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Autism
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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