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Diagnostic Medicine focuses on the principles, methods, and applications of diagnostic techniques used to identify diseases and medical conditions. The course covers a range of topics including clinical history taking, physical examination, laboratory investigations, imaging modalities, and interpretation of diagnostic data. Emphasis is placed on understanding the diagnostic approach to common and complex health issues, integrating various test results for accurate clinical decision-making, and appreciating the role of emerging technologies in diagnosis. Students will develop practical skills in selecting and utilizing appropriate diagnostic tools while considering their indications, limitations, and ethical implications in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Q1) Which type of necrosis is found in granulomas of tuberculosis?
A) Coagulation necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer: C
Q2) Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs within an infarct of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Pancreas
Answer: B
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Q1) All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation except:
A) Calor (heat)
B) Rubor (redness)
C) Tumor (swelling)
D) Dolar (pain)
E) Odor (smell)
Answer: E
Q2) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
Q3) Inflammation involves all of the following except:
A) Soluble mediators
B) Nerves
C) Blood cells
D) Vessels
E) All of the above
Answer: E
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Q1) Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)are typically found in:
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) AIDS
C) Graft-versus-host reaction
D) Sarcoidosis
E) Isolated deficiency of IgA
Answer: A
Q2) Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
A) A blood
B) B blood
C) AB blood
D) O blood
E) AO blood
Answer: C
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Q1) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q2) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
Q3) The most important risk factor(s)for breast and colon cancer is (are):
A) Hormonal imbalance and advanced age
B) Smoking and promiscuity
C) Sun exposure and family history
D) Smoking
E) Family history of cancer in those locations
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Q1) Sudden infant death syndrome typically occurs:
A) At the time of birth
B) During the first few hours after birth
C) During the first week after birth
D) During the first month of life
E) Any time between 2 and 9 months of life
Q2) Trisomy of chromosome 21 is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Down's syndrome
D) WAGR (Wilms' tumor, aniridia, genital malformations, mental retardation) syndrome
E) Congenital retinoblastoma
Q3) All of the following are considered possible causes of TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
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Q1) White or pale infarcts are typically found in:
A) Solid organs
B) Venous circulation
C) Arterial circulation
D) Only the brain
E) Only the heart
Q2) Arterial hemorrhage can be differentiated from venous hemorrhage by noting that the blood is:
A) Bright red and flows in a pulsating manner
B) Dark blue and bluish-red and oozes
C) Greenish and rich in bilirubin
D) Yellow and rich in bilirubin
E) Clotting rapidly
Q3) Melena is a typical complication of:
A) Rectal ulcer
B) Gastric ulcer
C) Skin ulcer
D) Heart failure
E) Venous thrombosis
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Q1) Lymph fluid is different than blood because it contains:
A) Red blood cells and white blood cells
B) Red blood cells and clotting factors
C) Red blood cells only
D) White blood cells only
E) Clotting factors only
Q2) Atherosclerosis of the brain arteries is the most common cause of:
A) Angina pectoris
B) Coronary vascular accidents
C) Cerebrovascular accidents
D) Hypertension
E) Myocardial infarctions
Q3) Which of the following represent iatrogenic heart lesions?
A) Alcoholic endocarditis
B) Radiation-induced heart attacks
C) Doxorubicin-induced heart attacks
D) Digitalis toxicity
E) Precardiotomy pericarditis
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Q1) Lung infection that develops in patients who have heart failure and pulmonary edema is called:
A) Interstitial pneumonia
B) Hypostatic pneumonia
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E) Lobar pneumonia
Q2) In lungs affected by sarcoidosis there are numerous granulomas and infiltrates of:
A) T-suppressor lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Plasma cells
Q3) The most common of all the infections of the respiratory tract is:
A) Upper respiratory infection
B) Laryngitis
C) Tracheitis
D) Pneumonia
E) Pleuritis
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Q1) All of the following are hemolytic anemias caused by red blood cell abnormalities (intracorpuscular defects)except:
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hereditary spherocytosis
C) Thalassemia major
D) Thalassemia minor
E) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Q2) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
Q3) Macrocytic,megaloblastic anemia occurs typically in association with:
A) Chronic dermatitis
B) Atrophic gastritis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Old age
E) Chronic osteoarthritis
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Q1) All of the following are common symptoms or complications of duodenal ulcer except:
A) Hematemesis
B) Melena
C) Vomiting
D) Epigastric pain
E) Carcinoma
Q2) Which of these diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Q3) Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Smoking
C) Caffeine
D) Heartburn in pregnancy
E) Reflux of gastric juice
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Q1) In hemochromatosis the liver contains increased amounts of:
A) Copper
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Selenium
E) Nickel
Q2) Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity in patients with cirrhosis is associated with hypersecretion of which hormone?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Corticosteroids
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgen
Q3) In the preantibiotic era the most common cause of pylephlebitic abscesses of the liver was:
A) Peptic ulcer
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Acute appendicitis
E) Intestinal tuberculosis
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Q1) Which of the following is an early sign of carcinoma of the head of pancreas?
A) Hiccups
B) Gastric regurgitation
C) Jaundice
D) Pain in the left upper abdominal quadrant
E) Ascites
Q2) The pancreas can be divided into several parts,the largest of which is the:
A) Endocrine part
B) Tail
C) Head
D) Body
E) Accessory part
Q3) Carcinoma of the pancreas is the:
A) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in males
B) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in females
C) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
D) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in females
E) Fifth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
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Q1) Which of the following is considered "the functional unit" of the kidney?
A) Glomerulus
B) Loop of Henle
C) Distal tubules
D) Collection ducts
E) Nephrons
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A) Membranous nephropathy
B) Lipoid nephrosis
C) Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
D) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q3) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder is most often histologically classified as:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) Urothelial carcinoma
E) Seminoma
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Q1) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?
A) Penile ulcer
B) Chancre on the prepuce
C) Condyloma latum
D) Aortic aneurysm
E) Tabes dorsalis
Q2) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
Q3) Male genital organs are in direct contact with the outside world; therefore,most infections are acquired through the:
A) Penis
B) Testes
C) Epididymitis
D) Urethra
E) Vas deferens
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Q1) A cystic tumor that is lined from inside by skin and contains teeth in its wall is best classified as a:
A) Granulosa cell tumor
B) Thecoma
C) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
D) Teratoma
E) Pseudomyxoma peritonei
Q2) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is called:
A) Cervicitis
B) Endometritis
C) Salpingitis
D) Oophoritis
E) Vulvovaginitis
Q3) Most tumors of the endometrium are:
A) Benign
B) Premalignant
C) Composed of striated muscle cells
D) Found in postmenopausal women
E) Found in prepubertal girls
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Invasive duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q2) A disadvantage of breast biopsy is that:
A) It must be done under general anesthesia
B) It cannot provide a positive diagnosis if cancer is present
C) It does not provide enough sample material to stage tumors
D) It leaves a scar as a result of the sample size
E) It does not provide enough sample material to grade tumors
Q3) Preinvasive cancers and ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)are considered which stage?
A) IV
B) III
C) II
D) I
E) 0
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Q1) Adrenal hypofunction may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Adrenal tuberculosis
B) Bilateral primary adrenal carcinoma
C) Metastases of breast carcinoma to the adrenals
D) Autoimmune adrenalitis
E) Adrenal cortical hyperplasia
Q2) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q3) Which of the following secretes epinephrine?
A) Adrenal zona glomerulosa
B) Adrenal zona fasciculata
C) Adrenal zona reticularis
D) Adrenal medullary cells
E) Adrenal cortical adenomas
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Q1) Tinea lesions are caused by:
A) Worms
B) Parasites
C) Fungi
D) Bacteria
E) Viruses
Q2) Preinvasive carcinoma of sun-exposed skin is called:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Basal cell carcinoma
E) Mycosis fungoides
Q3) Jeanne received second-degree burns from suntanning.How would this be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
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Q1) In rheumatoid arthritis the synovium of joints is infiltrated with:
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
E) Plasma cells
Q2) Which of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant cause of dwarfism?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Rickets
E) Osteomalacia
Q3) Aseptic necrosis of bones is the result of:
A) Anemia
B) Achondroplasia
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Bone infarctions
E) Osteomalacia
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Q1) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is inherited as a(n):
A) Autosomal dominant trait
B) Autosomal recessive trait
C) Sex-linked recessive trait
D) Sex-linked dominant trait
E) Polygenic trait
Q2) This autoimmune disease may affect the motor nerves and cause weakness and paralysis.It is also known as a postinfectious polyradiculoneuropathy but is commonly referred to as:
A) Liposarcoma
B) Guillain-Barré
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Coxsackievirus
E) Becker's dystrophy
Q3) Which of the following is a typical "upper neuron injury"?
A) Polymyositis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Spinal cord injury caused by traffic accident
D) Diabetic neuropathy
E) Lead poisoning
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Q1) Most primary malignant tumors of the brain originate from:
A) Neurons
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendroglia cells
D) Microglia cells
E) Meninges
Q2) The most common cause of stroke in the United States is:
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Intracranial hypertension
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Congenital berry aneurysms
E) Arteriovenous communications in the brain
Q3) St.Louis encephalitis is transmitted by:
A) Dust inhalation
B) Living in close quarters
C) Mosquito and tick bites
D) Sexual contact
E) Kissing
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Q1) The most common cause of night blindness is a nutritional deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Which part of the eye is usually affected by chemical injury from exogenous caustic substances?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Posterior chamber
D) Optic nerve
E) Retina
Q3) The most important complication of untreated glaucoma is:
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Keratitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Retinitis
E) Loss of eyesight
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Q1) The tympanic cavity is part of the:
A) Auricle
B) External ear
C) Auditory meatus
D) Middle ear
E) Internal ear
Q2) People who suffer from seasickness or airsickness have a problem with their semicircular canals processing the stimuli that are essential for maintaining:
A) Open Eustachian tubes
B) Equilibrium
C) Mobility
D) Ossicles
E) Vertigo
Q3) Sensory hearing loss of unknown etiology that affects elderly persons is called:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Presbycusis
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
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