Diagnostic Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology is a course that focuses on the principles and techniques used to identify and characterize microorganisms responsible for human disease. Students will explore methods for isolating and culturing bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites from clinical specimens, as well as the use of staining, biochemical testing, serology, and molecular diagnostics in microorganism identification. The course also covers concepts of infection control, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and interpretation of laboratory results, preparing students for roles in clinical and research laboratories.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 5th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Q1) A microbiologist is working with two separate cultures of the same organism.The bacteria in one culture are resistant to penicillin, whereas the bacteria in the other culture are susceptible to penicillin.The bacteria from both cultures are mixed together, and all the resulting bacteria are resistant to penicillin.What caused this phenomenon?
A)The plasmid carrying the resistance gene was transferred to the susceptible population of bacteria.
B)The plasmid carrying the susceptibility gene was transferred to the resistant population of bacteria.
C)An IS element was inserted into the genome of the susceptible bacterial population.
D)A frame-shift mutation occurred that allowed the susceptible population of bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) Healthy people are colonized by many different bacteria in many different sites.These bacteria are referred to as _____ flora.
A)transient
B)carrier
C)maintenance
D)indigenous
Answer: D
Q2) After perforation of the colon, surgeons must guard against infection in the _____ because of leakage of the contents of the colon.
A)peritoneal cavity
B)urinary bladder
C)vaginal flora
D)renal vein
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) What is practiced throughout the hospital and mandates safety for all personnel when handling blood and body fluids?
A)Biosafety level 2
B)Handwashing
C)Wearing of respirators
D)Standard Precautions
Answer: D
Q2) An example of an emerging disease is:
A)influenza.
B)West Nile virus.
C)malaria.
D)chicken pox.
Answer: B
Q3) The hospital infection control committee will expect reports from the laboratory that deal with all the following except:
A)antibiograms.
B)water contamination rates.
C)blood culture contamination rates.
D)pathogens recovered in certain hospital units.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is:
A)mucous membranes.
B)inhalation.
C)ingestion.
D)needlestick.
Q2) The laboratory exposure control plan should contain all the following except:
A)engineer and work practice controls.
B)review of control plan every 5 years.
C)methods of compliance for Standard Precautions.
D)guidelines for handling and disposal of regulated waste.
Q3) Standard Precautions do not address which of the following?
A)Handwashing
B)Gloves
C)Laboratory coats
D)Respirators
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Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for all of the following except:
A)moisture.
B)sterility.
C)breakage.
D)organism colony characteristics.
Q2) When performing tests in the microbiology laboratory, the detection limit of a test refers to the _____ of that test.
A)analytic specificity
B)analytic sensitivity
C)clinical sensitivity
D)clinical specificity
Q3) How can personnel competency be determined?
A)Asking an employee to explain how to do a test
B)Proficiency testing
C)Asking another employee to comment on someone's competency
D)Assuming competency from one's credentials
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) Selective media:
A)allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers.
B)support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media.
C)support the growth of most nonfastidious microbes.
D)support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another.
Q2) What work practice have microbiologists incorporated to keep laboratory testing cost-effective while providing optimum patient care?
A)Using definitive identification for the standard of quality patient care
B)Always identifying organisms to the maximum extent
C)Limited identification procedures
D)Limited antimicrobial susceptibility procedures
Q3) Proper identification of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all the following information except: A)diagnosis.
B)name.
C)identification number.
D)date.
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites
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Q1) You are working in a microbiology laboratory and receive a sputum for culture.You perform a Gram stain on the sputum and get the following results: 3+ gram-positive cocci, greater than 25 epithelial cells/10´ field, less than 10 neutrophils/10´ field, and heavy mucus.What do these results indicate?
A)An acceptable specimen that should be worked up with definitive identification for all bacteria present
B)An unacceptable specimen and workup that should be limited to basic identification of bacteria
C)An unacceptable specimen that should be worked up with definitive identification for all bacteria present
D)An acceptable specimen and workup that should be limited to the basic identification of bacteria
Q2) What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear?
A)Only those elements useful in characterizing the specimen
B)Only elements pertaining to the necrosis present in the specimen
C)Only those elements pertaining to the amount of gram-positive cocci present in the specimen
D)Only those elements of contaminating material present in the specimen
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Chapter 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which organism is described as shiny, like a half-pearl, on media supplemented with horse blood?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Bordetella pertussis
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
Q2) a-Hemolysis is:
A)complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.
B)partial lysing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.
C)when organisms have no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar plate.
D)a pink "halo" around a colony.
Q3) When differentiating colony size on the culture plates, what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison?
A)Gram-negative rods
B)Gram-positive cocci
C)Gram-negative diplococci
D)Gram-positive rods
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Q1) What does the oxidase test determine?
A)If the bacteria have the enzyme, oxidase, to reduce oxygen to carbon dioxide
B)If the bacteria have oxidase, which will allow for the oxidation of carbohydrates
C)If the bacteria can hydrolyze urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide
D)The presence of the cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen
Q2) The chemical reaction for the Ortho-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is:
A)b-galactosidase hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose.
B)glucose ® pyruvic acid ® acetoin.
C)b-galactosidase hydrolyzes o-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside into galactose and o-nitrophenol (a yellow compound).
D)O-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside is oxidized into acetoin and glucose.
Q3) What reagent is used to demonstrate a positive phenylalanine deaminase test?
A)10% Ferric chloride
B)Methyl red
C)a-Naphthol
D)40% Sodium hydroxide
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A significant rise in IgG detected during the convalescent phase is diagnostic for infection and is called:
A)serologic adaptation.
B)convalescence.
C)seroconversion.
D)acute phase reactant.
Q2) Mary went out to eat shellfish last week and is now beginning to feel lethargic.Her urine is tea-colored, and she generally feels bad all over.She recognizes these symptoms and thinks she may have hepatitis A because she got hepatitis last year when she vacationed at the beach.If a physician were to perform a test for hepatitis A antibodies, what class of antibodies would the physician find?
A)IgM
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgD
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) The target nucleic acid strand is the:
A)one to which the extra nucleic acid attaches.
B)DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest.
C)strand that is used as the oligonucleotide primer.
D)one that is labeled with a chromogen.
Q2) The principle of in-solution hybridization is:
A)the hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells.
B)the hybridization between an immobilized labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells.
C)the hybridization between a labeled probe in solution and immobilized target nucleic acids.
D)when two solutions are combined and hybridization occurs between the probe and the target, then the tube is centrifuged to detect the precipitated hybridized target and probes.
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) Which antibiotic interferes with DNA transcription by blocking of RNA chain elongation?
A)Rifampin
B)Quinolone
C)Trimethoprim
D)Glycopeptide
Q2) Antibiotic mechanisms of action target all the following except:
A)blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
B)bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C)DNA replication.
D)RNA transcription.
Q3) All of the following are b-lactam antibiotics except: A)penems.
B)monobactams.
C)carbapenems.
D)monoterpenes.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) What type of antimicrobial susceptibility testing method does Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) recommend for anaerobes?
A)Microdilution
B)Agar dilution
C)Tube broth macrodilution
D)Disk diffusion
Q2) Which enterococcus is/are the most common species demonstrating vancomycin resistance among clinical isolates?
A)Enterococcus faecium
B)E.faecalis
C)Both a and b
D)Neither a nor b
Q3) On a breakpoint panel, when there is growth in the low concentration but no growth in the high concentration, the isolate is:
A)susceptible.
B)resistant.
C)intermediate.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Q1) What tests are used to detect clumping factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococcal species?
A)Novobiocin and hemolysin A
B)Coagulase and latex agglutination
C)Complement fixation and coagulase
D)Latex agglutination and enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Q2) Which staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)S.intermedius
C)S.epidermidis
D)S.saprophyticus
Q3) What is the function of protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus?
A)To keep the structural integrity of the cell wall and keep out antibiotics
B)To bind the IgG and prevent phagocytosis
C)To bind the IgM and inactivate natural killer cells
D)To block the activation of the complement cascade
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) Streptococcus-like organisms that resemble enterococci and viridans streptococci include all the following except:
A)Moraxella.
B)Aerococcus.
C)Gemella.
D)Lactococcus.
Q2) What is VRE?
A)Vancomycin-ready erythromycin
B)Very-reliable erythromycin
C)Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
D)Veocin-resistant enterococcus
Q3) Common schemes to classify streptococci include all the following except:
A)biochemical characteristics.
B)serologic grouping or typing of C carbohydrate.
C)physiologic characteristics.
D)flagellar antigens.
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Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Q1) What organism is responsible for spontaneous abortion and stillborn neonates, and can cause meningitis with a fatality rate approaching 50% in newborns?
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B)Rhodococcus equi
C)Rothia dentocariosa
D)Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) What are the confirmatory tests performed at a state laboratory for Bacillus anthracis?
A)Flagellar antigen and mannitol fermentation
B)Endospore stain and a capsule antigen
C)Cell wall polysaccharide and a capsule antigen
D)Cell wall polysaccharide and an endospore stain
Q3) Which of the following is true about Nocardia spp.?
A)These organisms grow well on standard nonselective media.
B)Growth may take a week or more.
C)Infections occur in immunocompromised patients.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Under what conditions should inoculated plates for Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture be incubated?
A)35° C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide
B)25° C and room air
C)35° C and room air
D)25° C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide
Q2) What is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in women?
A)Untreated gonococcal cervicitis
B)Untreated meningococcal cystitis
C)Treated gonococcal cervicitis
D)Treated meningococcal cystitis
Q3) Gonococcal infections occur primarily in all the following sites except:
A)urethra.
B)endocervix.
C)uterus.
D)anal canal.
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Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) All of the following are rapid methods used to definitively identify Legionella species except:
A)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
B)DNA detection.
C)indirect immunofluorescence.
D)urine antigen testing.
Q2) What are the names of the two diseases caused by Legionella species?
A)Rabbit fever and Pontiac fever
B)Scalded skin syndrome and Legionnaires disease
C)Malta fever and undulating fever
D)Legionnaires disease and Pontiac fever
Q3) What organism is likely to cause an infection after a cat bite?
A)Campylobacter spp.
B)Dysgonomonas capnocytophagoides
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Pasteurella spp.
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon's citrate?
A)Providencia
B)Edwardsiella
C)Escherichia
D)Morganella
Q2) The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following except:
A)hemorrhagic diarrhea.
B)colitis.
C)liver damage.
D)hemolytic-uremic syndrome.
Q3) What substance, when produced by the Salmonella spp., which cause gastroenteritis, has been implicated as a significant virulence factor?
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Protease
C)Enterotoxin
D)Endotoxin
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Chapter 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers, as well as GI carcinoma?
A)Campylobacter jejuni
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)C.curvus
D)H.rectus
Q2) What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera?
A)Vibrio furnissii
B)V.cholerae
C)V.vulnificus
D)V.parahaemolyticus
Q3) When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp.bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible?
A)Buffered glycerol-saline
B)Regan-Lewis
C)Aimes
D)Cary-Blair
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A)Endotoxin
B)Exotoxins
C)Capsule
D)All of the above
Q2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to all the following antimicrobial agents except:
A)ampicillin.
B)chloramphenicol.
C)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
D)fluoroquinolones.
Q3) What two species of Pseudomonas have been linked to transfusion-associated septicemia?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa and P.stutzeri
B)P.fluorescens and P.aeruginosa
C)P.putida and P.fluorescens
D)P.putida and P.mendocina
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab?
A)Aspirate
B)Washing
C)Scraping
D)Lavage
Q2) All of the following organisms are found on the skin under normal conditions except:
A)Propionibacterium.
B)Peptostreptococcus.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Clostridium.
Q3) How are suspected colonies of anaerobes processed?
A)Gram stain morphology and reaction is observed.
B)An aerotolerance test is set up.
C)A pure culture/subculture plate is inoculated and appropriate disks are added.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 23: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Once infected with Borrelia recurrentis, a 2- to 15-day incubation period follows where high numbers of organisms are found in the blood.The infected individual experiences high fever, rigors, severe headache, muscle pains, and weakness.This febrile period lasts for about 3 to 7 days, but ends quickly with the induction of an immune response.However, a similar but less severe course of symptoms recurs several days to weeks later.What causes this relapse?
A)The organism systematically changes its surface antigens during the course of a single infection.
B)The organism produces extracellular toxins that cause the symptoms.
C)This organism survives inside infected cells and once the cell dies, the organism is released into the blood, causing this relapse.
D)This relapse occurs as the host is trying to mount the secondary antibody response.
Q2) What is an example of a nontreponemal test?
A)Rapid plasmin reagin (RPR)
B)Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS)
C)Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA)
D)Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women except:
A)pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B)salpingitis.
C)bacterial vaginosis.
D)endometritis.
Q2) What organism has been established as a risk factor for Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)C.trachomatis
C)C.psittaci
D)C.urealyticum
Q3) What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A)Rickettsia prowazekii
B)R.typhi
C)R.canada
D)R.rickettsii
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following organisms was once called "T-strain mycoplasma?"
A)Ureaplasma spp.
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma fermentans
D)Mycoplasma orale
Q2) Which antibiotic is added to mycoplasma isolation and transport media to minimize bacterial contamination?
A)Tetracycline
B)Penicillin
C)Erythromycin
D)Gentamicin
Q3) What test method is used to detect antibodies to Mycoplasma spp.?
A)Complement fixation (CF)
B)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
C)Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
D)Cellulose ion exchange (CIE)
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria
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Q1) How has the treatment of mycobacterial disease changed in light of the multidrug-resistant strains of mycobacteria that are being isolated?
A)Antibiotic therapy is started sooner in the course of the disease.
B)More powerful antibiotics are used to treat mycobacterial disease.
C)Combinations of three or four drugs are used instead of a single drug.
D)Patients are hospitalized for the duration of their disease.
Q2) When designing a mycobacterial laboratory, the designers should build in all the following engineering controls to keep the workers safe except:
A)inside air vents to outside.
B)nonrecirculating ventilation system.
C)negative air pressure.
D)separate room from main laboratory.
Q3) What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture?
A)To release all bacteria in the sample
B)To make the specimen easier to plate
C)To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
D)To liquefy the outer cell wall of the mycobacteria so that they will grow faster
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) What is the causative agent of black piedra?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Trichosporon beigelii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California?
A)Sporothrix schenckii
B)Penicillium marneffei
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all the following organisms except:
A)Fonsecaea compacta.
B)Penicillium marneffei.
C)Fonsecaea pedrosoi.
D)Phialophora verrucosa.
Q4) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A)Pneumocystis jirovecii
B)Hortaea werneckii
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Parasitology
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Q1) When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A)A thick smear for maximum detection and to determine morphology
B)A PVA trichrome-stained blood smear
C)A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
D)A formalin-ethyl acetate concentration for detection and a thin smear for speciation
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) Complications of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection include all the following except:
A)acute glomerulonephritis.
B)Reye's syndrome.
C)thrombocytopenia purpura with hemolytic anemia.
D)splenic hemorrhage and rupture.
Q2) Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?
A)It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs.
B)It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C)It often has variable numbers of chromosomes and can be subcultured indefinitely.
D)This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.
Q3) Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infections except:
A)acute hemorrhagic cystitis.
B)meningitis.
C)acute respiratory distress.
D)epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology
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Q1) What organism causes glanders?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia mallei
Q2) What is the most common presentation for tularemia?
A)Pneumonic tularemia
B)Ulceroglandular tularemia
C)Bubonic tularemia
D)Septicemic tularemia
Q3) A microbiologist is looking at a set of plates from a seriously ill patient.The sheep blood agar (SBA) plate shows small, nonhemolytic colonies that have a fried egg appearance.On MacConkey, these organisms grow as a small, nonlactose fermenter.On Gram stain, this organism is a bipolar staining, plump gram-negative rod.What is the most probable organism?
A)Brucella mallei
B)Bacillus anthracis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia cepacia
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is stage V of biofilm development?
A)Spreading phase
B)Multiplication phase
C)Cell dispersion
D)Layering phase
Q2) What is a biofilm?
A)Communities of organisms attached to a solid surface
B)The resulting thick, slimy mucous produced in cystic fibrosis
C)A slime factor that can be found in your gastrointestinal tract
D)The resulting film that is produced by necrotic tissue, bacteria, and immune cells
Q3) What is stage IV of biofilm development?
A)Multiplication phase
B)Thickening phase
C)Cell dispersion
D)Planktonic stage
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33
Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of pneumonia has been associated with Staphylococcus aureus that produces Panton-Valentine leukocidin?
A)Methicillin-resistant pneumonia
B)Necrotizing pneumonia
C)Bacterial
D)Viral
Q2) Acute sinusitis usually occurs as a complication of:
A)bacterial pneumonia.
B)viral pneumonia.
C)the common cold.
D)streptococcal pharyngitis.
Q3) What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Parainfluenza virus
C)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D)Influenzae virus
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Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Q1) What causes erythema infectiosum?
A)Parvovirus
B)Herpesvirus
C)Paramyxovirus
D)Togaviridae
Q2) What is the most infamous type of myonecrosis?
A)Tetanus
B)Flesh-eating Streptococcus
C)Gas gangrene
D)Ebola hemorrhage
Q3) What is herpetic whitlow?
A)Primary herpetic lesions of the genitals
B)Primary herpetic lesions of the finger
C)Primary herpetic lesions of the anus
D)Primary herpetic lesions of the lip
Q4) What organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis?
A)Vibrio vulnificus
B)V.parahaemolyticus
C)Campylobacter spp.
D)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Q1) All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea except:
A)Salmonella typhi.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Vibrio cholerae.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) What toxin does Shigella spp.produce?
A)Typhi
B)Enterotoxin
C)Shiga
D)Campy
Q3) What common organism invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread?
A)Vibrio cholerae
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Salmonella typhi
D)Aeromonas spp.
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What virus, spread by the mosquito, causes a typically self-limiting illness, but can be associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis, and fatal encephalitis?
A)West Nile virus
B)Eastern equine encephalitis
C)Colorado tick fever
D)Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Q2) From where do most cerebral abscesses spread?
A)Middle ear infections
B)Mastoiditis
C)Paranasal sinus infections
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in an average adult?
A)90 to 150 mL
B)15 to 45 mL
C)40 to 80 mL
D)200 to 300 mL
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long are conventional (manually processed) blood cultures held before being discarded as negative?
A)4 days
B)7 days
C)14 days
D)21 days
Q2) What type of a medical implant device is commonly associated with osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia?
A)Prosthetic joints
B)Stainless steel rods
C)Orthopedic screws
D)Orthopedic plates
Q3) What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia due to acute pyelonephritis?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Enterobacter aerogenes
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?
A)Sodium citrate
B)Calcium citrate
C)Sodium borate
D)Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA)
Q2) In what type of specimen is the etiologic agent of acute prostatitis usually recovered?
A)Voided midstream urine
B)Suprapubic aspirate
C)Straight catheterization
D)All of the above
Q3) What group has more urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
A)Asymptomatic elderly men
B)Symptomatic sexually active young women
C)Symptomatic middle-age men
D)Elderly women
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) All of the following conditions can occur in women with undiagnosed cervical gonorrhea except:
A)salpingitis.
B)endometritis.
C)pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
D)pharyngitis.
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis?
A)Gummas
B)Chancre
C)Genital warts
D)Strokes
Q3) What organism causes chancroid?
A)Treponema pallidum
B)Haemophilus ducreyi
C)Mobiluncus
D)Gardnerella vaginalis
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of immunodeficiency in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) due to HIV is because of the virus' focused attack on which of the following cell types?
A)Granulocytes
B)Helper T cells
C)Macrophages
D)Stem cells
Q2) To which bacteria are people with C3 deficiency particularly susceptible?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q3) When a child with cancer contracts cytomegalovirus (CMV), how does it manifest?
A)Renal failure
B)Pneumonia
C)Septicemia
D)Meningitis
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the classic symptom of the bubonic plague?
A)Painful swollen lymph nodes
B)Febrile illness
C)Rash on the trunk and limbs
D)Septic shock
Q2) All of the following symptoms are among the most common presentations in tularemia except:
A)ulceroglandular.
B)oropharyngeal.
C)cholera-like.
D)typhoidal.
Q3) What is the most common form of anthrax?
A)Inhalation
B)Cutaneous
C)Gastrointestinal
D)Septicemic
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Q1) Retinitis with what organism is common in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patients?
A)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B)Arenavirus
C)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Q2) All the following diseases are associated with uveitis except: A)juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. B)HIV.
C)Reiter's syndrome.
D)systemic lupus.
Q3) All of the following are common risk factors associated with ocular infection except: A)age. B)sex.
C)personal hygiene.
D)social economic status.
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