Diagnostic Microbiology Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology explores the principles and practices involved in identifying and characterizing microbial pathogens responsible for infectious diseases. The course covers the fundamental techniques of specimen collection, handling, and processing, as well as the application of microscopic, cultural, immunological, and molecular methods for detecting bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on interpreting laboratory results, understanding the clinical significance of findings, and correlating them with patient management. Students will also examine current topics in antimicrobial susceptibility testing and the role of the clinical microbiology laboratory in infectious disease control and epidemiology.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Q1) In a DNA molecule, one end has a free hydroxyl group and one end has a free
A) phosphate group
B) hydroxyl group
C) amino group
D) carboxyl group
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a type II restriction enzyme recognition site?
A) GAATTC
B) GAATTG
C) GAAAAG
D) GATCAG
Answer: A
Q3) The movement of DNA from one bacterium to another through the activity of bacteriophages is called:
A) Conjugation
B) Transformation
C) Transduction
D) Crossing over
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Q1) Alteration of the nucleotide sequence of RNA after transcription is called:
A) Methylation
B) RNA silencing
C) RNA editing
D) Capping
Answer: C
Q2) RNA is degraded by:
A) Helicases
B) Polymerases
C) Ribonucleases
D) Methylases
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is involved in termination of transcription in eukaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Sigma
C) Rho
D) PolyA signal
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A glycoprotein contains ______attached after translation.
A) extra amino acids
B) sugar moieties
C) lipids
D) metal ions
Answer: B
Q2) The sequence of amino acids in a protein constitutes which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: A
Q3) The set of nucleotides in mRNA that encode one amino acid is called a(n):
A) Codon
B) Gene
C) Anticodon
D) Chromosome
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Q1) In organic isolation of RNA procedures, guanidinium isothiocyanate is added to:
A) Degrade DNA
B) Denature all proteins
C) Inhibit RNAses
D) Separate RNA from DNA
Q2) DNA, after separation from other cellular constituents, is precipitated in which of the following?
A) Chloroform
B) Isopropanol
C) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
D) Sodium dodecyl sulfate
Q3) Nucleic acid concentration can be assessed relatively simply and quickly by which of the following procedures?
A) Electrophoresis
B) Enzyme immunoassay
C) Sequencing
D) Spectrophotometry at 260 nm
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which is an important property of gel running buffers?
A) Solubility at low temperature
B) Ability to maintain constant pH
C) Capacity to heat up quickly
D) High ultraviolet light absorption
Q2) Which of the following properties is true for ethidium bromide?
A) Emits green light when excited at 200 nm
B) Level of detection is 5 pg of DNA
C) Intercalates between nitrogen bases
D) Has no background fluorescence in agarose
Q3) To increase the density of a sample relative to the density of the buffer prior to loading the sample into a gel, which of the following is added to the sample?
A) Glycerol
B) Ethidium bromide
C) Formaldehyde
D) Tris acetate EDTA
Q4) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Q1) A circular molecule has two sites for the restriction enzyme PstI and one site for the enzyme BamH1. How many fragments will result when digested with both enzymes?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Which of the following molecules comprises most membranes that bind to nucleic acids in blotting procedures?
A) Nitrocellulose
B) Agarose
C) Acrylamide
D) Formamide
Q3) After chromogenic signal detection on a northern blot, circular colorless areas are observed on the membrane, obliterating bands and parts of bands. What is the cause of this?
A) Incomplete electrophoresis of the nucleic acid
B) Loss of alkaline phosphatase activity
C) Incorrect stringency conditions for probe binding
D) Bubbles or incomplete contact between the membrane and the gel
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Q1) Which of the following PCR controls ensures that the enzyme is active, the buffer is optimal, and the primers are priming the correct target sequence and must have a PCR product detected in order to be valid?
A) Positive control
B) Negative template control
C) Contamination control
D) Amplification control
Q2) Which of the following is the function of SYBR Green in quantitative PCR?
A) Detection of the PCR product
B) Facilitates amplification
C) Prevents contamination
D) Minimizes mis-priming
Q3) SYBR Green fluorescence is detectable at which stage of the PCR amplification process?
A) Template denaturation
B) Cycle 1
C) Primer annealing and extension
D) Prior to amplification
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Q1) Which of the following is involved in connecting the centromere to the spindles during chromosome segregation in mitosis?
A) Kinetochore
B) Euchromatin
C) Histone protein H1
D) Heterochromatin
Q2) A change in DNA sequence that is present in at least 1% to 2% of the population is called a(n):
A) Phenotype
B) Polymorphism
C) Aneuploid
D) Mutation
Q3) A reciprocal translocation is which type of mutation?
A) Gene
B) Genome
C) Chromosome
D) Nucleotide
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Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Q1) Which is critical to the success of sequence-specific PCR?
A) The 5' end of the primer must match the template.
B) The forward primer must have a higher Tm than the reverse primer.
C) The 3' base of the primer must be complementary to the template.
D) The primers must be less than 20 bases long.
Q2) A single-strand conformation polymorphism (SSCP) procedure has been performed on a patient sample, and the results were compared with those from a normal reference sample. The patient bands resolved in different locations on the gel as compared with the reference bands. These results would be interpreted as which of the following?
A) The patient sample is normal.
B) The patient has a mutation in the targeted region.
C) The results are invalid.
D) The patient sample is a mixture of normal and mutated sequences.
Q3) Which of the following methods can be used to screen for the presence of unknown mutations?
A) SSP-PCR
B) Allele-specific oligomer hybridization
C) High-density array
D) PCR-RFLP
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) Sequencing ladders resolved by gel electrophoresis are read in which of the following directions?
A) Top to bottom
B) Bottom to top
C) Across lanes
D) Diagonally
Q2) Which is the output from capillary electrophoresis of a fluorescent product?
A) Autoradiogram
B) Electropherogram
C) Pictogram
D) Nomogram
Q3) Which of the following is the most widely used method of DNA sequencing in clinical laboratories today?
A) Pyrosequencing
B) Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
C) Sanger sequencing
D) Array sequencing
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Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Q1) Which are more likely to be successfully analyzed on highly degraded DNA?
A) VNTR
B) RFLP
C) STR
D) Mini-STR
Q2) Which of the following polymorphisms are tandem repeats of 1-8 bp?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
B) Short tandem repeats
C) Variable number tandem repeats
D) Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Q3) An individual who has two populations of cells that were derived from two different zygotes is called a:
A) Chimera
B) Mosaic
C) Clone
D) Mutant
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) What will be observed in a PCR test of a true negative sample for the sample, positive control, negative control, and amplification control, respectively?
A) Negative, positive, negative, positive
B) Negative, positive, negative, negative
C) Negative, negative, negative, negative
D) Negative, negative, negative, positive
Q2) When a typing method is repeated and the results are the same each time, the method has high:
A) Ease of test performance
B) Discriminatory power
C) Typing capacity
D) Reproducibility
Q3) Which of the following is the molecular target for most epidemiological investigations of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) katG
B) inhA
C) IS6110
D) IS481
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Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Q1) What is indicated by the term CYP2A6?
A) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily IIA, polypeptide 6
B) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily IIA 6
C) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily 6, polypeptide 2A
D) Cytochrome P-450, polypeptide A6, subfamily II
Q2) A patient is tested to determine the number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene by Southern blot. The patient is found to have a band that runs above the normal control band. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?
A) The patient is normal.
B) The patient has Huntington's disease.
C) The patient has Tay-Sachs disease.
D) The patient has full fragile X mutation.
Q3) Which of the following is a genetic storage disease in which sulfatides accumulate inside the lysosomes?
A) Tay-Sachs
B) Niemann-Pick
C) Gaucher's
D) Pseudo-Hurler polydystrophy
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Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following translocations can be used to monitor treatment for chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A) t(9;22)
B) t(11;14)
C) t(8:14)
D) t(9;11)
Q2) T-cell receptor gene rearrangements were analyzed by PCR using forward and reverse primers complementary to the V<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 and J<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 regions, respectively, of the T-cell receptor gene region. The products were separated by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and bands visualized using ethidium bromide. The lane corresponding to the patient had a sharp band. All controls were acceptable. How is this result interpreted?
A) The patient has a monoclonal (monotypic) T-cell population.
B) The patient is normal and has polyclonal T cells.
C) This is a false positive because of amplification of immunoglobulin genes.
D) The assay should be repeated because the wrong primers were used.
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Q1) Sequence-specific PCR using allele-specific primers and primers for an amplification control has been performed on DNA isolated from a patient requiring bone marrow transplantation. Analysis of the reaction by gel electrophoresis reveals the presence of two bands in a gel lane. How is this interpreted?
A) False positive
B) False negative
C) True positive
D) True negative
Q2) Which are used in crossmatching for organ transplant?
A) Donor serum and recipient lymphocytes
B) Recipient serum and donor lymphocytes
C) Donor serum and recipient serum
D) Donor lymphocytes and recipient lymphocytes
Q3) What are private epitopes?
A) Molecules that bind to many different antibodies
B) Molecules only found on one individual
C) Molecules that bind to one specific HLA antibody type
D) Molecules that do not bind to any known HLA antibody
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following does not have to be documented in a procedure description that is written according to CLSI guidelines?
A) Sequence of primers
B) Credentials of technologist performing the assay
C) Acceptable ranges of product sizes
D) Probe purification conditions
Q2) A fax report of patient results is received in error. What should be done?
A) Call the sender immediately.
B) File the report with quality-assurance documents.
C) Discard the report in a standard waste receptacle.
D) Read the report to others in the laboratory.
Q3) An unlabeled specimen arrives in the laboratory with an accompanying requisition. The requisition is properly filled out. How should you proceed?
A) Proceed with testing.
B) Do not proceed with the test and notify the supervisor.
C) Cancel the test and discard the tube.
D) Label the specimen yourself and proceed with the test.
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