Diagnostic Microbiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices used to detect, identify, and analyze pathogenic microorganisms in clinical samples. Students will examine the morphology, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites as they relate to disease processes. The course emphasizes laboratory techniques such as microscopy, culturing, biochemical testing, immunological assays, and molecular diagnostics. Through hands-on and theoretical components, students gain proficiency in interpreting laboratory results, understanding antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and recognizing the role of diagnostic microbiology in patient care, infection control, and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a type II restriction enzyme recognition site?
A) GAATTC
B) GAATTG
C) GAAAAG
D) GATCAG
Answer: A
Q2) In sexual recombination, new combinations of genes are created by which of the following processes?
A) Transduction
B) Crossing over
C) Conjugation
D) Transformation
Answer: B
Q3) In DNA replication, the leading strand is the strand that has which orientation?
A) 5'to 3'
B) 3'to 5'
C) Both strands are leading.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lactose operon, which of the following configurations would result in gene expression?
A) Promoter +, Operator +, Repressor +, no inducer present
B) Promoter -, Operator +, Repressor +, no inducer present
C) Promoter -, Operator -, Repressor +, inducer present
D) Promoter +, Operator +, Repressor -, no inducer present
Answer: D
Q2) Synthesis of DNA guided by a RNA template is:
A) Translation
B) DNA replication
C) Transcription
D) Reverse transcription
Answer: D
Q3) The most frequently methylated base in vertebrates is:
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Thymine
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) At physiological pH, amino acids are:
A) Anions
B) Cations
C) Neutral
D) Zwitterions
Answer: D
Q2) A codon consists of a sequence of how many nucleotides?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: C
Q3) In the ribosome, the growing peptide moves from site to site in what direction?
A) A to E to P
B) P to A to E
C) E to P to A
D) A to P to E
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the yield of RNA from the sample with concentration of 450 \(\mu\)g/mL and a volume of 0.3 mL?
A) 135 \(\mu\)g
B) 150 \(\mu\)g
C) 225 \(\mu\)g
D) 450 \(\mu\)g
Q2) In organic DNA extraction methods, the DNA is found in which fraction?
A) Upper aqueous
B) Lower aqueous
C) Upper hydrophobic
D) Lower hydrophobic
Q3) DNA is isolated from a clinical sample. The absorbance at 260 nm is 0.489, and the absorbance at 280 nm is 0.257. Is this sample of sufficient quality for use in subsequent analyses?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Cannot be determined with the data given
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the density of a sample relative to the density of the buffer prior to loading the sample into a gel, which of the following is added to the sample?
A) Glycerol
B) Ethidium bromide
C) Formaldehyde
D) Tris acetate EDTA
Q2) Which of the following molecules polymerize to form a support medium through which nucleic acids move?
A) Ethidium bromide
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
C) Sodium dodecyl sulfate
D) Polyacrylamide
Q3) What is an advantage of agarose over polyacrylamide gels?
A) Agarose is more stable than polyacrylamide.
B) Agarose monomers are not toxic.
C) Acrylamide takes a long time to polymerize.
D) Polyacrylamide gels must be used immediately after polymerization.
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A circular molecule with one restriction enzyme recognition site will yield how many fragments when digested by the restriction enzyme?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) The melting temperature of nucleic acid is the temperature when:
A) All of the double-stranded DNA is single-stranded
B) Half of the double-stranded DNA is single-stranded
C) A quarter of the double-stranded DNA is single-stranded
D) All of the single-stranded DNA is double-stranded
Q3) A Southern blot procedure has been performed, but the molecular weight markers are the only bands seen on the gel. Apparently, the probe did not bind to its target on the membrane. How might the stringency be adjusted so that the probe will bind?
A) Decrease the incubation temperature.
B) Decrease the salt concentration.
C) Increase the formamide concentration.
D) Increase the incubation temperature.
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following nucleic acid amplification procedures is a hybrid nucleic acid labeled with detectable signal?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Strand displacement amplification
C) Transcription-mediated amplification
D) Hybrid capture assay
Q2) What is the purpose of an amplification control in PCR?
A) To check for contamination
B) To distinguish true positives from false positives
C) To distinguish true negatives from false negatives
D) To protect the template from degradation
Q3) Which of the following PCR controls ensures that the reaction mix is not contaminated with amplicons from a previous PCR procedure and must not have a PCR product detected in order to be valid?
A) Positive control
B) Sensitivity control
C) Reagent blank
D) Amplification control
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9
Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A polymorphism is distinguished from a mutation in what way?
A) Its frequency in a given population
B) The size of the genetic region involved
C) The severity of effect on phenotype
D) Associations with other genetic events
Q2) The karyotype of a normal male is designated by which of the following?
A) 46, XX
B) 46, XY
C) 47, XX
D) 47, XY
Q3) How is high-resolution banding achieved?
A) Increase the concentration of Giemsa.
B) Stain the chromosomes longer.
C) Stain the chromosomes at low temperatures.
D) Stain the chromosomes before maximal condensation.
Q4) In a C banding pattern, what part of the chromosome stains?
A) Whole chromosome
B) Heterochromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Centromere
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Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following assays can be used in high-throughput applications?
A) Melt curve assay
B) Heteroduplex analysis
C) PCR-RFLP
D) Homogenous MassExtend
Q2) Which of the following methodologies was used in the Human Haplotype Mapping Project?
A) Melt curve analysis
B) Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis
C) Protein truncation test
D) Inversion probe assay
Q3) Which is a frameshift mutation?
A) Loss of one codon
B) A 3-base insertion
C) A 6-base deletion
D) A 2-base deletion
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11
Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pyrosequencer detects visible light, making it which type of instrument?
A) Luminometer
B) UV spectrotometer
C) Mass spectrometer
D) Fluorometer
Q2) In bioinformatics, when a sequence is entered and compared with all other sequences in a database, which of the following is being performed?
A) Algorithm
B) Query
C) Motif
D) Annotation
Q3) In Maxam-Gilbert sequencing, a band that is present in the lane from the tube treated with formic acid (G or A) but not the tube treated with dimethyl sulfate (G) is read as which of the following nucleotides?
A) A
B) T
C) C
D) G
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12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondrial polymorphisms used for human identification are found in what part of the mitochondrial genome?
A) In the mitochondrial tRNA genes
B) At the origin of transcription
C) In the hypervariable regions
D) Anywhere on the circular genome
Q2) A woman has been sexually assaulted by an unknown man. Which of the following laboratory procedures can be used to more accurately analyze residual DNA left by the man in an effort to identify him?
A) RFLP
B) STR
C) Y-STR
D) VNTR
Q3) Which of the following is used as a marker of gender?
A) D8S1179
B) Amelogenin
C) TPOX
D) Penta D
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13
Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a flow cytometry test?
A) Hybrid capture
B) NASBA
C) TMA
D) HPV OncoTect
Q2) A PCR assay using primers specific for the autolysin gene (lytA) was performed on a sputum specimen from a 10-year-old girl. The specimen was positive, and all controls were acceptable. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these results?
A) Definitive diagnosis of clinically significant Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia is made.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae is present, but clinical significance is questionable.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is detected, and the girl should be isolated.
D) The patient has Chlamydophila pneumoniae pneumonia.
Q3) HIV genotyping is performed for which of the following reasons?
A) Monitor development of antiretroviral drug resistance
B) Confirm HIV infection
C) Quantify amount of HIV in the patient
D) Determine source of HIV
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Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondrial mutations primarily affect which of the following tissues?
A) Skin
B) Bone
C) Muscle
D) Lung
Q2) A pedigree was examined over four generations of a family with an abnormal rate of genetic disease. Scientists observed that males and females alike were affected by the disease but only when their mother was also affected. The children of affected males were all normal. All the children of affected females were affected. Which of the following describes this inheritance pattern?
A) Mitochondrial related
B) Autosomal dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Sex linked
Q3) A deceased family member is indicated in a pedigree by which of the following?
A) Triangle
B) Shaded symbol
C) Slash through the symbol
D) X across the symbol
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following targets is tissue specific but not necessarily tumor specific?
A) PML/RARA
B) EWS/FLI-1
C) EGFR
D) BCR/ABL
Q2) T-cell receptor gene rearrangements were analyzed by PCR using forward and reverse primers complementary to the V<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 and J<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 regions, respectively, of the T-cell receptor gene region. The products were separated by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and bands visualized using ethidium bromide. The lane corresponding to the patient had a sharp band. All controls were acceptable. How is this result interpreted?
A) The patient has a monoclonal (monotypic) T-cell population.
B) The patient is normal and has polyclonal T cells.
C) This is a false positive because of amplification of immunoglobulin genes.
D) The assay should be repeated because the wrong primers were used.
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are only expressed constitutively on "professional antigen-presenting cells," such as B lymphocytes?
A) HLA-A
B) Complement C2
C) TNF-alpha
D) Class II antigens
Q2) Which is a nucleic acid-based test?
A) CDC
B) Isoelectric focusing
C) Crossmatching
D) SSOPH
Q3) Which are used in crossmatching for organ transplant?
A) Donor serum and recipient lymphocytes
B) Recipient serum and donor lymphocytes
C) Donor serum and recipient serum
D) Donor lymphocytes and recipient lymphocytes
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A battery-operated pipetting device has stopped working. Which of the following describes the first course of action for the technologist using this pipet?
A) Discard the pipet, and order a new one.
B) Call the manufacturer to request that a technical support representative make a service call.
C) Change or charge the batteries.
D) Put the pipet back in the drawer and get a new one.
Q2) A woman calls and asks that the results of her husband's HIV viral load assay be faxed to her. She gives the technologist her husband's name and medical record number along with the date the specimen was collected and her fax number. She states that she is calling for her husband and has his approval. Which of the following is the correct course of action for the technologist?
A) Fax the results as requested.
B) Tell the woman that her husband can get his test results from his physician.
C) Contact the husband to verify that this request is acceptable with him.
D) Report the results by telephone.
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