Diagnostic Microbiology Solved
Exam Questions
Diagnostic Microbiology focuses on the methods and principles used to identify, isolate, and characterize microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases in humans. This course covers laboratory techniques such as culturing, staining, biochemical testing, molecular diagnostics, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing. Students will learn about pathogen-host interactions, specimen collection and handling, diagnostic workflows for various microorganisms, and the interpretation of laboratory results. Emphasis is placed on quality assurance, biosafety, and the clinical relevance of diagnostic findings in patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
78 Chapters
1245 Verified Questions
1245 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2089 Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41576
Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas)to another genus (Burkholderia)would be correctly noted as which one of the following?
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia)
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas)
C)Pseudomonas,formerly Burkholderia
D)Burkholderia,formerly Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Q2) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:
A)macroscopic morphologic structure.
B)microscopic morphologic structure.
C)nucleic acid composition.
D)antigenic properties.
Answer: C
Q3) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41577
Sample Questions
Q1) In gene regulation and control,induction can be defined as the:
A)mechanism of genetic control in which genes are induced only when the substrate to be degraded by enzymatic action is present.
B)uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA.
C)mechanism of genetic control in which genes are not transcribed and therefore are not expressed in the presence of those target products in sufficient supply.
D)change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
Answer: A
Q2) A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (ribonucleic acid [RNA] or protein)is defined as a: A)gene.
B)genome.
C)nucleotide.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41578
Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling,redness,heat,and pain are all manifestations of:
A)nosocomial infection.
B)inflammation.
C)bacterial colonization.
D)coagulation.
Answer: B
Q2) An individual whose resident normal microbiota overgrows the other indigenous organisms resulting in disease may be a result of:
A)the patient has received antibiotic treatment killing off some of the protective resident microbiota.
B)become immunocompromised or unable to fight off infection in normal conditions.
C)maybe suffering from a debilitating disease resulting in a decreased balance between normal microbiota and pathogenic organisms.
D)all of the scenarios are potentially associated with the development of disease.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41579
Sample Questions
Q1) Applying a chemical to the surface of the laboratory bench to remove the contaminating microorganisms is considered:
A)sterilization.
B)disinfection.
C)decontamination.
D)pasteurization.
Q2) The agency that has published guidelines known as Standard Precautions to reduce the risk of disease transmission in laboratories is:
A)DHEC.
B)OSHA.
C)CDC.
D)EPA.
Q3) To be sterilized in an autoclave,media or instruments should be:
A)packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.
B)processed for 15 minutes at 121°C and 15 psi pressure.
C)processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132°C and 15 psi pressure.
D)processed for at least 1 hour at 121°C and 15 psi pressure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41580
Sample Questions
Q1) Ambient air,which contains 21% oxygen (O )and a small amount (0.03%)of carbon dioxide (CO ),is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D)To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
Q3) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms,but not another,by containing antimicrobials,dyes,or alcohol?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
7
Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41581
Sample Questions
Q1) An organism such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis would absorb which stain in its cell wall?
A)Crystal violet
B)Methylene blue
C)Carbolfuchsin
D)Malachite green
Q2) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by:
A)changing objectives for various specimens.
B)increasing the resolution or resolving power.
C)staining techniques.
D)adding a blue filter to the light path.
Q3) When reporting a direct smear from a primary specimen,it is important to note all of the following except:
A)white blood cells.
B)squamous epithelial cells.
C)artifacts.
D)prominent cell shapes and arrangements.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41582
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control from commercially prepared media includes all of the following except:
A)receipt and verification of storage or transportation conditions.
B)visual inspection for discoloration or contamination.
C)pH the media using litmus paper.
D)verification of lot numbers and expiration dates.
Q2) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to:
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)support the growth of only pathogenic organisms.
Q3) A positive pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR)test was observed on a species of Enterococcus.What color should be observed for this reaction?
A)Purple
B)Red
C)Green
D)Pink
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41583
Sample Questions
Q1) The target in the hybridization assay can be described as:
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.
C)originating from an organism of known identity.
D)an enzyme that adds nucleotides during the replication process.
Q2) What differentiates diagnostic techniques that employ phenotypic (culture-based)methods from those that employ molecular methods?
A)Phenotypic methods are highly sensitive and specific,while molecular methods are not.
B)Phenotypic methods examine the growth behavior of a microorganism and the proteins,enzymes,or toxins produced,while molecular methods examine the genetic makeup.
C)Phenotypic methods are quantitative while molecular methods are not.
D)Phenotypic methods are not limited to detection of live organisms as are molecular methods.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41584
Sample Questions
Q1) For most pathogens to be diagnostic of current infection,there must be a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
A)decrease;two B)increase;two C)decrease;four D)increase;four
Q2) Neutralizing antibodies are those that function by:
A)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement.
B)binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells.
C)attaching to the surface of pathogens and making the pathogens more amenable to ingestion by phagocytic cells.
D)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by chemotaxis.
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41585
Sample Questions
Q1) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q2) The mechanism of acquired,high-level resistance to vancomycin involves:
A)enzymatic destruction of the antibiotic.
B)altered antibiotic targets.
C)decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D)production of altered cell wall precursors that do not bind the antibiotic with sufficient avidity.
Q3) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41586
Sample Questions
Q1) Daptomycin requires free calcium for its antibacterial action,is inhibited by pulmonary surfactant,and has activity against gram-positive bacteria.Gram-positive bacterial isolates can be tested for daptomycin susceptibility.For which type of infection should daptomycin susceptibility NOT be reported?
A)Bacteremia
B)Meningitis
C)Pneumonia
D)Skin/Soft tissue infection
Q2) A bacterial suspension of 1.5× 10 colony-forming units (CFUs)/mL is comparable with which McFarland standard?
A)0.5
B)1.0
C)1.5
D)2.0
Q3) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to: A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins. D)linezolid.
13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41587
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?
A)S.aureus and S.epidermidis
B)S.epidermidis and Enterococcus
C)Aerococcus and Enterococcus
D)Micrococcus and Aerococcus
Q2) Isolates of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus from urinary tract infections can be presumptively identified as S.saprophyticus on the basis of its:
A)penicillin susceptibility.
B)novobiocin resistance.
C)penicillin resistance.
D)novobiocin susceptibility.
Q3) Which of the following methods combines nucleic acid amplification testing and mass spectrometry (MS)for identification of S.aureus and MRSA?
A)Serodiagnosis
B)CHROMagar
C)The Xpert MRSA/SA test
D)PCR/ESI-MS
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41588
Sample Questions
Q1) Generally speaking,nutritionally variant streptococci require what ingredient not found in most conventional media?
A)Vitamin B
B)Nalidixic acid and its components
C)Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)enrichment
D)Blood or blood products
Q2) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?
A) hemolysis
B) hemolysis
C) hemolysis
D)k hemolysis
Q3) Bacitracin,CAMP factor,PYR,and hippurate are tests most likely performed on a(n)_______ Streptococcus.
A) alpha-hemolytic
B) beta-hemolytic
C) gamma-hemolytic
D)non-hemolytic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41589
Sample Questions
Q1) A gram-positive Bacillus,which is -hemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar,produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar,is nonmotile,and was isolated from the stool of a patient with abdominal pain and watery diarrhea.Because of the patient's existing immunocompromised state,the physician administered penicillin as the antibiotic therapy.The patient's condition did not improve after 7 days of treatment.Which one of the following statements explains the reason for the antibiotic failure?
A)The course was too abbreviated and should be given for 14 days.
B)The patient may be allergic to penicillin and its therapeutic effects.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against gram-positive organisms.
D)The organism produces -lactamase,which renders the drug inactive.
Q2) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41590
Sample Questions
Q1) The isolation of a small gram-positive,catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for:
A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
Q2) A 13-year-old girl presented to her physician complaining of being tired,having a mild sore throat and fever.She appears to have a grey coating on her tonsils when examined by the physician.The most logical etiologic agent associated with the patient's illness is:
A)Streptococcal pharyngitis.
B)diphtheriae.
C)scarlet fever.
D)Tonsillitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41591
Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old woman suspected of having sepsis caused by G.vaginalis has multiple blood cultures drawn;however,all sets were negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The lot of blood culture media is most likely defective.
B)The blood culture bottles should be incubated anaerobically to enhance the growth of the organism.
C)G.vaginalis is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)in the blood culture.
D)No discrepancy is present.G.vaginalis remains localized and does not cause sepsis.
Q2) A farmer has a localized,painful skin infection.Cultures are set up,and -hemolytic,catalase-negative,and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information,which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease,H S production in TSI,and nitrate reduction?
A)Positive urease,positive TSI,and positive nitrate
B)Positive urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
C)Negative urease,positive TSI,and negative nitrate
D)Negative urease,negative TSI,and negative nitrate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41592
Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic,granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues,which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts,is referred to as:
A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
Q2) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A)Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B)Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C)Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D)Nocardia and Streptomyces
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41593
Sample Questions
Q1) E.coli can produce a toxin similar to S.dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis.What other organ does it affect?
A)Heart
B)Lungs
C)Liver
D)Kidney
Q2) An organism that appears red with a black center on XLD agar is lactose-_____ and H S-_____.
A)positive;positive
B)positive;negative
C)negative;positive
D)negative;negative
Q3) A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen.It is most likely which organism?
A)E.coli
B)Salmonella spp.
C)Shigella spp.
D)K.pneumoniae
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41594
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by:
A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)nitrate reduction.
Q2) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp. ,such as pneumonia or bacteremia,effective treatment may require the use of:
A)multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B)a -lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C)repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D)single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
Q3) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)B.trematum
C)Burkholderia gladioli
D)S.maltophilia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41595
Sample Questions
Q1) The following species,P.aeruginosa,P.fluorescens,Pseudomonas putida,P.veronii,Pseudomonas monteilii,and Pseudomonas mosselii,all produce a water-soluble,yellow-green pigment called:
A)pyocyanin.
B)pyomelanin.
C)pyorubrum.
D)pyoverdin.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about susceptibility testing or treatment of P.aeruginosa?
A)Susceptibility testing is required to detect intrinsic resistance.
B)Repeat susceptibility testing may be needed to monitor development of resistance.
C)Susceptibility testing of isolates from cystic fibrosis patients following standard protocols gives reliable results.
D)Treatment with a single antimicrobial agent,such as -lactam with antipseudomonal activity,is recommended.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41596
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism,that rarely causes human infection,grows poorly at 35°C;however,grows optimally between 20°C and 25°C?
A)Psychrobacter pulmonis
B)A.xylosoxidans
C)R.radiobacter
D)S.putrefaciens
Q2) The natural habitat of Ochrobactrum spp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Ochrobactrum and Alcaligenes
B)Psychrobacter and Rhizobium
C)CDC group Ic and CDC group O-3
D)CDC group OFBA-1c and Shewanella
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41597
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A)E.meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B)Chryseobacterium spp.and E.meningoseptica
C)E.meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D)Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
Q2) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A)environment.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)human normal flora.
Q3) Decontamination strategies used for potable water and the control of E.meningoseptica are similar to those utilized for which organism?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Legionella spp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 24
Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41598
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A)B.bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B)A.denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C)Achromobacter piechaudii and B.bronchiseptica
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Alcaligenes-like group 1 and C.pauculus
Q2) Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella are all:
A)urea positive.
B)oxidase negative.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)lactose fermenters.
Q3) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41599
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism,which is oxidase positive,does not grow on TCBS agar,has the ability to decarboxylate lysine and ornithine but cannot utilize arginine,and would have the following colonial characteristics on sheep blood agar and MacConkey agar?
A) -Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
B) -Hemolytic and is a lactose fermenter
C) -Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
D) -Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
Q2) Which of the following species of Aeromonas is oxidase-positive,sucrose-positive,and can decarboxylate ornithine?
A) A.caviae
B)Allium schubertii
C)Aeromonas hydrophila
D)A.veronii biovar veronii
Q3) The drug of choice to treat patients with V.cholerae is:
A)tetracycline.
B)ceftazidime.
C)imipenem.
D)aztreonam.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41600
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Q2) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections,which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A)Penicillin
B)Ttrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Amoxicillin and Flagyl
D)Isoniazid and Imipenem
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax,Sphingobacterium,and Sphingomonas?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are unknown.
C)Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Moraxella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41601
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of deoxyribonuclease (DNase)media?
A)M.atlantae and M.lacunata
B)M.lacunata and M.lincolnii
C)M.nonliquefaciens and M.canis
D)M.osloensis and M.lacunata
Q2) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections,primarily of the respiratory tract,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations,M.atlantae will appear as:
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short,broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41602
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41603
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
Q3) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact,including bites?
A)S.paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)P.multocida
D)W.virosa
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41604
Sample Questions
Q1) To test the validity of catalase reagent,which two organisms should be used?
A)A.actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B)C.hominis and A.aphrophilus
C)K.denitrificans and K.kingae
D)Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q2) Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with C.hominis?
A)Chloramphenicol and tetracycline
B)Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin
C)Ampicillin and ceftriaxone
D)Penicillin,with or without an aminoglycoside agent
Q3) A.actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from A.aphrophilus by its:
A)negative test for catalase.
B)positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)positive test for catalase.
D)negative test for oxidase.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Haemophilus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41605
Sample Questions
Q1) Isolates from CSF that are gram-negative coccobacilli,grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar,require factor V but not X,and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:
A)H.parainfluenzae.
B)H.influenzae.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)H.ducreyi.
Q2) Of the following media,which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain-heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
Q3) Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:
A)H.influenzae.
B)Haemophilus ducreyi.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41606
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
Q2) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
Q3) Trench fever,bacteremia,endocarditis,chronic lymphadenopathy,and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A)A.felis.
B)B.quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41607
Sample Questions
Q1) Curved,microaerophilic,gram-negative rods,with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines,describe which group of bacteria?
A)Campylobacter
B)Helicobacter
C)Arcobacter
D)Enterobacter
Q2) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A)37°C under microaerobic conditions
B)37°C under anaerobic conditions
C)42°C under microaerobic conditions
D)42°C under anaerobic conditions
Q3) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample,which would reveal many:
A)large,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41608
Sample Questions
Q1) The natural habitat of L.pneumophila is:
A)freshwater streams.
B)the upper respiratory tract of humans and animals.
C)the large intestine of humans and animals.
D)foods contaminated by soil.
Q2) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
Q3) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative,faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A)Fluoroquinolones
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Aminoglycosides
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: Brucella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41609
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
Q2) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q3) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41610
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of its longer shelf life,the medium of choice to cultivate Bordetella spp.is:
A)buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B)thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)agar.
C)Bordet-Gengou agar.
D)Regan-Lowe agar.
Q2) Acceptable specimens for the detection of B.pertussis are: A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swabs.
Q3) The mode of transmission of B.pertussis can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Francisella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41611
Sample Questions
Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A)blood.
B)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C)lymph nodes.
D)urine.
Q2) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q3) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41612
Sample Questions
Q1) A lesion from an individual that works in a research laboratory is cultured and reveals a "fried egg" appearance with a dark center when grown on blood agar after 48 hours of incubation.The organism is nonmotile,indole,catalase,oxidase,and nitrate negative.Which of the following organism was isolated?
A)Streptobacillus sp.
B)Actinobacillus sp.
C)Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D)Cardiobacterium sp.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 39
Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41613
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is true regarding antimicrobial therapy and susceptibility testing?
A)Cephalosporins and macrolides are ineffective against M.catarrhalis.
B)Resistance to quinolones is emerging in strains of N.gonorrhoeae.
C)Most Neisseria spp.are resistant to penicillin.
D)Most strains of N.meningitidis are resistant to penicillin.
Q2) The second most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the United States,according to the CDC,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)N.gonorrhoeae.
C)N.meningitidis.
D)HIV.
Q3) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.
A)hydrogen (H )
B)carbon dioxide (CO )
C)nitrogen (N )
D)nitrate (NO )
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41614
Sample Questions
Q1) CCFA
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q2) Prereduced,anaerobically sterilized (PRAS)media:
A)are produced,packaged,shipped,and stored under anaerobic conditions.
B)have a short shelf life of only 2 weeks.
C)enable the culture to be incubated in the regular incubator under aerobic conditions.
D)contain peroxides that enhance the growth of certain anaerobes.
Q3) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q4) Urine via percutaneous aspiration is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41615
Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant,kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)B.fragilis group.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
Q2) Porphyromonas spp.
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) The most likely identification of a bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)Bacteroides fragilis group.
D)pigmented Prevotella.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41616
Sample Questions
Q1) In the identification of mycobacterial isolates,the Tween 80 test involves:
A)an enzyme that is able to produce Tween 80 from certain ingredients found in the medium.
B)a lipase that is able to hydrolyze polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate into oleic acid and polyoxyethylated sorbitol.
C)the metabolism of niacin to nicotinic acid by enzymatic action.
D)testing the isolate for susceptibility to Tween 80.
Q2) The fluorochrome method of staining Mycobacterium:
A)is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B)enables the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C)results in a lower yield of positive smears.
D)increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.
Q3) On Gram stain,mycobacteria appear as:
A)slender,well-stained gram-positive bacilli.
B)poorly stained,beaded,gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.
D)partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41617
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following organisms,which has a unique developmental life cycle including a replicative form,the reticulate body (RB),and an extracellular,metabolically inert,infective form,the elementary body (EB)?
A)Rickettsia
B)Chlamydia
C)Ehrlichia
D)Coxiella
Q2) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A)Lice
B)Ticks
C)Fleas
D)Chiggers
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41618
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q2) Which of the following Mycoplasma species is associated with individuals who are positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),is capable of invading human cells,and can modulate the immune system?
A)M.pneumoniae
B)M.genitalium
C)M.hominis
D)Mycoplasma fermentans
Q3) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)latex agglutination.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Page 45
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41619
Sample Questions
Q1) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospirae that includes fever,headache,myalgia,and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called:
A)icteric leptospirosis.
B)anicteric leptospirosis.
C)Weil's disease.
D)syphilis.
Q3) The most severe illness associated with leptospirae,with symptoms of liver,kidney,and/or vascular dysfunction with lethal pulmonary hemorrhage and sometimes death,is called:
A)icteric leptospirosis.
B)anicteric leptospirosis.
C)Vincent's disease.
D)syphilis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 46
Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41620
Sample Questions
Q1) The parasite T.gondii is acquired via the ingestion of infected oocysts from cat feces.A diagnosis is primarily made through:
A)examination of stool.
B)examination of blood films.
C)observance of "jerky" motility.
D)serologic means.
Q2) Babesia spp.is transmitted via the bite of a tick and can cause severe disease in patients who have been splenectomized or who are immunocompromised.To diagnose accurately these patient populations,the specimen of choice is: A)stool.
B)urine.
C)genital sample.
D)blood.
Q3) The permanent stained smear protocol of the O&P examination:
A)requires freshly passed,unpreserved stool.
B)is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts,coccidian oocysts,microsporidial spores,and helminth eggs and larvae.
C)is microscopically examined at low,high dry,and oil immersion magnifications.
D)is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.
Page 47
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41621
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has amebic colitis.A microscopic examination reveals the following:
·18 µm in diameter
·Fine granules
·Centrally located karyosome
·Cytoplasm with a "ground-glass" appearance
·RBC inclusions
This protozoan can be identified as:
A)Entamoeba dispar.
B)E.histolytica.
C)Entamoeba hartmanni.
D)E.coli.
Q2) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)is the most effective prophylaxis and treatment in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)with which type of infection?
A)Cyclospora
B)Sarcocystis
C)Cryptosporidium
D)Toxoplasma
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48
Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41622
Sample Questions
Q1) Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?
A)T.cruzi
B)T.rangeli
C)T.brucei rhodesiense
D)T.brucei gambiense
Q2) T.brucei gambiense
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
Q3) P.ovale
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41623
Sample Questions
Q1) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q2) A 15-year-old male was diving in a lake when he inhaled some of the stagnate water.Five days later he was admitted to the hospital,comatose,and in critical condition.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen was taken,and several motile amoebae were observed.The patient would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following conditions?
A)Granulomatous amebic encephalitis
B)Primary amebic meningoencephalitis
C)Secondary amebic encephalitis
D)Chronic granulomatous meningitis
Q3) The CSF would reveal which of the following results in infections caused by N.fowleri?
A)Increased glucose,increased protein,and positive Gram stain
B)Decreased glucose,decreased protein,and negative Gram stain
C)Decreased glucose,increased protein,and negative Gram stain
D)Increased glucose,decreased protein,and positive Gram stain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
50
Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41624
Sample Questions
Q1) The eggs of the A.lumbricoides worm are ingested and hatched in the duodenum,penetrate the intestinal wall,and migrate to the hepatic portal circulation.Its geographic distribution and infection rate are associated with:
A)institutional crowding.
B)poor sanitation.
C)day care centers.
D)moist warm soil.
Q2) A short buccal capsule,large bulb on the esophagus,and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A)T.trichiura
B)Capillaria philippinensis
C)S.stercoralis
D)A.lumbricoides
Q3) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A)Trichuris trichiura.
B)Strongyloides stercoralis.
C)Ascaris lumbricoides.
D)Necator americanus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41625
Sample Questions
Q1) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?
A)Brain
B)Meninges
C)Myocardium
D)Striated muscle
Q2) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or Ancylostoma caninum;however,pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A)ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B)metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C)mebendazole or ivermectin.
D)albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 52
Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41626
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made,and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A)W.bancrofti.
B)Onchocerca volvulus.
C)Loa loa.
D)Brugia malayi.
Q2) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by W.bancrofti is:
A)calabar swelling.
B)elephantiasis.
C)river blindness.
D)pruritic rash.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 53
Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41627
Sample Questions
Q1) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.
A)D.latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Taenia saginata
D)Taenia solium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41628
Sample Questions
Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism,E.multilocularis,are:
A)foxes.
B)coyotes.
C)rodents.
D)humans.
Q2) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
Q3) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41629
Sample Questions
Q1) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish.
B)snails.
C)crabs.
D)crayfish.
Q2) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces are best described as:
A)cercariae,miracidium larva,metacercariae,and redia.
B)redia,metacercariae,cercariae,and miracidium larva.
C)miracidium larva,redia,cercariae,and metacercariae.
D)metacercariae,miracidium larva,cercariae,and redia.
Q3) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm,which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore,has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs,cats,and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater: A)snails.
B)fish.
C)crabs.
D)shrimp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56
Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41630
Sample Questions
Q1) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 µm by 40 µm,are unembryonated and operculated,and have thick shells that are brownish-yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A)Japan
B)Africa
C)New Guinea
D)South America
Q2) Sheep liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q3) Chinese liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41631
Sample Questions
Q1) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q2) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A)copepod.
B)crustacean.
C)freshwater snail.
D)freshwater fish.
Q3) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58
Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41632
Sample Questions
Q1) A 59-year-old patient with cancer who was receiving high doses of chemotherapy developed a secondary lung infection that was identified as a fungus.The organism disseminated,which ultimately was fatal to the patient.The organism isolated from sputum exhibited septate hyphae that were dichotomous.The organism is most likely which of the following?
A)Candida
B)Cryptococcus
C)Aspergillus
D)Zygomycetes
Q2) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
A)inoculation.
B)inhalation.
C)arthropod.
D)blood.
Q3) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:
A)Candida albicans.
B)Coccidioides immitis.
C)Cryptococcus neoformans.
D)Aspergillus fumigatus.
Page 59
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 58:
Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41633
Sample Questions
Q1) Budding yeast resembling a "mariner's wheel"
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Cigar-shaped yeast cells
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which dermatophyte usually fluoresces yellow-green under a Wood's lamp?
A)Microsporum gypseum
B)Trichophyton verrucosum
C)Microsporum audouinii
D)Epidermophyton floccosum
Page 60
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41634
Sample Questions
Q1) Black-grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q2) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q3) Tinea nigra
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 61
Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41635
Sample Questions
Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q2) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A)Metronidazole
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D)Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
62
Chapter 61: The Yeasts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41636
Sample Questions
Q1) White piedra
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
Q2) A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)notices skin lesions on his back that have begun to ulcerate.Upon physical examination,his physician also notices hepatomegaly that is most likely caused by hepatitis.The physician prescribes antifungal therapy to prevent the dissemination of which of the following yeasts?
A)C.albicans
B)C.neoformans
C)C.glabrata
D)C.tropicalis
Q3) In general,yeast reproduces asexually by the formation of:
A)ascospores.
B)basidiospores.
C)blastoconidia.
D)arthroconidia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
63
Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing,
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41637
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:
A)nystatin.
B)griseofulvin.
C)amphotericin B.
D)fluconazole.
Q2) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 64
Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41638
Sample Questions
Q1) Nasopharyngeal
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q2) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) MRC-5 cell lines
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 65
Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41639
Sample Questions
Q1) Kaposi's sarcoma
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q2) Shingles
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q3) Myocarditis
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 66
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41640
Sample Questions
Q1) Quantifies the amount of viruses infected in cells.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Acyclovir
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q3) The recombinant virus assay (RVA)uses which type of amplification methodology?
A)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
B)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
C)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
D)Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 67
Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41641
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A)Histoplasma capsulatum
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Candida albicans
Q2) The BACTEC automated blood culture system detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon dioxide (CO )levels using which type of sensor?
A)Fluorescence
B)Colorimetric
C)Isotopic
D)Saponin
Q3) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:
A)pathogenic.
B)virulent.
C)a contaminant.
D)normal flora.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41642
Sample Questions
Q1) M.pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q2) Adenoviruses are one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q3) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults,regardless of age,is:
A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)S.pyogenes.
C)S.pneumoniae.
D)M.pneumoniae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
69
Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41643
Sample Questions
Q1) Laryngotracheobronchitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening disease because the patient's airway can become completely obstructed (blocked)if not treated.Which bacterium usually causes this disease?
A)Haemophilus influenzae type B
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Type A influenza virus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 70
Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41644
Sample Questions
Q1) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
Q3) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the: A)choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41645
Sample Questions
Q1) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
Q2) What is the proper specimen for culture and identification of the agent of acute sinusitis?
A)Aspirated material that has been collected by puncture of the maxillary sinus
B)Drainage material found in the upper respiratory passages that has been collected with a swab
C)Coughed up sinus drainage collected in a sterile cup
D)Sinus drainage
Q3) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)H.influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)M.catarrhalis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41646
Sample Questions
Q1) Pyelonephritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
Q2) Mucosal antibacterial properties,a valvelike mechanism,host immune responses,and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A)digestive
B)upper respiratory
C)urinary
D)genital
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41647
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial vaginosis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by blood-borne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q2) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called: A)PID.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 74
Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41648
Sample Questions
Q1) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:
A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
Q4) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Page 75
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41649
Sample Questions
Q1) Meleney ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups,often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication,particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups,often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication,particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41650
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q2) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
Q3) Human bites and animal bites caused by ________ and _________,respectively,can ultimately lead to an underlying bone infection.
A)Eikenella corrodens;Actinomyces spp.
B)Pasteurella multocida;Peptostreptococcus spp.
C)Prevotella spp. ;S.aureus
D)E.corrodens;P.multocida
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 77
Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41651
Sample Questions
Q1) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Defining the process from the patient's perspective,which is what the patient knowingly pays for,or the attributes of service
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is,potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A)elevated thyroid level.
B)positive urine culture.
C)positive blood culture.
D)elevated sodium level.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 78
Chapter 77: Infection Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41652
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?
A)H.influenzae
B)Mycoplasma pneumonia
C)Parvovirus B19
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens,such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest,is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41653
Sample Questions
Q1) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q3) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated,and if the colony is oxidase-,urease-,and indole-negative,and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain,then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A)Bacillus anthracis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Brucella spp.
D)Yersinia pestis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 80