Diagnostic Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology is a course that explores the principles, methods, and applications of identifying and characterizing microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases. Students will learn techniques such as culturing, staining, biochemical testing, molecular diagnostics, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing. The course covers the diagnostic workflow in clinical laboratories, quality control measures, and interpretation of laboratory results. Emphasis is placed on the role of diagnostic microbiology in patient care, public health, and the surveillance of emerging pathogens. Practical laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience in specimen handling, identification protocols, and the use of advanced diagnostic tools.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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79 Chapters
1136 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:
A) macroscopic morphologic structure.
B) microscopic morphologic structure.
C) nucleic acid composition.
D) antigenic properties.
Answer: C
Q2) Which binomial name is correctly written?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Escherichia coli..
D) Escherichia Coli..
Answer: A
Q3) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label, such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas), indicates that the bacterium:
A) does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.
B) is a genetic cross between the two groups.
C) has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).
D) has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) A bacterial cell that contains an outer membrane and periplasmic space stains pink to red on Gram stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The bacteria were subjected to too much alcohol during the decolorization process, causing the organism to absorb the pink-to-red dye.
B) The bacteria with an outer membrane and periplasmic space should not be Gram stained because of their cell wall content.
C) Something is wrong with the lot of stains and may be expired. The gram stain reagents are most likely expired.
D) No discrepancy is present; organisms that contain an outer membrane and periplasmic space should stain pink because of their cell wall composition.
Answer: D
Q2) All genes within an organism make up that organism's:
A) chromosomes.
B) genome.
C) nucleotides.
D) DNA.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) The coagulation system serves to:
A) increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances.
B) attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes.
C) provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities of other cells.
D) ingest and destroy microorganisms.
Answer: A
Q2) Proper hand-washing and hygiene procedures by hospital staff are essential in preventing which types of infections?
A) Chronic
B) Latent
C) Acute
D) Nosocomial
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Biosafety Level 1 agents:
A) include those that are the common agents of an infectious disease.
B) require only standard good laboratory techniques.
C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.
D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.
Q2) The autoclave sterilizes material by:
A) applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B) infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C) applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D) cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
Q3) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory bench top to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a(n):
A) surfactant.
B) disinfectant.
C) biocide.
D) antiseptic.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?
A) Selective
B) Nutritive
C) Differential
D) Definitive
Q2) The appropriate storage for a cerebral spinal fluid specimen is ____° C.
A) 4
B) 22
C) 37
D) -70
Q3) Ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O )and a small amount (0.03%)of carbon dioxide (CO ), is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A) Aerobes
B) Anaerobes
C) Capnophiles
D) Microaerophiles
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
Q2) Bacterial cells with thick peptidoglycan and numerous teichoic acid cross-linkages are Gram stained.The organisms stain pink.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The bacterial cells were most likely not heat-fixed to the slide.
B) The bacterial cells were subjected to the decolorizer too long and were overdecolorized.
C) The lot of Gram-stain reagent is most likely expired.
D) No discrepancy exists; cells with this composition stain pink on Gram stain.
Q3) A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to bond chemically the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is:
A) safranin.
B) crystal violet.
C) Gram's iodine.
D) Gram's decolorizer.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) A positive pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR)test was observed on a species of Enterococcus.What color should be observed for this reaction?
A) Purple
B) Red
C) Green
D) Pink
Q2) A bacterial colony can be described as:
A) sufficiently large numbers of a bacterium that can be observable with the unaided eye.
B) derived from many different types of bacterial cells.
C) belonging to different genera and species.
D) having different genetic and phenotypic characteristics.
Q3) In which category of media would blood agar best fit?
A) Selective
B) Differential
C) Selective and differential
D) Supportive only
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Which enzyme recognizes a specific nucleotide sequence (~4-8 nucleotides in length)and catalyzes the digestion of the nucleic acid at that site, causing a break in the DNA strand?
A) Ligase
B) Gyrase
C) Helicase
D) Endonuclease
Q2) The enzyme that has the ability to synthesize DNA from ribonucleic acid (RNA)is called:
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNAse.
C) helicase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
Q3) Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
A) Southern
B) In situ
C) Peptide nucleic acid
D) Sandwich
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:
A) extensive training is not necessary.
B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.
D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q2) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:
A) react with many different types of antigens.
B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C) react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up the migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
A) Immunoglobulin (Ig) G
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q2) For an accurate diagnostic of a current infection, acute and convalescent sera should reflect a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
A) decrease; two
B) increase; two
C) decrease; four
D) increase; four
Q3) The immunochemical test that involves the agglutination of an artificial carrier particle with the antigen bound to its surface and an antibody present in a specimen is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q2) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but generally do not kill the organism are known as:
A) bactericidal.
B) antibiotic.
C) bacteriostatic.
D) antagonistic.
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) An important requirement for appropriate inoculum preparation in susceptibility testing includes the use of a(n):
A) pure culture.
B) inoculum that matches the severity of the infection.
C) single isolated colony.
D) variety of colony types.
Q2) Daptomycin, whose mode of action is to inhibit cell membrane function, is ineffective against which organism?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Enterococcus
C) Escherichia coli
D) Streptococcus spp.
Q3) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to:
A) vancomycin.
B) aminoglycoside.
C) cephalosporin.
D) amikacin.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which group of bacteria is described as catalase positive and is gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and form grapelike clusters?
A) Neisseria
B) Rothia (stomatococci)
C) Staphylococcus
D) Micrococcus
Q2) The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of:
A) clumping factor.
B) free coagulase.
C) extracellular coagulase.
D) catalase.
Q3) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is:
A) S. saprophyticus.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. epidermidis.
D) S. intermedius.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages, and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?
A) Beta-hemolytic and susceptible to optochin
B) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-negative
C) Gamma-hemolytic and resistant to optochin
D) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-positive
Q2) Which of the following organisms best describes a catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) S. pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Micrococcaceae spp.
Q3) The development of acute rheumatic fever and subsequent valvular heart disease are problems that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus species can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A) 5% sheep blood
B) PLET acetate
C) bicarbonate
D) urea
Q2) Which of the following is described as a spore-forming, gram-positive Bacillus that is beta-hemolytic, motile, Voges-Proskauer (VP)-positive, and citrate-positive and causes two types of food poisoning as a result of toxin release?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Bacillus cereus
D) Corynebacterium jeikeium
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A) 5% sheep blood
B) PLET acetate
C) bicarbonate
D) urea
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) After 48 hours of incubation, black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?
A) Emetic toxin
B) Exotoxin
C) Enterotoxin
D) Endotoxin
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Bacillus cereus.
Q3) The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for:
A) listeriosis.
B) diphtheria.
C) pertussis.
D) tetanus.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Q2) To test the validity of TSI media, quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A) Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B) Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C) Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D) Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
Q3) The reverse Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which beta-hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) S. agalactiae
C) S. saprophyticus
D) S. aureus
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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A) Nocardia.
B) Mycobacteria.
C) Streptomyces.
D) Actinomadura.
Q2) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A) Nocardia.
B) Rhodococcus.
C) Streptomyces.
D) Gordona.
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A) Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B) Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C) Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D) Nocardia and Streptomyces
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Shigella spp.
C) Salmonella spp.
D) Vibrio spp.
Q3) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Shigella sonnei
D) Yersinia pestis
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by:
A) the oxidase test.
B) maltose and glucose medium.
C) tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D) nitrate reduction.
Q2) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A) Bordetella spp.
B) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia.
C) Acinetobacter spp.
D) Pseudomonas oryzihabitans.
Q3) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:
A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Oxidative-fermentative base-polymyxin B-bacitracin-lactose (OFPBL)media is the best media to use to isolate which one of the following organisms from the sputa of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pseudomonas pseudomallei
B) Ralstonia pickettii
C) Burkholderia cepacia
D) Acidovorax delafieldii
Q2) Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Burkholderia.
C) Ralstonia.
D) Vibrio.
Q3) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Pseudomonas pseudomallei
C) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group
D) Brevundimonas diminuta
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The reservoir for Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) environment only, not human flora.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) environment and human flora.
Q2) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
Q3) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar, oxidizes glucose and xylose, and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B) Paracoccus yeei
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
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Q1) On Gram stain, which organism appears thin in the center and thicker at the ends?
A) Agrobacterium yellow group
B) CDC groups EO-3 and EO-4
C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
D) Empedobacter brevis
Q2) Quality control was performed to determine the validity of urea agar.Sphingobacterium multivorum and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica were used, which yielded positive for S.multivorum and negative for E.meningoseptica.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The urea agar is most likely expired.
B) The pH is off on the urea agar.
C) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control because they are both urea-positive.
D) No discrepancy is present; the results are valid.
Q3) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A) environment.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) human normal flora.
Page 25
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella?
A) The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C) The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q2) The biochemical description of Myroides is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) The mode of transmission of Achromobacter denitrificans can best be described as:
A) person-to-person contact.
B) exposure to contaminated water.
C) contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D) close contact with animals.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) To determine the validity of 0% sodium chloride (NaCl)broth, which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes?
A) Vibrio alginolyticus and V. cincinnatiensis
B) Photobacterium damsela and V. harveyi
C) V. parahaemolyticus and V. cholerae
D) V. vulnificus and P. damsela
Q2) Stool specimens suspected of containing which of the following enteric pathogens should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A) Vibrio
B) Salmonella
C) Shigella
D) Plesiomonas
Q3) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:
A) exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B) ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with carriers of the organism.
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Vibrio.
C) Stenotrophomonas.
D) Sphingomonas.
Q2) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Sphingomonas
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella)catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A) comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B) subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C) identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobial agents.
D) performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test.
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lacunata will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
Q3) Which organism appears clear on MacConkey agar and resembles some colonies of the Enterobacteriaceae family?
A) Moraxella lacunata
B) M. lincolnii
C) M. canis
D) M. nonliquefaciens
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A) pink pigmentation.
B) grapelike odor.
C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D) bleachlike odor.
Q2) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A) Eikenella corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B) Weeksella virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C) Bergeyella zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D) Eikenella corrodens and Weeksella virosa
Q3) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A) 4º C
B) 25º C
C) 35º C
D) 56º C
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B) Eikenella corrodens.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Weeksella virosa.
Q3) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is slightly alpha-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A) Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Actinobacillus suis
D) Capnocytophaga spp.
Q2) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by its:
A) negative test for catalase.
B) positive test for lactose fermentation.
C) positive test for catalase.
D) negative test for oxidase.
Q3) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?
A) Actinobacillus
B) Capnocytophaga
C) Cardiobacterium
D) Kingella
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Isolates from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)or respiratory tract specimens that are gram-negative coccobacilli, grow on chocolate agar in CO but not on blood agar, and are porphyrin-negative and nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:
A) Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
B) H. parahaemolyticus.
C) H. haemolyticus.
D) H. influenzae.
Q2) With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which of the following media ingredients for in vitro growth?
A) Vitamin K and hemin
B) Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C) Vitamin K and NAD
D) Hemin and cysteine
Q3) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A) 5% sheep blood agar
B) Brain-heart infusion agar
C) Chocolate agar
D) Nutrient agar
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A) B. bacilliformis
B) B. henselae
C) B. elizabethae
D) B. clarridgeiae
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A) Gram stain
B) Wright stain
C) Trichrome stain
D) Warthin-Starry silver stain
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions
B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions
C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions
D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions
Q2) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:
A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C) multiplication of the organism in food products.
D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q3) Virulence determinants of Helicobacter pylori include:
A) proteases.
B) urease enzyme.
C) hemolysins.
D) exotoxins.
Q4) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:
A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.
B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.
C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.
D) azithromycin alone.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B) Regan-Lowe agar.
C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
D) blood and chocolate agars.
Q2) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A) cattle.
B) sheep or goats.
C) swine.
D) dogs.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A) Penicillin and azithromycin
B) Ampicillin and gentamycin
C) Doxycycline and rifampin
D) Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:
A) runny nose and mild cough.
B) severe and violent coughing.
C) neutrocytosis and fever.
D) lymphadenitis.
Q2) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar, and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain, which is also positive.On the basis of these findings, the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:
A) azithromycin.
B) gentamycin.
C) streptomycin.
D) imipenem.
Q3) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:
A) throat swabs.
B) sputum.
C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D) anterior nose swabs.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) Cysteine and cystine
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C) lymph nodes.
D) urine.
Q3) Which assay is available to identify Francisella tularensis serologically?
A) Complement fixation
B) Direct fluorescent antibody test
C) Immunodiffusion assays
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Q3) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Spirillum minus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The determination of carbohydrate utilization patterns for the differentiation of Neisseria spp.and M.catarrhalis is best performed by:
A) incubation of inoculated cysteine trypticase soy agar (CTA) with 1% dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose for 48 to 72 hours.
B) oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
C) heavy inoculation of buffered, low-peptone substrate with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
D) carbohydrate testing strips.
Q2) The differentiation of the similar Moraxella catarrhalis and Neisseria can be best accomplished by:
A) examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B) vancomycin susceptibility testing.
C) the oxidase test.
D) glucose utilization testing.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Urine via catheter is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q2) To isolate anaerobic gram-positive organisms, which of the following media should be used?
A) Anaerobic blood agar
B) Cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA)
C) Laked kanamycin-vancomycin (LKV) blood agar
D) Anaerobic phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)
Q3) The final fill of the anaerobe jar prepared by the evacuation-replacement method consists of:
A) 20% to 30% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 70% to 80% CO2.
B) 80% to 90% oxygen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO2.
C) 80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO2.
D) 80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% oxygen, and 5% to 10% CO2.
Q4) Rectal swab is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
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Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) Nonpigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate, and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin, and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) Incubation conditions for anaerobic cultures include:
A) 30° to 35° C.
B) incubation for 48 hours before exposing the culture to air.
C) incubation for at least 3 days before discarding.
D) aerobic incubation of the broth medium with the cap loose.
Q3) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A) nonpigmented Prevotella.
B) Porphyromonas spp.
C) Bacteroides fragilis group.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?
A) 1 mL
B) 5 mL
C) 10 mL
D) 20 mL
Q2) Which continuous growth system uses a CO sensor to monitor mycobacterial growth?
A) BACTEC 9000 MB
B) BACTEC MGIT 960
C) MGIT System
D) BacT/Alert
Q3) The specimens of choice for detecting nontuberculous mycobacterial disease are:
A) spontaneously produced sputa.
B) gastric lavages.
C) transtracheal aspirations.
D) bronchial lavages, washings, and brushings.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is:
A) Rickettsia rickettsii.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Klebsiella granulomatis.
D) Coxiella burnetii.
Q2) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A) RB
B) EB
C) Replicate body
D) Initial body
Q3) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale, which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, and part of South America, is:
A) clindamycin.
B) doxycycline.
C) imipenem.
D) gentamycin.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which group of drugs is effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?
A) Beta-lactams
B) Sulfonamides
C) Cephalosporins
D) Fluoroquinolones
Q2) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used; however, both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A) The urea agar is most likely expired.
B) The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C) A technical error has occurred.
D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.
Q3) Which of the following Mycoplasma species is associated with individuals who are positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is capable of invading human cells, and can modulate the immune system?
A) M. pneumoniae
B) M. genitalium
C) M. hominis
D) M. fermentans
Page 46
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli with tight coils are identified as belonging to which species?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Coxiella
Q2) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?
A) Treponema
B) Borrelia
C) Leptospira
D) Brachyspira
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) A 4-year-old boy who is in day care 3 days per week is irritable and scratching the area around his anus.What morphologic characteristics would most likely be observed on microscopic examination of the appropriate specimen?
A) Large eggs, proglottid shape
B) Large eggs with a terminal spine
C) Two individual hooklets
D) Football-shaped eggs with one flattened side
Q2) Which of the following is currently the only fixative available that does not contain formalin, polyvinyl alcohol (PVA), or mercury?
A) Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
B) Sodium acetate-acetic acid-formalin (SAF)
C) ECOFIX
D) TOTAL-FIX
Q3) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Paragonimus infection is: A) sputum.
B) blood.
C) urine.
D) stool.
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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) Outbreaks of infection with the organism Cyclospora are linked to contaminated raspberries, lettuce, and snow peas.The stain of choice to identify the oocysts in stool samples is:
A) trichrome.
B) Wright.
C) periodic acid-Schiff.
D) modified acid-fast.
Q2) Which of the following flagellates has a single nucleus in the cyst and the typical curved, cytostomal fibril, which is called a shepherd's crook?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Chilomastix mesnili
C) Dientamoeba fragilis
D) Enteromonas hominis
Q3) The presence of which of the following cells is diagnostic for the intestinal protozoan, Entamoeba histolytica, which measures 15 to 20 microns?
A) Yeast
B) White blood cells (WBCs)
C) Red blood cells (RBCs)
D) Bacteria
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. ovale
B) P. vivax
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
Q2) Plasmodium vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube; however, the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined, Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P. vivax infections.
B) The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.
C) The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.
D) The blood remained in the tube too long, yielding false-negative results.
Q3) In cases of malaria, the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the:
A) blood.
B) lung.
C) liver.
D) lymph nodes.
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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Acanthamoeba spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Balamuthia mandrillaris
Q2) Laboratory diagnosis of Trichomonas gondii is confirmed by:
A) Giemsa stain.
B) tissue culture.
C) serologic testing.
D) Western blot.
Q3) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q4) Sporozoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) The larvae of the worm Strongyloides stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition, both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:
A) metronidazole.
B) ivermectin.
C) pyrantel pamoate.
D) combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.
Q2) The eggs of the Ascaris lumbricoides worm are ingested and hatched in the duodenum, penetrate the intestinal wall, and migrate to the hepatic portal circulation.Its geographic distribution and infection rate are associated with:
A) institutional crowding.
B) poor sanitation.
C) day care centers.
D) moist warm soil.
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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A) Presence of adult worms in the feces
B) Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C) Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D) Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
Q3) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:
A) normal.
B) insignificant.
C) diagnostic.
D) negative.
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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) Onchocerca volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q2) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling, eosinophilia, and a recent travel history to Africa.Loa loa is suspected; however, the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The worm recovered is not Loa loa.
B) The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C) The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D) No discrepancy is present. The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
Q3) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
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Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The Taenia solium organism, which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long, contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A) dogs.
B) cats.
C) pigs.
D) cattle.
Q2) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A) dog.
B) cat.
C) flea.
D) human.
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) In Echinococcus granulosus infections, the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A) Stomach
B) Brain
C) Intestines
D) Liver
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism, Echinococcus multilocularis, are:
A) foxes.
B) coyotes.
C) rodents.
D) humans.
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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
Q2) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
Q3) The adult form of the fluke, Fasciolopsis buski, is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A) snails.
B) birds.
C) rodents.
D) dogs.
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57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Sheep liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q2) Charcot-Leyden crystals are often observed in specimens infected with which one of the following trematodes?
A) Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
B) Opisthorchis viverrini
C) Fasciola hepatica
D) Paragonimus westermani
Q3) Lung fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Metrifonate should have been administered.
B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C) Steroids should have been initially administered.
D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q2) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
Q3) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A) copepod.
B) crustacean.
C) freshwater snail.
D) freshwater fish.
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Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) The optimal temperature and length of time to incubate a sample suspected of containing a dermatophyte is _____° C for _____ days.
A) 25; 10
B) 25; 14
C) 30; 7
D) 30; 21
Q2) Which stain requires the use of a fluorescent microscope?
A) Calcofluor white
B) India ink
C) Potassium hydroxide
D) Masson-Fontana
Q3) A 59-year-old patient with cancer who was receiving high doses of chemotherapy developed a secondary lung infection that was identified as a fungus.The organism disseminated, which ultimately was fatal to the patient.The organism isolated from sputum exhibited septate hyphae that were dichotomous.The organism is most likely which of the following?
A) Candida
B) Cryptococcus
C) Aspergillus
D) Zygomycetes
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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Yeastlike cells with internal cross walls
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)Histoplasma capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Penicillium marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35° to 37° C? In addition, enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A) T. verrucosum
B) T. tonsurans
C) T. rubrum
D) T. mentagrophytes
Q3) A hair perforation test is performed using Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.The expected results are:
A) positive for both organisms.
B) positive for T. rubrum and negative for T. mentagrophytes.
C) positive for T. mentagrophytes and negative for T. rubrum.
D) negative for both organisms.
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) Conidiophores bear a chain of large brown conidia, resembling a drumstick, and contain both horizontal and longitudinal septa.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) An agricultural worker is punctured by a tool used in the field.An infection, characterized by the development of a papule that is similar to a cauliflower appearance, develops.The worker is most likely suffering from which type of infection?
A) Mycetoma
B) Chromoblastomycosis
C) Tinea nigra
D) Black piedra
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A) Metronidazole
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q2) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
Q3) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.
A) sterols; cholesterol
B) ergosterol; sterols
C) cholesterol; ergosterol
D) sitosterol; sterols
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Page 63
Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) Creamy, white patches
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q2) "Spaghetti and meatball" morphologic appearance
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q3) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:
A) C. glabrata.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) C. albicans.
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64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) The agency that provides documents and sets standards for antifungal susceptibility testing is the:
A) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Library Sciences (NAACLS).
B) Association of Specialized and Cooperative Library Agencies (ASCLS).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).
Q3) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q2) Skin and mucous membranes
A)Varicella zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q3) Surface antigen
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) Shingles
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
Q2) The term used to describe a virus that causes a global outbreak of serious illness of which little natural immunity exists and that has sustained person-to-person transmission is:
A) epidemic.
B) pandemic.
C) endemic.
D) widespread.
Q3) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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67
Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) The recombinant virus assay (RVA)uses which type of amplification methodology?
A) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
B) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
C) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
D) Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
Q2) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA)or neuraminidase (NA)genes during viral ribonucleoprotein (RNP)replication give rise to new strains.This mechanism is known as the antigenic:
A) drift.
B) shift.
C) re-assortment.
D) modification.
Q3) Lamivudine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:
A) pathogenic.
B) virulent.
C) a contaminant.
D) normal flora.
Q2) A 26-year-old woman who has a Gardnerella vaginalis infection becomes immunocompromised, which causes the organism to enter the bloodstream.She has several fever spikes; therefore blood cultures are drawn and placed in blood culture media containing sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).After 5 days of incubation, the blood cultures are negative.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) G. vaginalis stays localized in the female genital tract and does not enter the bloodstream.
B) The blood culture media is most likely expired.
C) The automated blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
D) G. vaginalis is usually inhibited by this anticoagulant, making recovery difficult.
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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is _____ pneumoniae.
A) Mycoplasma
B) Chlamydophila
C) Streptococcus
D) Klebsiella
Q3) Evaluation of the quality of the sputum specimen sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture is best performed by:
A) measuring the amount of mucus found.
B) checking for mucus or blood.
C) microscopically examining the Gram-stained smear for leukocytes.
D) microscopically examining the Gram-stained smear for squamous epithelial cells.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening disease because the patient's airway can become completely obstructed (blocked)if not treated.Which bacterium usually causes this disease?
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Type A influenza virus
Q2) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is: A) pharyngitis.
B) Vincent angina.
C) rhinitis.
D) thrush.
Q3) Also called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or trench mouth, which condition is a mixed bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival edge?
A) Laryngitis
B) Laryngotracheobronchitis
C) Epiglottitis
D) Vincent angina
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Chapter
Nervous System
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Q1) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q2) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q3) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Bacteroides fragilis.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Moraxella lacunata.
Q2) Blepharitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A) digestive
B) upper respiratory
C) urinary
D) genital
Q2) Urethritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Prostatitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., Peptostreptococcus spp.,
Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q2) Proper design of a urogenital swab expressly intended for the collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?
A) Charcoal-treated cotton or rayon
B) Antibiotic-treated calcium alginate
C) Nonflexible Shaft of wood and not flexible
D) Dacron-tipped swabs
Q3) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as:
A) endogenous infections.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) exogenous infections.
D) upper tract infections.
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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:
A) Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C) Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.
D) Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.
Q2) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:
A) buffered glycerol.
B) rectal culture swab.
C) Cary-Blair.
D) Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:
A) Clostridium spp.
B) Bacteroides spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Actinomyces spp.
Q2) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q3) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A) Veillonella spp.
B) Clostridium spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A) Brucellosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Leishmaniasis
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus mitis.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Streptococcus agalactiae.
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Page 78
Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Examination and workup of a culture and interpretation of results by the microbiologist would pertain to which step in the quality assurance process?
A) Preanalytic
B) Analytic
C) Postanalytic
D) Analytic review
Q2) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT), it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?
A) CLSI
B) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
D) American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)
Q3) Nonfastidious (rapidly growing), aerobic bacterial organisms can be saved up to 1 year on __________ slants.
A) mycosel agar
B) MacConkey agar
C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium
D) trypticase soy agar (TSA)
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Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?
A) Haemophilus influenza
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Parvovirus B19
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q3) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriocin typing.
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Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A) biosecurity.
B) biocrime.
C) microterrorism.
D) cactiterrorism.
Q3) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A) Clinical
B) Sentinel
C) Reference
D) National
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