Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology
Exam Materials
Diagnostic Microbiology explores the principles and techniques used to identify and characterize microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases. The course covers specimen collection and handling, microscopy, culture methods, biochemical testing, molecular diagnostics, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing. Students will learn about the role of the clinical microbiology laboratory in disease diagnosis, epidemiology, and infection control. Emphasis is placed on the application of modern diagnostic tools and interpretation of laboratory results to inform patient management and public health interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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78 Chapters
1245 Verified Questions
1245 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The taxon that is composed of similar species that have several important features in common but differ sufficiently to still maintain their status as individual species is which one of the following?
A)Class
B)Order
C)Family
D)Genus
Answer: D
Q2) Species identification is based on all of the following except:
A)DNA-DNA Hybridization.
B)16sRNA sequencing.
C)Cell wall composition.
D)Colonial pigmentation.
Answer: D
Q3) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the following genetic sequence,identify the correct complementary strand of DNA for the sequence 3' CAGTACCGTAAGCT 5'
A)3' GTCATGGCATTCGA 5'
B)5' GTCATGGCATTCGA 3'
C)5' AGCTTACGGTACTG 3'
D)5' GTCATGGCTTCGA 3'
Answer: B
Q2) If a bacterial cell encounters unfavorable environmental conditions,then its metabolism will begin to slow until it eventually transforms into an inactive,dormant state.This survival mechanism is known as:
A)polymerization.
B)oxidation.
C)respiration.
D)sporulation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n):
A)infection.
B)colonization.
C)nosocomial infection.
D)reservoir.
Answer: B
Q2) The human body is colonized by a variety of bacteria that reside in very specific sites or anatomical locations throughout.These organisms are classified as:
A)opportunistic pathogens.
B)infectious organisms.
C)normal resident organisms.
D)normal human microbiota.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information concerning a chemical product's health hazards,toxicity,and disposal procedures is:
A)found in the manufacturer's material safety data sheets (MSDS).
B)found on the product label.
C)proprietary information and only released at the manufacturer's discretion.
D)obtained through the manufacturer's technical support division;acquiring access to that information is the responsibility of the laboratory worker.
Q2) All laboratory and health care personnel are required to practice safety and utilize specific controls for the management and handling of infectious or potentially infectious materials.This is considered:
A)Exposure plan.
B)Standard Precautions.
C)Biosafety controls.
D)Isolation.
Q3) Standard Precautions include:
A)using barrier devices to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes.
B)recapping needles by hand.
C)storing drinks but not food in laboratory refrigerators.
D)discarding sharps in plastic biohazard bags.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between 5% and 10% hydrogen (H ),5% to 10% CO ,80% to 90% nitrogen (N ),and 0% O produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D)To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
Q3) An example of a -hemolytic gram-positive organism is:
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Enterococcus.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) When reporting a direct smear from a primary specimen,it is important to note the presence and quantity of white blood cells even in the absence of bacteria for all of the following reasons except:
A)the pathogen may not be present in sufficient quantities.
B)the presence of white blood cells indicates a purulent process.
C)the pathogen may not be present in the sample collected.
D)it is not important to report white blood cells unless bacteria are present.
Q2) After which step in the Gram-stain procedure are gram-positive bacteria first distinguished from gram-negative bacteria?
A)Crystal violet
B)Iodine mordant
C)Gram's decolorizer
D)Safranin
Q3) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is:
A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) When streaking for isolation and utilizing semi-quantitative methods,the numbers of colonial growth in successive quadrants correlates directly with:
A)the microbiologist's streaking technique.
B)the relative amount of organism present in the original specimen.
C)the ability of the organism to grow on the media.
D)the type of incubation conditions.
Q2) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to:
A)provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B)solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C)sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D)support the growth of only pathogenic organisms.
Q3) Which group of bacteria uses oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor and grows well in ambient air?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complementary nucleic acid hybridization,which is coupled with nucleic acid replication and applied repeatedly through numerous cycles,is based on which of the following methods?
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
Q2) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on:
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
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10
Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) Cell-mediated immune responses,such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells that are damaged or infected,are carried out by:
A)lymphocytes of the thymus-derived (T)class.
B)lymphocytes of the bone marrow-derived (B)class.
C)neutrophils.
D)nasophils.
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q2) Antibiotic resistance resulting from altered cellular physiologic structure caused by changes in a microorganism's usual genetic makeup is known as __________ resistance.
A)intrinsic
B)inherent
C)acquired
D)environmentally mediated
Q3) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
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12
Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antimicrobial susceptibility testing method uses a series of plates with different antimicrobial concentrations inoculated with multiple bacterial isolates per plate?
A)Agar dilution
B)Automated broth dilution
C)Disk Diffusion
D)E-test
Q2) The minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)test:
A)utilizes disks impregnated with series of concentrations (i.e. ,twofold dilutions)of each antimicrobial agent being tested against the bacterial isolate.
B)will have an endpoint that is less than or equal to the MIC for each specific antimicrobial tested.
C)is the antimicrobial concentration that yields a 99.9% reduction in CFU/mL,compared to concentration of the original bacterial inoculum.
D)measures the ability of an antimicrobial to kill all bacteria in the endpoint MIC tube/well by planting an aliquot from it and incubating it overnight.
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13
Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts,especially sexually active young women,is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q2) The resident human microbiota,staphylococcus,which is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as patients with cancer,is:
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q3) In clinical isolates,the most likely identification of coagulase-positive,catalase-positive,gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be:
A)S.aureus.
B)S.intermedius.
C)Stomatococcus luteus.
D)Micrococcus aureus.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which species of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases such as rheumatic fever,glomerulonephritis,and exudative pharyngitis?
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)S.pyogenes
C)S.pneumoniae
D)Enterococcus
Q2) Enterococci can be described as:
A)able to hydrolyze bile esculin.
B)usually -hemolytic.
C)a major cause of pharyngitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) The bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% sodium chloride (NaCl)and 40% bile,is part of the normal fecal flora of animals and humans,displays g hemolysis,and is a major cause of nosocomial infections is:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is g-hemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?
A)Bacillus subtilis
B)B.cereus
C)B.mycoides
D)B.anthracis
Q2) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis. )
A)Cutaneous
B)Inhalation
C)Gastrointestinal
D)Bubonic
Q3) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) After 48 hours of incubation,black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?
A)Emetic toxin
B)Exotoxin
C)Enterotoxin
D)Endotoxin
Q2) A 13-year-old girl presented to her physician complaining of being tired,having a mild sore throat and fever.She appears to have a grey coating on her tonsils when examined by the physician.The most logical etiologic agent associated with the patient's illness is:
A)Streptococcal pharyngitis.
B)diphtheriae.
C)scarlet fever.
D)Tonsillitis.
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The reverse Christie,Atkins,Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which -hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)S.agalactiae
C)S.saprophyticus
D)S.aureus
Q2) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,nonbranching,gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A)Corynebacterium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Actinomyces.
D)Erysipelothrix.
Q3) To test the validity of TSI media,quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A)Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B)Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C)Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D)Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
Q3) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A)Mycetoma
B)Lymphocutaneous infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) A patient bitten by a flea developed a painful bubo at the site of the bite.The drug of choice for this organism is:
A)ampicillin.
B)gentamycin.
C)streptomycin.
D)ciprofloxacin.
Q2) A green colony with a black center was isolated and presumptively identified as a Salmonella spp.The organism was serotyped with polyvalent antisera;however,the antisera tested negative for all antigens.What is the next course of action?
A)Regrow the organism on sheep blood agar,and serotype again the next day.
B)Make a suspension,and heat to 100°C for 10 minutes.
C)Make a suspension,and place on ice for 30 minutes.
D)Report the organism out as a nontypable Salmonella spp.
Q3) Which of correct for the description "acid slant,acid butt,no H S"?
A)Salmonella spp.
B)E.coli
C)Proteus spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)B.trematum
C)Burkholderia gladioli
D)S.maltophilia
Q2) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp. ,such as pneumonia or bacteremia,effective treatment may require the use of:
A)multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B)a -lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C)repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D)single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
Q3) A bronchoscopy was performed on a patient who later developed a nosocomial infection as a result of the procedure.The organism recovered from his lung was a nonlactose fermenter that oxidized glucose and maltose,was lysine decarboxylase-positive,and was motile.The organism is most likely which one of the following?
A)Bordetella parapertussis
B)Saccharolytic Acinetobacter
C)P.luteola
D)S.maltophilia
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Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which best describes the source of B.cepacia infections?
A)Rice paddies
B)Medical devices
C)Oropharynx of animals
D)Rodents
Q2) Which of the following groups of bacteria have Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)guidelines that describe specific testing methods and interpretative standards for susceptibility reporting?
A)A.facilis and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B)P.fluorescens and R.mannitolilytica
C)P.aeruginosa and B.pseudomallei
D)B.cepacia and B.vesicularis
Q3) Overproduction of what substance is associated with biofilm production and mucoid phenotype of P.aeruginosa isolates found in cystic fibrosis patients?
A)Alginate
B)Exoenzyme T
C)Phospholipase C
D)Pyocyanin
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A patient with an indwelling catheter tip began spiking a fever of 39°C.The site of the catheter was inflamed and red.The catheter tip was cultured,and the following organism was isolated: a nonlactose-fermenter on MacConkey agar;a glucose,xylose,and mannitol oxidizer with the ability to hydrolyze esculin.This organism is most likely which one of the following?
A)CDC group EF-4b
B)S.putrefaciens
C)R.radiobacter
D)P.yeei
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both R.radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia.
Q3) The reservoir for O.anthropi is:
A)environment only,not human flora.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)environment and human flora.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is indole and gelatin positive but does not have the ability to oxidize mannitol?
A)S.multivorum
B)CDC group O-1
C)E.brevis
D)E.meningoseptica
Q2) Decontamination strategies used for potable water and the control of E.meningoseptica are similar to those utilized for which organism?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Legionella spp.
Q3) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A)E.meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B)Chryseobacterium spp.and E.meningoseptica
C)E.meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D)Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of A.denitrificans can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A)B.bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B)A.denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C)Achromobacter piechaudii and B.bronchiseptica
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Alcaligenes-like group 1 and C.pauculus
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) V.cholerae and Vibrio alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?
A)Green
B)Black
C)Yellow
D)Blue
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp. ,Aeromonas spp. ,Plesiomonas shigelloides,and Chromobacterium violaceum?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.
C)Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to soil.
Q3) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) This bacterium is unique in that it does not possess a flagellum but is motile by gliding motility.
A)Acidovorax spp.
B)Sphingobacterium spp.
C)Spingomonas spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax,Sphingobacterium,and Sphingomonas?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are unknown.
C)Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q3) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of deoxyribonuclease (DNase)media?
A)M.atlantae and M.lacunata
B)M.lacunata and M.lincolnii
C)M.nonliquefaciens and M.canis
D)M.osloensis and M.lacunata
Q2) The commensal Neisseria spp.are often confused with pathogenic gram-negative diplococci.A simple test utilizing a blood agar plate and an antibiotic disk resulting in elongation of the cells assists in the differentiation of these organisms.Which antibiotic disk is utilized in this application?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Vancomycin
C)Penicillin
D)Metronidazole
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q2) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase,indole,and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A)E.corrodens
B)W.virosa
C)P.maltophilia
D)S.paucimobilis
Q3) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin,it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q3) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A.actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from A.aphrophilus by its:
A)negative test for catalase.
B)positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)positive test for catalase.
D)negative test for oxidase.
Q2) Of the following organisms,which one is among the Aggregatibacter aphrophilus,Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans,Cardiobacterium hominis,Eikenella corrodens,and Kingella spp.(HACEK)group of organisms that cause slowly progressive bacterial endocarditis?
A)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
B)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
C)E.corrodens
D)A.actinomycetemcomitans
Q3) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?
A)S.paucimobilis
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Actinobacillus spp.
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Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:
A)H.influenzae.
B)Haemophilus ducreyi.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
Q2) A 6-year-old boy was diagnosed with purulent conjunctivitis caused by a species of Haemophilus.What would the biochemical profile of the organism be?
A)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
B)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
C)Growth requirements require V factor;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
D)Growth requirements require X factor;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
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Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q2) Bacteremia,endocarditis,bacillary angiomatosis,cat-scratch disease,and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A)Afipia felis.
B)Bartonella quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
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Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Ensuring that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked,all milk is pasteurized,and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with:
A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
Q2) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:
A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food,milk,or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q3) Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?
A)C.coli and Campylobacter concisus
B)Campylobacter curvus and Campylobacter hyointestinalis
C)C.jejuni subsp.jejuni and C.jejuni subsp.doylei
D)C.jejuni subsp.jejuni and Campylobacter coli
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Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
Q2) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)L-cysteine and iron
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q3) An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionella pneumonia.By what route was the infection most likely to have been acquired?
A)Respiratory route,from an infected person
B)Inhalation of aerosolized water from a source containing protozoa
C)Inhalation of spores from moldy hay
D)Exposure to livestock or animal products
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar,and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain,which is also positive.On the basis of these findings,the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:
A)azithromycin.
B)gentamycin.
C)streptomycin.
D)imipenem.
Q2) If real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is performed on a Bordetella isolate,then it must be noted that this type of swab is unacceptable for collection because of the presence of which of the following inhibitory factors?
A)Dacron
B)Cotton
C)Rayon
D)Calcium alginate
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A)blood.
B)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C)lymph nodes.
D)urine.
Q2) Which assay is available to identify F.tularensis serologically?
A)Complement fixation
B)Direct fluorescent antibody test
C)Immunodiffusion assays
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
Q3) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired Spirillum minus is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)N.gonorrhoeae and N.lactamica
B)Neisseria mucosa and M.catarrhalis
C)N.lactamica and M.catarrhalis
D)Neisseria sicca and Neisseria subflava
Q2) The second most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the United States,according to the CDC,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)N.gonorrhoeae.
C)N.meningitidis.
D)HIV.
Q3) An advantage of all molecular assays is:
A)the ability to test for C.trachomatis from the same specimen at the same time.
B)the ability to use these tests for assessing the successfulness of treatment.
C)their role as evidence in medicolegal cases.
D)the ability to detect the capsular antigen in body fluids.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q2) CCFA
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q3) An anaerobic media,which contains ferric ammonium citrate and hemin,bile salts,and gentamicin,is used to isolate which group of organisms?
A)Bacteroides spp.
B)Clostridia spp.
C)Actinomyces spp.
D)Veillonella spp.
Q4) Urine via percutaneous aspiration is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of a bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)Bacteroides fragilis group.
D)pigmented Prevotella.
Q2) Quality control is set up on a new lot of an indole reagent.Clostridium bifermentans and Clostridium bolteae are used,and the following results are obtained:
· C)bifermentans: positive
· C)bolteae: negative
Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The reagent is most likely expired.
B)The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C)These two organisms are poor choices;both are indole-positive.
D)No discrepancy is present.The results obtained are correct.
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Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Which of the following species of Mycobacterium causes a chronic disease of the skin,mucous membranes,and nerve tissue but has not yet been cultivated in vitro?
A)M.paratuberculosis
B)M.lepraemurium
C)M.phlei
D)M.leprae
Q2) The first test that is always performed on organisms growing on solid or liquid mycobacterial media is a(n):
A)niacin test.
B)acid-fast stain.
C)Gram stain.
D)broth test.
Q3) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?
A)1 mL
B)5 mL
C)10 mL
D)20 mL
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43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q2) A Weil-Felix test was performed on serial dilutions from a patient bitten by a tick.The results obtained were positive for OX-19 and negative for OX-2 and OX-K.Based on these findings,the organism can be identified as:
A)R.rickettsii.
B)O.tsutsugamushi.
C)Rickettsia prowazekii.
D)Rickettsia typhi.
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A)Lice
B)Ticks
C)Fleas
D)Chiggers
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)latex agglutination.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q2) Which of the following Mycoplasma species is associated with individuals who are positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),is capable of invading human cells,and can modulate the immune system?
A)M.pneumoniae
B)M.genitalium
C)M.hominis
D)Mycoplasma fermentans
Q3) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?
A)U.urealyticum
B)M.pneumoniae
C)M.hominis
D)M.genitalium
Page 45
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Long,slender,helically curved,gram-negative bacilli with tight coils are identified as belonging to which species?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Coxiella
Q2) Recombinant antigens
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospirae that includes fever,headache,myalgia,and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called:
A)icteric leptospirosis.
B)anicteric leptospirosis.
C)Weil's disease.
D)syphilis.
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) A modified acid-fast stain is performed on lung tissue.The most likely organism that will be observed is:
A)N.fowleri.
B)Mansonella streptocerca.
C)G.lamblia.
D)Cryptosporidium spp.
Q2) A 17-year-old male with a severe eye infection admits that he does not clean his contact lenses as often as he should.His eye infection is most likely the result of which parasite?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Isospora belli
C)Strongyloides stercoralis
D)Acanthamoeba spp.
Q3) Wuchereria,Brugia,Loa,and Onchocerca are all classified as:
A)intestinal cestodes.
B)tissue nematodes.
C)filarial nematodes.
D)blood trematodes.
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with a severe intestinal disease caused by E.histolytica.Which of the following treatments should be administered?
A)Diloxanide furoate
B)Metronidazole
C)Metronidazole plus iodoquinol
D)Iodoquinol and diloxanide furoate
Q2) When cooking meat,an internal temperature of ____°C must be reached to kill organisms such as Toxoplasma and Sarcocystis.
A)38
B)48
C)58
D)68
Q3) E.coli,a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 µm in diameter,can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?
A)Small,usually compact
B)Large,usually compact
C)Small,irregularly shaped
D)Large,not compact
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Humans contract Chagas disease when the reduviid bug defecates while taking a blood meal and the parasites in the feces are rubbed or scratched into the bite wound or onto mucosal surfaces.Which stage in the blood infects the host cells?
A)Amastigote
B)Epimastigote
C)Trypomastigote
D)Promastigote
Q2) Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.ovale
B)P.vivax
C)P.falciparum
D)P.malariae
Q3) In cases of malaria,the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the:
A)blood.
B)lung.
C)liver.
D)lymph nodes.
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) The CSF would reveal which of the following results in infections caused by N.fowleri?
A)Increased glucose,increased protein,and positive Gram stain
B)Decreased glucose,decreased protein,and negative Gram stain
C)Decreased glucose,increased protein,and negative Gram stain
D)Increased glucose,decreased protein,and positive Gram stain
Q2) Tissues suspected of containing Acanthamoeba cysts can be observed using various stains.A cyst that stains black has most likely been stained with the __________ stain.
A)methenamine silver
B)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
C)Giemsa
D)Wright's
Q3) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) Rhabditiform larvae measuring 275 mm with a long buccal capsule and a small genital primordium was identified as hookworm.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)A technical error occurred in identification.
B)The larvae characteristics represent S.stercoralis;therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.
C)The larvae characteristics represent pinworm;therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.
D)No error occurred.Hookworm is the correct identification for an organism with these characteristics.
Q2) A short buccal capsule,large bulb on the esophagus,and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A)T.trichiura
B)Capillaria philippinensis
C)S.stercoralis
D)A.lumbricoides
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A)Presence of adult worms in the feces
B)Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C)Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D)Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
Q2) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye,which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed,which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:
A)normal.
B)insignificant.
C)diagnostic.
D)negative.
Q3) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Mansonella spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm,Diphyllobothrium caninum,consisting of many small proglottids,measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A)dog.
B)cat.
C)flea.
D)human.
Q2) A stool specimen is examined,and the following characteristics are observed:
·15 to 18 lateral branches on each side
·Scolex with four suckers
·No hooklets
The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are: A)cattle. B)humans.
C)cats.
D)swine.
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Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A)Coenurosis
B)Cysticercosis
C)Hydatid disease
D)Sparganosis
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces are best described as:
A)cercariae,miracidium larva,metacercariae,and redia.
B)redia,metacercariae,cercariae,and miracidium larva.
C)miracidium larva,redia,cercariae,and metacercariae.
D)metacercariae,miracidium larva,cercariae,and redia.
Q2) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm,which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore,has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs,cats,and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:
A)snails.
B)fish.
C)crabs.
D)shrimp.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish.
B)snails.
C)crabs.
D)crayfish.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:
A)praziquantel.
B)triclabendazole.
C)albendazole.
D)benzimidazole.
Q2) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 µm by 40 µm,are unembryonated and operculated,and have thick shells that are brownish-yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A)Japan
B)Africa
C)New Guinea
D)South America
Q3) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q2) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q3) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Fungal infections are generally acquired via which route?
A)Person to person
B)Nosocomial
C)Vector
D)Inhalation of spores
Q2) The optimal temperature and length of time to incubate a sample suspected of containing a dermatophyte is _____°C for _____ days.
A)25;10
B)25;14
C)30;7
D)30;21
Q3) Colonies are isolated 4 days after incubation from a skin infection that disseminated in a burn victim.A fungal infection is suspected.Which of the following is a possible organism that may be identified?
A)Epidermophyton floccosum
B)Fusarium spp.
C)Cladosporium spp.
D)Microsporum audouinii
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Chapter
58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Nonbudding,thick-walled spherule
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) A pulmonary fungus ball and external otomycosis and onychomycosis are all infections caused by which genera?
A)Fusarium
B)Penicillium
C)Paecilomyces
D)Aspergillus
Q3) Small,round-to-oval yeast cells;2 to 5 µm in diameter
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Conidiophores bear a chain of large brown conidia,resembling a drumstick,and contain both horizontal and longitudinal septa.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A)Metronidazole
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D)Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q2) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
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62
Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) If cornmeal agar is set up and chlamydoconidia are produced,the organism is most likely:
A)C.krusei.
B)C.glabrata.
C)C.albicans.
D)C.tropicalis.
Q2) In general,yeast reproduces asexually by the formation of:
A)ascospores.
B)basidiospores.
C)blastoconidia.
D)arthroconidia.
Q3) Encapsulated yeast is identified in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)of a patient with AIDS.The most likely stain or reagent used to identify this organism is:
A)potassium hydroxide (KOH).
B)calcofluor white.
C)lactophenol cotton blue.
D)India ink.
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63
Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) A patient who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is diagnosed with a Cryptococcus neoformans infection.The attending resident prescribed Griseofulvin;however,the patient's condition did not seem to improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The dose should be increased to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
B)Nystatin,which would have been more effective,should have been prescribed.
C)Griseofulvin is not effective against C.neoformans;therefore the therapy should be changed.
D)Potassium iodide is the therapy of choice,not griseofulvin.
Q2) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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64
Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) The most used EIA for antigen detection that uses a solid phase and membrane is used for detecting which virus?
A)Influenza
B)Adenovirus
C)HSV
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is:
A)buccal mucosa.
B)sputum.
C)throat.
D)nasopharyngeal.
Q3) Skin and mucous membranes
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV)after having her annual Papanicolaou (Pap)smear.She was not vaccinated with the Gardasil vaccine.Which serotypes of the virus does she need to be concerned about that demonstrate the greatest risk for developing cervical cancer?
A)12 and 14
B)13 and 15
C)16 and 18
D)17 and 19
Q2) Shingles
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q3) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Quantifies the amount of viruses infected in cells.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Inhibits viral DNA synthesis.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) At the end of the 2008-2009 influenza season,100% of influenza A H3N2 and the novel 2009 influenza A H1N1 were resistant to:
A)adamantane.
B)oseltamivir.
C)Tamiflu.
D)Relenza.
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) The possibility of an abscess should be considered if this bacterial group is isolated in the blood:
A)Clostridium septicum.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Streptococcus anginosus.
D)Aeromonas hydrophila.
Q2) A 36-year-old emergency medical technician (EMT)is exposed to a patient with brucellosis.Blood cultures are drawn from the EMT and reported as negative after 1 week.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
B)Brucella does not grow in the blood.
C)The blood culture bottles are most likely expired.
D)The blood should have been incubated for a minimum of 3 weeks.
Q3) The BACTEC automated blood culture system detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon dioxide (CO )levels using which type of sensor?
A)Fluorescence
B)Colorimetric
C)Isotopic
D)Saponin
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections,which one is acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
Q2) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by:
A)M.pneumoniae.
B)Chlamydia pneumonia.
C)parainfluenza virus.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q3) M.pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
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Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Also called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or trench mouth,which condition is a mixed bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival edge?
A)Laryngitis
B)Laryngotracheobronchitis
C)Epiglottitis
D)Vincent angina
Q2) Epiglottitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa,tongue,or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A)pharyngitis.
B)Vincent angina.
C)rhinitis.
D)thrush.
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) Proper storage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture includes:
A)refrigeration for up to 23 hours.
B)freezing at 70°C.
C)incubation at 35°C.
D)freezing at temperatures above 70°C.
Q2) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the: A)choroid plexus. B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) What is the proper specimen for culture and identification of the agent of acute sinusitis?
A)Aspirated material that has been collected by puncture of the maxillary sinus
B)Drainage material found in the upper respiratory passages that has been collected with a swab
C)Coughed up sinus drainage collected in a sterile cup
D)Sinus drainage
Q2) Canaliculitis
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q3) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)H.influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)M.catarrhalis.
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Urethritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching is referred to as:
A)chorioamnionitis.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)vaginitis.
Q2) Proper design of a urogenital swab expressly intended for the collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?
A)Charcoal-treated cotton or rayon
B)Antibiotic-treated calcium alginate
C)Non flexible Shaft of wood and not flexible
D)Dacron-tipped swabs
Q3) The type of vaginitis referred to as bacterial vaginosis is thought to be caused by:
A)Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)S.agalactiae.
C)Lactobacillus spp.
D)Enterococcus spp.
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups,often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication,particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:
A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia.
D)decubitus.
Q3) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A)Veillonella spp.
B)Clostridium spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
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Page 76
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
Q2) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q3) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture,provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A)Heparin
B)Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C)Citrate
D)Coumadin
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Eliminating redundant motion,recognizing waste,and identifying what creates value from the patient's perspective is considered which type of process?
A)Lean methodology
B)Total Quality Management
C)Continuous Quality Improvement
D)Performance Improvement
Q2) Nonfastidious (rapidly growing),aerobic bacterial organisms can be saved up to 1 year on __________ slants.
A)Mycosel agar
B)MacConkey agar
C)Löwenstein-Jensen medium
D)trypticase soy agar (TSA)
Q3) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is,potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A)elevated thyroid level.
B)positive urine culture.
C)positive blood culture.
D)elevated sodium level.
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) Surveillance cultures are in place to monitor infections implicated in cooling towers or hot water sources.Health care professionals are interested in limiting outbreaks with which organism in water supplies?
A)P.aeruginosa
B)Legionella spp.
C)Shigella spp.
D)Cyclospora spp.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens,such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest,is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q2) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
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