Diagnostic Sciences in Dental Hygiene Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Sciences in Dental Hygiene provides students with foundational knowledge and skills in the process of identifying oral diseases and conditions relevant to dental hygiene practice. The course emphasizes the diagnostic methods used in evaluating the health of the oral cavity, including patient history, clinical and radiographic assessment, and the recognition of pathologic changes in the soft and hard tissues. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on experiences, students learn to integrate diagnostic findings with preventive and therapeutic care planning, promoting comprehensive approaches to patient management and disease prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
758 Verified Questions
758 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Preliminary Diagnosis of Oral
Lesions
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lesion with a sessile base is described as A) an ulcer.
B) stemlike.
C) pedunculated.
D) flat and broad.
Answer: D
Q2) The gray-white opalescent film seen on the buccal mucosa of 85% of black adults is a variant of normal that requires no treatment and is termed A) linea alba.
B) leukoedema.
C) leukoplakia.
D) white sponge nevus.
Answer: B
Q3) The lingual thyroid is most often found in which intraoral location?
A) Posterior to the circumvallate papillae in the midline of the tongue
B) Along the occlusal plane on the buccal mucosa
C) At the junction of the hard and soft palate
D) At the labial commissures
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wearing away of tooth structure during mastication is termed
A) attrition.
B) erosion.
C) abrasion.
D) abfraction.
Answer: A
Q2) The most common site for the development of a pulp polyp is
A) the occlusal surface of a large open carious tooth.
B) the apex of the tooth.
C) the gingival margin of the tooth.
D) deep in the pulp canal.
Answer: A
Q3) Which lesion occurs on the gingiva or alveolar process and contains many multinucleated giant cells, red blood cells, and chronic inflammatory cells?
A) Ranula
B) Central giant cell granuloma
C) Fibroma
D) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Immunologic Oral Lesions
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73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three main types of lymphocytes active during an immune response include the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) T-cell
B) NK cell
C) B-cell
D) C-cell
Answer: D
Q2) A prodromal period begins
A) 1 week before the onset of ulcers.
B) 1 to 2 days before the onset of ulcers.
C) the day the ulcers erupt.
D) 7 to 10 days before ulcers erupt.
Answer: B
Q3) Which conditions are not appropriately paired?
A) Reactive arthritis-Reiter syndrome
B) Aphthous ulcer-canker sore
C) Urticaria-hives
D) Lichen planus-Sjögren syndrome
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases
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77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition does not occur in impetigo?
A) Itching
B) Pruritus
C) Regional lymphadenopathy
D) Fever
Q2) Another name for verruca vulgaris is
A) condyloma acuminatum.
B) the common wart.
C) Heck disease.
D) focal epithelial hyperplasia.
Q3) Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis, and cryptococcosis are examples of what type of infection?
A) Viral
B) Fungal
C) Developmental
D) Bacterial
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6
Chapter 5: Developmental Disorders
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75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The projection of white material seen at the furcation area in this maxillary molar is a developmental anomaly. Which condition is suspected?
A) Dens evaginatus
B) Enamel pearl
C) Supernumerary cusp
D) Calculus
Q2) A small elevated mass of thyroid tissue located near the foramen cecum or posterior lateral borders of the tongue, which forms as a result of failure of the embryonic thyroid tissue to migrate to its proper position, is called a(n)
A) ameloblastic fibroma.
B) hemangioma.
C) lingual thyroid nodule.
D) thyroglossal duct cyst.
Q3) Ingesting water with four times the amount of fluoride causes
A) brown-to-black staining.
B) cusp fractures.
C) white spots on the middle third of smooth crowns.
D) increased dental caries.
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Chapter 6: Genetics
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101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The areas of bony radiolucency seen in cherubism
A) resemble a central giant cell granuloma when seen under the microscope.
B) occur in place of the teeth, and radiographs will reveal complete anodontia.
C) will increase in size as the patient matures, even until the seventh or eighth decade of life.
D) will resolve, leaving the patient without any sign of facial deformity later in life.
Q2) Where is the most common intraoral site for the development of neurofibromas in a patient with von Recklinghausen disease?
A) Floor of the mouth
B) Labial commissures
C) Palate
D) Lateral borders of the tongue
Q3) Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia will be especially prominent in which location?
A) Tip and anterior dorsum of the tongue
B) Palate
C) Gingiva
D) Buccal mucosa
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about malignant melanoma is true?
A) It has a benign counterpart known as the benign melanoma.
B) Most malignant melanomas arise on the skin as a result of prolonged exposure to chemicals such as benzene.
C) Primary malignant melanoma of the oral cavity is rare.
D) The most common intraoral location is the tongue.
Q2) An ameloblastoma may appear as a _____ on radiographic images.
A) unilocular radiolucency
B) multilocular opacity
C) unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
D) unilocular or multilocular radiopacity
Q3) Aberrant
A)Complete surgical removal without cutting into the lesion
B)Deviating from the usual or natural type
C)Confined to the site of origin without an invasion of neighboring tissues
D)Tooth forming
E)Occurring within bone
F)Occurring in various forms
G)Microscopic staining that is more intense than normal
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nonneoplastic Diseases of Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory evaluation reveals that the serum _______________ level is significantly elevated in active Paget disease.
A) alkaline phosphatase
B) platelet
C) hematocrit
D) leukocyte
Q2) The most severe form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia is termed Albright syndrome. This condition is characterized by endocrine abnormalities such as precocious puberty that may begin at which age?
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 6 years
D) 8 years
Q3) For which disease of bone is surgical recontouring most often recommended as its treatment modality?
A) Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
B) Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
C) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D) Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteonecrosis of the maxilla and mandible is a complication associated with what type of drug?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Bisphosphonate
D) Cyclosporine
Q2) Bisphosphonate therapy is used to treat all diseases except one. Which is the exception?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Osteoporosis
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Metastatic breast cancer
Q3) Which medication can decrease the severity of radiation-induced xerostomia in patients with oral cancer?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Cyclosporine
C) Indomethacin
D) Pilocarpine hydrochloride
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11
Chapter 10: Orofacial Pain and Diseases Affecting the
Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open lock of the TMJ that the patient cannot reduce is termed
A) subluxation.
B) dislocation.
C) ankylosis.
D) myofascial pain.
Q2) Which muscle of mastication is most superior in its location?
A) Temporalis
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Masseter
D) Medial pterygoid
Q3) About _____% of all TMJ ankylosis cases result from joint infection, usually after trauma.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 70
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