Diagnostic Radiography Test Bank
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Radiography is a course that explores the principles and practices of medical imaging used to diagnose diseases and injuries. Students learn about the physics of radiation, image formation, and the safe operation of radiographic equipment. The course covers anatomical positioning, patient care, and radiation protection techniques, as well as interpretation of radiographic images. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, clinical decision-making, and effective communication within healthcare teams. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical training, students are prepared to support accurate diagnosis and contribute to patient management in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 8th Edition by Kenneth L. Bontrager
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20 Chapters
2106 Verified Questions
2106 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/789 Page 2
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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198 Verified Questions
198 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15626
Sample Questions
Q1) The photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP)imaging plate is light sensitive and must be processed in a dark environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g.,special chest projection)?
A) Axial
B) Trendelenburg
C) Decubitus
D) Lordotic
Answer: D
Q3) Close collimation is not recommended when using a PSP imaging system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chest
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15627
Sample Questions
Q1) A correctly positioned lateral chest radiograph demonstrates some separation of the posterior ribs owing to the divergent x-ray beam.But a separation of greater than ____ cm indicates objectionable rotation from a true lateral.
A) 0.5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior?
A) Epiglottis
B) Hyoid bone
C) Carina
D) Vocal cords
Answer: C
Q3) Advanced bronchiectasis
A)Increase (+)
B)Decrease (-)
C)No change (0)
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Abdomen
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15628
Sample Questions
Q1) Liver
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following abdominal regions would contain the right colic (hepatic)flexure?
A) Right lateral lumbar
B) Right inguinal
C) Right hypochondriac
D) Epigastric
Answer: A
Q3) The Pigg-O-Stat is recommended for erect abdomen projections on young pediatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15629
Sample Questions
Q1) Which basic projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch in profile?
A) AP
B) Lateral
C) Medial rotation oblique
D) Lateral rotation oblique
Q2) Grids are generally not required unless the anatomy measures greater than _____ cm in thickness.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 14
D) 5
Q3) Rheumatoid arthritis is three times more common in men than women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following structures is NOT part of the ulna?
A) Styloid process
B) Radial notch
C) Ulnar notch
D) Coronoid tubercle
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15630
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best demonstrates the coracoacromial arch?
A) Neer method
B) West Point method
C) Fisk method
D) Garth method
Q2) A referring physician suspects that a subacromial spur may be the cause for a patient's arm numbness.She asks the technologist for a projection that would best demonstrate any possible spurs.Which of the following projections would accomplish this objective?
A) PA scapular Y lateral with 10° to 15° caudal angle
B) PA scapular Y lateral with 10° to 15° cephalad angle
C) AP oblique shoulder with 45° caudal angle
D) AP shoulder with 10° to 15° caudal angle
Q3) An orthostatic (breathing)technique can be performed for the AP projection of the scapula.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Alexander method for AC joints requires a 15° cephalic CR angle.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15631
Sample Questions
Q1) Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot?
A) Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits
B) Between the tarsal bones and phalanges
C) Between the phalanges of the first digit
D) Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges
Q2) A radiograph of a PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa does not demonstrate the fossa well.It is foreshortened.The following positioning factors were used: patient prone,knee flexed 40° to 45°,CR angled to be perpendicular to the femur,40-inch SID,and no rotation of the lower limb.On the basis of the factors used,what changes need to be made to produce a more diagnostic image?
A) Increase SID to at least 48 inches (123 cm).
B) CR must be perpendicular to lower leg.
C) Rotate lower extremity 10° medially.
D) Reduce flexion of the knee to 20° to 30°.
Q3) Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity frequently fractured?
A) First
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following projections requires that the IR be tilted 15° from the vertical plane?
A) AP axial inlet projection
B) Axiolateral inferosuperior projection (Danelius-Miller method)
C) Modified axiolateral projection (Clements-Nakayama method)
D) Posterior axial oblique projection (Teufel method)
Q2) Why must the lower limb be rotated 15° to 20° internally for AP hip projections?
A) To separate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter
B) To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position
C) To open up the femoroacetabular joint
D) To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor
Q3) What CR angle is required for the AP axial,inlet projection?
A) 30° cephalad
B) 10° to 15° cephalad
C) 20° to 30° caudad
D) 40° caudad
Q4) Cephalopelvimetry is still commonly performed in the U.S.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15633
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra?
A) The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae.
B) The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections.
C) The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra.
D) All of the above are true statements.
Q2) A lateral projection of the thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect,which is a primary area of interest on this patient,is obscured by the patient's shoulders.Which of the following changes will best demonstrate this region of the spine?
A) Use a compensating (wedge) filter and repeat the exposure with increased kV.
B) Angle the CR 10° to 15° cephalad.
C) Perform the projection with the patient erect and holding weights in hand during exposure.
D) Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.
Q3) The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints. A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small section of bone found between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar spine is termed:
A) pillar.
B) transverse processes.
C) articular facets.
D) pars interarticularis.
Q2) Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection of the sacrum?
A) At the level of the ASIS
B) At the level of the symphysis pubis
C) 1 to 1 1/2 inches (3 to 4 cm) below the iliac crest
D) 2 inches (5 cm) above the symphysis pubis
Q3) What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the L5-S1 joint space on a male patient?
A) 20° cephalad
B) 30° cephalad
C) 35° caudad
D) 40° to 45° cephalad
Q4) The LPO position for sacroiliac joints will best demonstrate the right joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bony Thorax-Sternum and Ribs
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient enters the ED with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs.Which of the following projections should be taken to demonstrate the involved area?
A) AP and LAO
B) PA and RAO
C) AP and LPO
D) PA and LAO
Q2) A congenital defect characterized by anterior protrusion of the lower sternum and xiphoid process is termed:
A) pectus excavatum.
B) flail chest.
C) pectus carinatum.
D) sternal protrusion.
Q3) A recommended practice is to decrease the SID to less than 40 inches (102 cm)for the oblique sternum projection to increase the magnification and resultant unsharpness of overlying ribs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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181 Verified Questions
181 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15636
Sample Questions
Q1) Both CT (computed tomography)and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)can provide reconstructed images in three planes: axial,sagittal,and coronal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Craniosynostosis (premature suture closing in neonate skull)
A)Nuclear medicine
B)MRI
C)CT
D)Ultrasound
E)Conventional radiography
Q3) The left mastoid fontanel becomes the ____ in an adult.
A) left asterion
B) left pterion
C) left bregma
D) squamosal suture
Q4) Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial projection?
A) Maxillary
B) Frontal and maxillary
C) Frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid
D) Sphenoid and maxillary
13
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Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Punctate collection of barium surrounded by a "halo" appearance during upper GI series
A)Ulcers
B)Hiatal hernia
C)Achalasia (cardiospasm)
D)Zenker diverticulum
E)Schatzki ring
F)Gastritis
G)Esophageal varices
H)Gastric carcinoma
Q2) The aortic arch and the _____ create a normal indentation seen along the lateral border of the esophagus.
A) pulmonary artery
B) left primary bronchus
C) pulmonary veins
D) superior vena cava
Q3) Duodenal ulcers are rarely malignant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lower Gastrointestinal System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obstruction of the small intestine
A)Ileus
B)Neoplasm
C)Meckel diverticulum
D)Malabsorption syndrome (sprue)
E)Enteritis
F)Regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)
G)Giardiasis
H)Adynamic or paralytic ileus
Q2) Inflammation of the intestine
A)Ileus
B)Neoplasm
C)Meckel diverticulum
D)Malabsorption syndrome (sprue)
E)Enteritis
F)Regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)
G)Giardiasis
H)Adynamic or paralytic ileus
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Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Passage of a large volume of urine
A)Anuria
B)Oliguria or hypouresis
C)Polyuria
D)Hematuria
E)Renal agenesis
F)Micturition
Q2) Which of the following is true with nonionic type contrast media?
A) Low osmolality
B) The inability to dissociate into two separate ions
C) Less chance of reaction
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following conditions is considered to be higher risk for a contrast media reaction?
A) Hematuria
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Renal calculi
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16
Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15640
Sample Questions
Q1) Stress or fatigue fracture
A)Smith fracture
B)Closed fracture
C)Hickory-stick fracture
D)Mallet fracture
E)Chauffeur's fracture
F)March fracture
G)Tripod fracture
Q2) Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation?
A) Hutchinson's
B) Nursemaids' elbow
C) Monteggia's
D) None of the above
Q3) Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture?
A) Open reduction
B) Closed reduction
C) Internal fixation
D) Compound reduction
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15641
Sample Questions
Q1) Helical CT scan pitch ratio can be increased to reduce patient dose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following pathologies is best demonstrated with a radiographic chest procedure?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Celiac disease
D) Crohn's disease
Q3) A condition of irreversible widening (dilation of the bronchi); frequently begins in early childhood (may require a slight increase in exposure factors)
A)Atelectasis
B)Cretinism (a thyroid gland disorder)
C)Croup
D)Hyaline membrane disease
E)Cystic fibrosis
F)Bronchiectasis
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18
Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the branches of the abdominal aorta is considered the most superior?
A) Superior mesenteric artery
B) Inferior mesenteric artery
C) Celiac artery
D) Renal arteries
Q2) Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
A) Pulmonary valve
B) Mitral valve
C) Aortic valve
D) Tricuspid valve
Q3) Which of the following vessels is NOT a typical puncture site for catheterization during angiography?
A) Brachial artery
B) External iliac artery
C) Femoral artery
D) Axillary artery
Q4) Lymphography is considered an obsolete radiographic procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the channels located between the cranium and dura mater that contain blood?
A) Subdural space
B) Epidural space
C) Dural mater sinuses
D) Subarachnoid space
Q2) The ratio between the relationship between table speed and slice thickness defines:
A) differential absorption.
B) pitch.
C) voxel.
D) display matrix.
Q3) An undesired feature or density in the CT image not representative of anatomy is a(n):
A) CT aberration.
B) noise.
C) artifact.
D) windowing flaw.
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Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram?
A) Iodinated, oil based
B) Room air
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nonionic, water soluble
Q2) Linear tomography is primarily used for studies of the sternum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous:
A) 2 weeks.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 30 days.
D) 6 months.
Q4) The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the:
A) interior of the cervix, uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries.
B) interior of the uterus for neoplasms or other abnormalities.
C) uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes.
D) degree of openness of the cornu between the uterus and uterine tubes.
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Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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208 Verified Questions
208 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another term for the tail of the breast?
A) Caudal portion
B) Areola
C) Axillary prolongation
D) Axilla
Q2) Computer-aided detection (CAD)is reported to improve cancer detection rates by:
A) 2%.
B) 4%.
C) 5% to 15%
D) 50%.
Q3) The anode-heel effect is less evident in mammography systems because of the anode configuration of the x-ray tube.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transverse or spin-spin relaxation when spins begin to precess out of phase with each other is termed:
A) T1.
B) T2.
C) spin density.
D) free induction decay.
Page 22
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