Diagnostic Pathology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Pathology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices of diagnosing diseases through the examination of tissues, organs, and bodily fluids. The course covers the fundamentals of histopathology, cytopathology, and clinical pathology, emphasizing techniques such as tissue processing, staining, and microscopic analysis. Students will learn to identify normal and abnormal histological findings, correlate clinical data with pathological features, and understand the role of pathology in patient management and treatment decisions. Case studies and practical laboratory sessions are integral, providing hands-on experience in interpreting pathological specimens and reports.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1036 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20520
Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are signs of irreversible cell injury except:
A) Apoptosis
B) Pyknosis
C) Karyorrhexis
D) Karyolysis
E) Vacuolar degeneration
Answer: E
Q2) Myocardial infarct represents a form of:
A) Dystrophic calcification
B) Metastatic calcification
C) Fibrinoid necrosis
D) Coagulation necrosis
E) Wet gangrene
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20521
Sample Questions
Q1) The center of an abscess contains:
A) Caseous necrosis
B) Calcification
C) Pus
D) Eosinophils
E) Fibrous tissue
Answer: C
Q2) Aspirin can inhibit some aspects of inflammation by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandin and thromboxane
C) Serotonin
D) Hageman factor
E) Arachidonic acid
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20522
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common feature of AIDS?
A) Burkitt's lymphoma
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Kaposi's sarcoma
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
Answer: D
Q2) Human immunodeficiency virus can be transmitted from an infected person by all the following routes except:
A) Heterosexual intercourse
B) Handshake
C) Intravenous injection using infected needles
D) Blood transfusions
E) Transplacentally from mother to fetus
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20523
Sample Questions
Q1) Retinoblastoma gene (Rb-1)is classified as a(n):
A) Oncogene
B) Tumor suppressor gene
C) Point mutation
D) Gene amplification
E) Viral oncogene inserted into the human genome
Q2) Human papillomavirus (HPV)has been implicated in the pathogenesis of carcinoma of the:
A) Lips
B) Cervix of the uterus
C) Liver
D) Ovaries
E) Pancreas
Q3) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
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Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20524
Sample Questions
Q1) The X-linked bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor VIII is called:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Hemosiderosis
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Hemorrhagic fever
Q2) Dilatation of lateral ventricles of the brain found in TORCH syndrome is called:
A) Microphthalmia
B) Chorioretinitis
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Cataract
E) Vesicles
Q3) Trisomy of chromosome 21 is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Down's syndrome
D) WAGR (Wilms' tumor,aniridia,genital malformations,mental retardation)syndrome
E) Congenital retinoblastoma
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20525
Sample Questions
Q1) Abscess is a complication of:
A) Septic embolism
B) Marantic endocarditis
C) Air embolism
D) Fat embolism
E) Pulmonary saddle embolism
Q2) Melena is a typical complication of:
A) Rectal ulcer
B) Gastric ulcer
C) Skin ulcer
D) Heart failure
E) Venous thrombosis
Q3) Red cheeks in a person who is blushing are an example of:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Petechia
C) Ecchymoses
D) Active hyperemia
E) Passive hyperemia
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20526
Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:
A) Streptococcal throat infection
B) Staphylococcal skin infection
C) Gonococcal arthritis
D) Coxsackie B virus myositis
E) Influenza
Q2) Acute cardiac tamponade is typically a complication of:
A) Rupture of the left ventricle as a result of myocardial infarction
B) Mural thrombosis
C) Ventricular aneurysm
D) Subendocardial circumferential myocardial infarction
E) Rupture of the papillary muscle
Q3) Atherosclerotic narrowing of which artery causes hypertension?
A) Middle cerebral artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Right coronary artery
D) Renal artery
E) Femoral artery
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20527
Sample Questions
Q1) Attacks of intrinsic asthma may be precipitated by all the following except:
A) Exercise
B) Bronchial infection
C) Aspirin
D) Corticosteroids
E) Psychological stress
Q2) Approximately 90% of all patients with lung cancer present with a history of:
A) Alcoholism
B) Hereditary cancer syndromes
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Exposure to chemical carcinogens in food and water
E) Obesity
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20528
Sample Questions
Q1) Aplastic anemia is most often:
A) Idiopathic
B) Secondary to viral infection
C) Radiation induced
D) Drug induced
E) Immune mediated
Q2) Sickle cell hemoglobin is routinely identified in the laboratory by:
A) Polarized light microscopy
B) Electron microscopy
C) Electrophoresis
D) Immunochemistry
E) Electron spin microscopy
Q3) Fibrin split products are typically found in the urine of patients who have:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Thrombocytopenia
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20529
Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 50% of all carcinomas of the intestine develop in the:
A) Rectosigmoid area
B) Descending colon
C) Transverse colon
D) Ascending colon
E) Small intestine
Q2) Obstructive ileus may be caused by all the following except:
A) Gallstones
B) Fecaliths
C) Volvulus
D) Incarceration of intestinal loops in a hernia sac
E) Spinal cord injury
Q3) Which of the following diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20530
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following serum enzymes is the most reliable marker of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Amylase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) In chronic liver failure there is a marked decrease of blood:
A) Hemoglobin
B) Bilirubin
C) Immunoglobulin G
D) Immunoglobulin M
E) Albumin
Q3) In hemochromatosis the liver contains increased amounts of:
A) Copper
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Selenium
E) Nickel
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20531
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
Q2) Which component of the pancreatic juices acts as a buffer and neutralizes the acidity of the gastric juice?
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Gastrin
E) Bicarbonate
Q3) Which of the following is most typical of diabetes mellitus?
A) Oliguria
B) Anuria
C) Polyuria
D) Proteinuria
E) Cylindruria
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20532
Sample Questions
Q1) Mercury poisoning affects mostly the:
A) Glomeruli
B) Proximal renal tubules
C) Distal renal tubules
D) Collecting ducts
E) Ureter
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A) Membranous nephropathy
B) Lipoid nephrosis
C) Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
D) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q3) Hypertension of chronic kidney disease is medicated with:
A) Erythropoietin
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Renin
D) Calcitonin
E) Adrenalin
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20533
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
Q2) An infertile man was found to have no scrotal testicles.The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) Polyorchidism
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymo-orchitis
Q3) All the following are typical complications of prostatic enlargement except:
A) Cystitis
B) Urinary retention
C) Hydroureters
D) Hydronephrosis
E) Glomerulonephritis
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16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20534
Sample Questions
Q1) Choriocarcinoma of pregnancy originates from the:
A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Endometrium
D) Placental trophoblastic cells
E) Fetal cells in the placenta
Q2) All the following infections of the female genital system are acquired by an ascending route except:
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Chlamydial salpingitis
E) Human papillomavirus infection
Q3) A Pap smear is most appropriate for early detection of:
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Carcinoma of the ovary
C) Endometrial carcinoma
D) Carcinoma of the cervix
E) Leiomyoma
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20535
Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are used successfully in the treatment of breast cancer except:
A) Antiestrogen drugs
B) Cytotoxic drugs
C) Surgery
D) Radiation therapy
E) Hypnosis
Q2) All the following are features of fibrocystic disease of the breast except:
A) Fibrosis
B) Cystic change
C) Epithelial cell proliferation
D) Adenosis
E) Cystosarcoma
Q3) If a woman has a family history of cancer (i.e. ,her mother and her sister had cancer of the breast),her chances of developing breast cancer are:
A) The same as in any other woman
B) Somewhat increased (1 to 2 times)
C) Slightly increased (2 to 3 times)
D) Significantly increased (5 to 6 times)
E) Very high and she will inevitably develop breast cancer
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20536
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones regulates the homeostasis of potassium and sodium?
A) Calcitonin
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) Androgen
D) Aldosterone
E) Glucagon
Q2) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q3) General weakness,cold intolerance,poor appetite,and weight loss following a delivery are typical of:
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Sheehan's syndrome
C) Cushing's disease
D) Adrenogenital syndrome
E) Graves' disease
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Chapter 18: The Skin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20537
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common epithelial malignant tumor of the face is:
A) Fibroma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Lymphoma
Q2) Preinvasive carcinoma of the sun-exposed skin is called:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Basal cell carcinoma
E) Mycosis fungoides
Q3) Measles present with:
A) Maculopapular rash
B) Vesicular eruption
C) Billions eruption
D) Disseminated furunculosis
E) Ulcerations
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20538
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with so-called seropositive rheumatoid arthritis have in their blood antibodies to:
A) Viruses
B) Their own immunoglobulins
C) Smooth muscle cells
D) Cartilage
E) Synovial membrane
Q2) Which of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant cause of dwarfism?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Rickets
E) Osteomalacia
Q3) Migratory arthritis caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is typical of:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Trench foot
C) Lyme disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses is the best-known cause of myositis?
A) Herpesvirus type I
B) Herpesvirus type II
C) CMV
D) Coxsackie virus
E) Mumps virus
Q2) Botulism,a disease caused by a toxin from Clostridium botulinum,is marked by:
A) Tetany
B) Convulsions
C) Paralysis of muscles
D) Loss of sensation
E) Hypercalcemia
Q3) A patient with myasthenia gravis was found to have an anterior mediastinal mass.This mass proved to be a tumor.Most likely it is a:
A) Thyroid adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Smooth muscle cell tumor
E) Thymoma
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20540
Sample Questions
Q1) Most primary malignant tumors of the brain originate from:
A) Neurons
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendroglia cells
D) Microglia cells
E) Meninges
Q2) Axons are cytoplasmic extensions of:
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendroglia cells
C) Microglia cells
D) Neurons
E) Ependymal cells
Q3) Which of the following diseases is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?
A) Alzheimer's disease
B) Tabes dorsalis
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E) Huntington's disease
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Chapter 22: The Eye
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20541
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is the most important cause of cataracts?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Anthracosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Gout
E) Hyperthyroidism
Q2) The most common cause of cataracts in the United States is:
A) Old age
B) Trauma
C) Endophthalmitis
D) Trachoma
E) Radiation
Q3) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
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24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20542
Sample Questions
Q1) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q2) Neural hearing loss is a feature of:
A) Otosclerosis
B) Cholesteatoma
C) Otitis media
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Presbycusis
Q3) Malleus,incus,and stapes are located in the:
A) Auricle
B) Auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Externally to the eardrum
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