Diagnostic Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology is a course focused on the principles and practical applications of microbiological techniques used to identify and characterize pathogenic microorganisms in clinical specimens. Students will explore methods such as culturing, staining, biochemical testing, molecular diagnostics, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing. Emphasis is placed on the interpretation of laboratory data, quality control procedures, and the role of the microbiology laboratory in the diagnosis, management, and surveillance of infectious diseases. The course also covers emerging technologies and current challenges in clinical microbiology, preparing students for professional practice in healthcare and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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62 Chapters
948 Verified Questions
948 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be correctly noted as
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia).
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas).
C)Pseudomonas, formerly Burkholderia.
D)Burkholderia, formerly Pseudomonas.
Answer: B
Q2) The proper way to indicate that a bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be
A)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia.
B)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia
C)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia
D)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Teichoic acids are
A)waxy substances that are found in some bacterial cell walls that make their cells resistant to toxic substances, including acids.
B)glycerol or ribitol phosphate polymers that are combined with various sugars, amino acids, and amino sugars, which are a part of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
C)high-molecular-weight polysaccharides that coat some bacterial cells and protect the bacteria from attack by cells of the human defense system.
D)hairlike, proteinaceous structures that extend from the cell.
Answer: B
Q2) A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (RNA or protein) is defined as a A)gene.
B)genome.
C)nucleotide.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) IgE is
A)the first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B)the antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C)the antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D)the second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: B
Q2) Acute infections are those that
A)develop and progress slowly.
B)develop quickly.
C)exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect.
D)develop quickly and last longer.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biosafety Level 2 agents
A)include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.
B)require only standard good laboratory technique.
C)include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M.gordonae, and Brucella.
D)require the use of maximum containment facilities.
Q2) The agency that published guidelines regarding the packaging of biohazardous specimens is known as A)DHEC.
B)IATA.
C)CDC.
D)EPA.
Q3) Mouth pipetting
A)should be done only if necessary and with extreme care.
B)can save valuable time and should be done whenever quick results are needed.
C)is done only when material is not expected to pose a biological hazard.
D)should not be done in any circumstance in the clinical laboratory.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q2) Rejection of inappropriately collected or transported specimens
A)is the sole responsibility of the laboratory and should be done without regard to physician requests.
B)should be initiated by laboratory personnel but approved by nursing or physician staff responsible for the care of the patient.
C)is not in the best interest of patient care and should not be considered appropriate.
D)is the responsibility of nursing staff and should not be an issue for laboratory personnel.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy is used in some laboratories to detect spirochetes.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)This technique involves the alteration of microscopic technique rather than the use of dyes or stains to achieve contrast.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to study fungus is A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
Q3) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by A)changing objectives for various specimens.
B)increasing the resolution or resolving power.
C)staining techniques.
D)adding a blue filter to the light path.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Which category of media can be described as containing some factor (or factors) that allows colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristics that can be used to distinguish them from other bacteria growing on the same agar plate?
A)Enrichment
B)Supportive
C)Selective
D)Differential
Q2) Capnophiles grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)5% to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
Q3) Selection of media to inoculate for any given specimen is usually based on
A)the characteristics of the organisms most likely to be involved in the disease process.
B)the likelihood and types of normal flora present at the site.
C)the most likely pathogens of the suspected disease.
D)All of the above are true.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nucleic acid strands (a probe and a target) that have complementary base sequences specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
Q2) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that
A)extensive training is not necessary.
B)it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C)they allow visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen.
D)fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q2) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as
A)a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)a direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)a radioimmunoassay.
Q3) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) For most pathogens, to be diagnostic of current infection, there must be
A)a decrease in the patient's antibody titer of two doubling dilutions.
B)an increase in the patient's titer of two doubling dilutions.
C)a decrease in the patient's antibody titer of four doubling dilutions.
D)an increase in the patient's titer of four doubling dilutions.
Q2) Cell-mediated immune responses such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells damaged or infected are carried out by A)lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) class.
B)lymphocytes of the B (bone marrow-derived) class.
C)neutrophils.
D)basophils.
Q3) The antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasmas are organisms without cell walls.Which antimicrobials would be ineffective in treating infections involving this bacterium?
A)Tetracycline
B)Aminoglycosides
C)Penicillin
D)Rifampin
Q2) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Bacterial resistance to beta-lactams may be mediated by
A)enzymatic destruction of the antibiotics.
B)altered antibiotic targets.
C)decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) The minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) test involves
A)a continuation of the procedure for conventional broth dilution testing.
B)subculturing the clear tubes of a completed broth dilution test.
C)99.9% reduction in CFU/mL compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for
A)the action of beta-lactamase inhibitors.
B)intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
C)the production of beta-lactamase by the infecting organism.
D)intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by altered antibiotic targets.
Q3) An important factor that plays a key role in a patient's outcome in an infectious disease that is not taken into account by susceptibility testing is
A)antibiotic diffusion in tissues and host cells.
B)serum protein binding of antimicrobial agents.
C)drug interactions and interference.
D)status of patient defense and immune systems.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The species of Staphylococcus that is one of the most important human pathogens is
A)Staphylococcus luteus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q2) The tube coagulase test
A)detects bound coagulase.
B)detects extracellular coagulase.
C)is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm this positive result.
D)requires citrated reagent plasma.
Q3) This virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting.
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Staphylococcus intermedius
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Optochin, PYR, bile solubility, esculin, and 6.5% NaCl are tests most likely performed on a/an
A)alpha-hemolytic streptococcus.
B)beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
C)nonhemolytic streptococcus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to bile and optochin, alpha hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Q3) The drug of choice for most enterococcal infections is
A)vancomycin and a penicillin.
B)clindamycin and vancomycin.
C)a penicillin and an aminoglycoside.
D)Septra.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus sp.can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is
A)Listeria monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus.
Q3) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q2) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, non-branching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into TSI agar is most likely
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q3) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface that are called
A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q2) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include
A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus
C)Gordona
D)Tsukamurella
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called
A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative,
H S-positive is
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Salmonella enteritidis.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Shigella sonnei.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria are etiologic agents of foodborne gastroenteritis in the United States?
A)Shigella species
B)Salmonella species
C)Yersinia enterocolitica
D)Escherichia coli
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Shigella species.
C)Salmonella species.
D)Vibrio species.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is A)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin/clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q2) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of
A)multiple rounds of penicillin or similar antibiotic.
B)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
C)repeated high level doses of gentamycin.
D)single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
Q3) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q2) All Brevundimonas, Burkholderia, Ralstonia, Pseudomonas, and Acidovorax share which of the following characteristics?
A)Oxidase-positive
B)Utilize glucose oxidatively
C)Able to grow on MacConkey agar
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the species of Burkholderia, which is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A)Burkholderia ralstonia
B)Burkholderia pseudomallei
C)Burkholderia mallei
D)Burkholderia cepacia
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Chapter
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Ochrobactrum anthropi.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
E)Environmental and human flora
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Paracoccus yeei.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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24
Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Agrobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Empedobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q4) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which statement best describes the habitats of Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q2) True or False? The lack of validated in vitro susceptibility testing methods does not allow definitive treatment and testing guidelines to be given for B.parapertussis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Alcaligenes.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Plesiomonas shigelloides and Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) Stool specimens suspected of containing which enteric pathogen should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A)Vibrio
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella
D)Plesiomonas
Q3) Transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely
A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q2) Which statement best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats are unknown.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q3) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively) gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) Differentiation of Moraxella nonliquefaciens and M.osloensis can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lincolnii will appear as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is among the HACEK group of bacteria known to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Eikenella.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q3) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from H.aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Which of the following bacterial species is a nonvirulent part of human and animal flora and is transmitted to humans during trauma such as bites or dental work?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Actinobacillus
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which media ingredients for in vitro growth?
A)Vitamin K and hemin
B)Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C)Vitamin K and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
D)Hemin and cysteine.
Q2) Small coccobacilli or short rods with occasional cells appearing as tangled filaments
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
Q3) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be seen growing on sheep blood agar very close to colonies of bacteria that can produce A)hemin.
B)nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD).
C)vitamin K.
D)cysteine.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Making sure that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
Q2) Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines describes which group of bacteria?
A)Campylobacter
B)Helicobacter
C)Arcobacter
D)Enterobacte
Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of A)metronidazole.
B)bismuth.
C)tetracycline.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to
A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
Q2) A nonmotile, urease- and nitrate-positive, strictly aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus is most likely A)Bordetella.
B)Moraxella.
C)Kingella.
D)Acinetobacter.
E)Brucella.
Q3) The serum agglutination test (SAT) detects antibodies to A)Brucella abortus.
B)B.melitensis.
C)B.suis.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Acceptable specimens for detection of Bordetella pertussis are A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swab.
Q2) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by
A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-positive.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)hydrolyzes gelatin.
D)grows in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q2) Rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains and a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, is caused by A)Bordetella species.
B)Brucella abortus.
C)Spirillum minus.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q3) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by A)chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion.
C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Gonococci require for growth which of the following nutrients?
A)Arginine
B)Hypoxanthine
C)Uracil
D)IsoVitaleX
Q2) Collection and handling of specimens for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae should optimally include
A)charcoal-treated nontoxic swabs.
B)immediate inoculation to appropriate medium.
C)carbon dioxide-enriched atmosphere.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Using charcoal-treated nontoxic swabs and immediate inoculation to appropriate medium and a carbon dioxide-enriched atmosphere describe specimen collection and handling requirements for which organism?
A)Moraxella catarrhalis
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) During specimen collection, an important thing to remember when handling a collection device with an oxygen-free atmosphere is
A)to take care not to tip the container.
B)to hold the collected specimen in the refrigerator until processing.
C)to hold the collected specimen in the incubator until processing.
D)to avoid opening the container in an aerobic atmosphere.
Q2) Urine via percutaneous aspiration
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q3) Feces in a sterile specimen cup
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) Cervical swab
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q5) Bronchial washing collected with double lumen plugged catheter
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Pigmented Prevotella
A)Kanamycin, colistin, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative and indole-negative
C)fluoresce brick red or brown to black pigment
D)reduces nitrate and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)sensitive to kanamycin and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) Choose the statement that is most true regarding the identification of anaerobes.
A)Complete identification can be very costly.
B)Complete identification often requires several different testing methods.
C)Most clinical laboratories no longer perform complete identification of anaerobes.
D)Presumptive identification is often just as useful as complete identification.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Optimal recovery and identification of anaerobic bacteria in clinical specimens occurs when
A)the initial incubation period is at 35° to 37° C for 48 hours.
B)plates are incubated for at least 3 days before discarding as negative.
C)the initial incubation period is at 35° to 37° C for 24 hours.
D)thioglycollate broth can be inspected daily for 3 days.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The fluorochrome method of staining Mycobacterium
A)is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B)enables the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C)results in a lower yield of positive smears.
D)will substantially increase the amount of time needed for examining smears.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Acid-fast smears should be examined carefully by scanning at least how many oil immersion fields?
A)100
B)200
C)300
D)400
Q3) The stain that requires heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the A)Kinyoun.
B)Ziehl-Neelsen.
C)fluorochrome.
D)carbolfuchsin.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The intracellular growth, or replicative form, of the Chlamydia is called the A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q2) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligate intracellular parasitism is
A)Rickettsia.
B)Ehrlichia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q3) The extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form of the Chlamydia is called the A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
Q2) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q3) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma sp., which causes infectious disease in humans, can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of humans.
B)the aquatic environment.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) The most common vector-borne disease in North America and Europe transmitted by the bite of Ixodes ticks is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is called A)Weil's disease.
B)Lyme disease.
C)icteric leptospirosis.
D)Vincent's disease.
Q2) A destructive lesion of the gums also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis that is caused by oral spirochetes as well as other bacteria is known as A)Vincent's disease.
B)primary syphilis.
C)chancre disease.
D)Weil's disease.
Q3) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by fever, weight loss, malaise, loss of appetite, and a widespread rash is known as A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)late syphilis.
D)tertiary syphilis.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) The concentration part of the O&P (ova and parasite) examination
A)requires freshly passed, unpreserved stool.
B)is designed to allow detection of protozoan cysts, coccidian oocysts, microsporidial spores, and helminth eggs and larvae.
C)is examined microscopically at low, high dry, and oil immersion magnifications.
D)is designed to facilitate identification of intestinal protozoa.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Cryptosporidium spp.
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
Q3) The specimen of choice for diagnosing infection with Leishmania spp is A)feces.
B)blood smear.
C)liver tissue.
D)CSF.
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) The same dermatophyte is isolated from plucked hairs, skin scrapings, and nails of an older patient.The most likely identification is
A)Trichophyton.
B)Epidermophyton.
C)Microsporum canis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which group of molds characteristically produces large, ribbonlike hyphae that are irregular in diameter and contain only occasional septa?
A)Dermatophytes
B)Zygomycetes
C)Dimorphic fungi
D)Dematiaceous fungi
Q3) Unbranched sporangiophores with rhizoids that appear at the point where the stolon arises, at the base of the sporangiophore would usually indicate infection with A)Cunninghamella.
B)Absidia.
C)Mucor.
D)Rhizopus.
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) Indirect immunofluorescent FA testing involves
A)unlabeled antiviral antibody and a labeled antiglobulin.
B)labeled antiviral antibody and virus.
C)labeled antiviral antibody and a labeled antiglobulin.
D)unlabeled antiviral antibody and virus.
Q2) Viruses that cause arbovirus diseases such as yellow fever, dengue, and West Nile, as well as Japanese and St.Louis encephalitis viruses, belong to what group of viruses?
A)Flaviviruses
B)Bunyaviruses
C)Caliciviruses
D)Filoviruses
Q3) During the fall, winter, and spring, stool specimens from infants should most likely be tested for
A)varicella zoster virus.
B)herpes simplex virus.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)rotavirus.
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) A factor that contributes to the initiation of bloodstream infections is
A)immunosuppressive agents.
B)broad-spectrum antibiotics that suppress the normal flora.
C)invasive procedures.
D)prolonged survival of debilitated and seriously ill patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Transient bacteremia
A)Condition wherein fungi are present in blood, occurring primarily in immunosuppressed patients and in those with serious or terminal illness
B)The action of bacteria being carried, usually to all organs of the host, where they may grow, invade normal tissue, and produce toxic products
C)A temporary, incidental presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
D)The situation in which organisms are released into the bloodstream at a noncontinuous rate
E)Infections that originate within the cardiovascular system
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by A)H.influenzae.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.aureus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is
A)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Q3) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old is
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Stomatitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) An infection normally called sore throat that presents as erythematous and swollen tissue and is characterized by inflammatory exudates, vesicles, and mucosal ulceration, or by nasopharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia is called
A)laryngitis.
B)epiglottitis.
C)pharyngitis.
D)Vincent's angina.
E)rhinitis.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma usually a result of viral infection is called A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
E)meningitis.
Q2) Organisms may gain access to the central nervous system (CNS) by which route?
A)Hematogenous spread
B)Spread from infections at other sites, such as otitis media
C)Anatomic defects in central nervous system structures
D)Travel along nerves leading to the brain
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is called A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) What is the proper specimen for culture and identification of the agent of acute sinusitis?
A)Aspirated material that has been collected by puncture of the maxillary sinus
B)Drainage material found in the upper respiratory passages that has been collected with a swab
C)Coughed up sinus drainage collected in a sterile cup
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Keratitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) Canaliculitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) Pyelonephritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Large amounts of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram-variable rods and coccobacilli, and the absence of inflammatory cells in vaginal discharge is a sign of
A)pelvic inflammatory disease.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)bacterial vaginosis.
Q2) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as A)endogenous infections.
B)pyelonephritis
C)Exogenous infections.
D)Upper tract infections.
Q3) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 60-year-old woman would likely grow primarily
A)group B beta-hemolytic streptococci.
B)staphylococci and corynebacteria.
C)Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, staphylococci, lactobacilli, and anaerobes.
D)Gardnerella vaginalis, Prevotella spp., peptostreptococci, and Mobiluncus spp.
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Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be
A)incubated in a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)incubated in regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
Q3) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least
A)Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C)Campylobacter and Vibrio.
D)Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio.
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia.
D)decubitus.
Q2) Progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q3) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) A testing method that produces a result that reflects a true positive all of the time and reflects a false positive some of the time can be said to have A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)high sensitivity and low specificity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
Q2) Performance of a new molecular procedure alongside the methodology known as the "gold standard" is validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
Q3) The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
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