Diagnostic Medical Sonography Pathophysiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Medical Sonography
Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms of disease processes as they relate to sonographic imaging. The course examines various pathological conditions affecting major organ systems, emphasizing the correlation between clinical manifestations, laboratory findings, and sonographic appearances. Students will gain an in-depth understanding of how diseases alter normal anatomy and physiology, enabling accurate identification and interpretation of abnormal sonographic findings. By integrating case studies and real-world scenarios, this course prepares students to contribute effectively to patient care by providing critical diagnostic information in a clinical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
1172 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term disease refers to:
A)the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state
B)the relative number of deaths during an epidemic
C)the treatment measures used to promote recovery
D)a basic collection of signs and symptoms
E)a deviation from the normal state of health and function
Answer: E
Q2) During the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety,a double blind study may be conducted during:
A)the first stage
B)the second stage
C)the third stage
D)any of these stages
Answer: C
Q3) Hypertrophy of the heart would be related to:
A)an increase in the size of the individual cells
B)an increase in the number of cells in an area
C)replacement of normal cells by a different type of cell
D)a decrease in the size of the individual cells
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
A)full-thickness
B)deep partial-thickness
C)superficial partial-thickness
D)first-degree
Answer: B
Q2) Purulent exudates usually contain:
A)small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water
B)red blood cells & all types of white blood cells
C)numerous leukocytes,bacteria,and cell debris
D)large amounts of water containing a few cells
Answer: C
Q3) The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly:
A)during allergic reactions
B)during chronic inflammation
C)to produce antibodies
D)in order to promote phagocytosis
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV infection impairs:
A)humoral immunity
B)cell-mediated immunity
C)both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
D)neither type of immunity
Answer: C
Q2) Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
A)T-helper cells
B)macrophages
C)eosinophils
D)monocytes
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
A)hypoplasia of the thymus
B)delayed hypersensitivity
C)immunosuppressive drugs
D)atrophy of the lymph nodes
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
A)interfering with cell-wall synthesis
B)blocking protein synthesis
C)increasing cell membrane permeability
D)preventing DNA replication
Q2) Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:
A)block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria
B)reduce the inflammatory response to local infection
C)increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
D)may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells
Q3) Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
A)antiviral drugs lower host resistance
B)the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis
C)respiratory droplets transmit infections
D)the viral infection is usually self-limiting
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
A)epithelial cells
B)skeletal muscle cells
C)nerve tissue
D)collagen and fibrous tissue
Q2) Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
A)glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy
B)the immune system is stimulated
C)skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased
D)inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
Q3) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A)The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B)Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C)The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D)No effective treatment is available.
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the initial stage,vomiting results in:
A)metabolic acidosis
B)metabolic alkalosis
C)respiratory alkalosis
D)None of the above are correct.
Q2) Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in:
A)hypokalemia
B)hypernatremia
C)hyperchloremia
D)hypovolemia
Q3) The control centre for thirst is located in the:
A)kidneys
B)thalamus
C)medulla
D)hypothalamus
Q4) Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone:
A)increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
B)increased activation of vitamin D
C)increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
D)decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
8
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:
A)autosome
B)genotype
C)meiosis
D)mutation
E)allele
Q2) Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
A)autosomal dominant disorder
B)multifactorial disorder
C)developmental defect
D)chromosomal disorder
Q3) Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
A)many viruses
B)some heavy metals
C)certain chemicals
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A)It often develops from untreated,undescended testes.
B)It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C)The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D)The cancer usually causes sterility.
Q2) The biologic changes associated with adolescence result are stimulated primarily by:
A)the peripheral nervous system
B)the thalamus
C)increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone
D)the pituitary gland
Q3) How is scoliosis identified?
A)bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B)uneven hips and shoulders
C)a swayback posture
D)one arm and leg shorter than the other
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Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A)severe hypertension
B)disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C)jaundice
D)thromboembolism
Q2) Which of the following statements apply to eclampsia?
A)Elevated blood pressure returns to normal following delivery.
B)Kidney and liver function remain normal.
C)It commonly develops with ectopic pregnancies.
D)Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur.
Q3) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A)hCG
B)progesterone
C)AFP
D)estrogen
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1)tissue elasticity
2)rib mobility
3)control by the respiratory center
4)skeletal muscle strength
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)2,3,4
D)1,2,4
Q2) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)decreased estrogen secretion
B)genetic factors
C)sedentary lifestyle
D)decreased parathyroid hormone
Q3) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A)widespread vascular degeneration
B)cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C)hereditary factors
D)increased immune surveillance
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Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A)bone demineralization
B)lengthening of tendons and ligaments
C)decreased skeletal muscle mass
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q2) Which of the following apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A)Sudden changes in body position from supine to upright may cause low blood pressure.
B)Venous return and cardiac output are decreased with immobility.
C)All cardiovascular reflexes are lost with prolonged immobility.
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q3) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A)contracture
B)muscle hypertrophy
C)muscle atrophy
D)increased osteoblastic activity
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1)glycogenesis
2)bronchodilation
3)vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera
4)decreased metabolic rate
A)1,2
B)2,3
C)2,4
D)3,4
Q2) In which of the following disorders is stress NOT considered to be an exacerbating factor?
A)cystic fibrosis
B)rheumatoid arthritis
C)herpes simplex
D)multiple sclerosis
Q3) During the stress response,glucocorticoids assist in:
A)increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure
B)depressing and calming cerebral function
C)stimulating increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin
D)preventing excessive secretion of epinephrine
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the gate-control theory,passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
A)at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses
B)by the stress response
C)by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord
D)by referring the pain to other parts of the body
Q2) What is the definition of endorphins?
A)neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
B)transmitters for sensory impulses
C)opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
D)pain-causing chemical mediators
Q3) What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
A)meperidine
B)acetaminophen
C)codeine
D)ibuprofen
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A)hereditary factors
B)disease requiring certain prescription drugs
C)easy access to many kinds of drugs
D)increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
E)increased work productivity
Q2) What is/are the typical effect(s)of psychedelic substances?
A)drowsiness and euphoria
B)marked stimulation of the CNS
C)lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D)altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
Q3) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A)behavioral change
B)weight gain
C)depression
D)loss of sensory function
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the development of hyperthermia,the stage of heat exhaustion is marked by:
A)shock and coma
B)hypervolemia and headache
C)diaphoresis and decreasing body temperature
D)dizziness,fainting,and headache
Q2) The amount of radiation absorbed by the body is measured in rads,or _________?
A)radiation-absorbed doses
B)roentgen-absorbed doses
C)radiation-emission number
D)radiation ionizing rate
Q3) Inhalants can be:
A)a particulate such as asbestos
B)gaseous,such as sulfur dioxide
C)a solvent,such as benzene
D)a,c
E)a,b,c
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
A)antagonism
B)beneficial
C)synergism
D)potentiation
Q2) The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
A)undesirable side effects
B)development of resistant microbes
C)an allergic response
D)any recurrence of infection in the distant future
Q3) A drug is taken with a meal when it:
A)needs to be absorbed quickly
B)irritates the stomach
C)interacts with certain foods
D)is intended to delay digestion
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin K is required by the liver to synthesize:
A)heparin
B)prothrombin
C)amino acids
D)bilirubin
Q2) Which of the following applies to the etiology of aplastic anemia? It is:
A)idiopathic in many cases
B)a genetic disorder
C)predisposed by exposure to myelotoxins
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q3) Which of the following is typical of Hodgkin's disease?
A)onset usually in early childhood
B)multiple tumors spreading randomly through the body
C)initial tumor is single,painless,enlarged lymph node,often cervical
D)currently a very poor prognosis
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
A)Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
B)Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
C)The ventricles contract before the atria.
D)Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
Q2) With shock,anaerobic cell metabolism and decreased renal blood flow cause:
A)metabolic alkalosis
B)metabolic acidosis
C)decreased serum potassium
D)increased serum bicarbonate
Q3) Which of the following represent(s)the pathophysiologic changes in the heart in cases of rheumatic fever?
A)infection in the heart by hemolytic streptococci
B)highly virulent microbes causing vegetations on the heart valves
C)septic emboli obstructing coronary arteries
D)an abnormal immune response,causing acute inflammation in all layers of the heart
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a/an:
A)X-linked recessive gene
B)autosomal recessive gene
C)autosomal dominant gene
D)chromosomal defect
Q2) The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:
1)upper and lower respiratory tracts
2)nasal cavities and the sinuses
3)nasopharynx and oropharynx
4)middle ear cavity and auditory tube
A)1 only
B)1,2
C)2,3
D)1,3,4
E)1,2,3,4
Q3) Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
A)viral infection in infant under 12 months
B)viral infection in child,3 months to 3 years
C)bacterial infection in infant under 6 months
D)bacterial infection in child,3-7 years
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
A)anemia and leucopenia
B)jaundice and pruritus
C)recurrent infections
D)deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
Q2) What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
A)formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
B)infection by intestinal microbes
C)immune complex reaction
D)activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
Q3) How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?
A)Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes inflammation.
B)Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allows the bacteria to spread.
C)Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
D)Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity.
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) With severe kidney disease,either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:
A)cardiac arrhythmias
B)encephalopathy
C)hypervolemia
D)skeletal muscle twitch or spasm
Q2) What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?
A)hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
B)pyuria and leucopenia
C)hypertension and heart failure
D)gross hematuria and pyuria
Q3) What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney?
A)gross hematuria
B)microscopic hematuria
C)sharp flank pain
D)oliguria
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
A)respiratory droplets
B)insects such as mosquitoes
C)bites from infected animals
D)the fecal-oral route
Q2) Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical:
A)unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome
B)weakness and muscle atrophy in the legs
C)ascending paralysis commencing in the legs
D)skeletal muscle spasms in the face and neck
Q3) All of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT:
A)it is caused by an anaerobic,spore-forming bacillus
B)the exotoxin causes strong skeletal muscle spasms
C)death may result from respiratory failure
D)signs of infection include fever,vomiting,stiff neck,and paralysis
Q4) What is an early indicator of increasing intracranial pressure?
A)papilledema
B)bilateral fixed dilated pupils
C)decreasing responsiveness
D)rapid heart rate
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer's disease?
1)behavioral changes
2)reduced ability to reason and problem solve
3)decreased verbal responses
4)urinary incontinence
A)1,2
B)1,4
C)2,3
D)1,3,4
Q2) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
A)inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait
B)infection in the brain by HIV
C)an autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors
D)infection in the brain by a prion
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy?
A)hyperbilirubinemia
B)hypoglycemia
C)hypoxia
D)trauma
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
A)fixation of the stapes to the oval window
B)adhesions between the ossicles
C)fibrosis in the tympanic membrane
D)overgrowth of bone obstructing the auditory tube
Q2) Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
A)sudden total loss of hearing
B)tinnitus
C)severe pain in ear
D)fluid exudate draining from ear
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B)Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C)Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D)Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q4) Loss of vision can occur when:
A)excessive intraocular pressure develops
B)the cornea is scarred
C)either of the preceding occurs
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to oxytocin?
1)It stimulates contraction of the uterus after delivery.
2)It stimulates ejection of breast milk during lactation.
3)It stimulates mammary gland production of milk.
4)It is released from the adenohypophysis.
A)1,2
B)1,4
C)1,3,4
D)1,2,3,4
Q2) Which of the following are common early signs of a pituitary adenoma?
1)persistent headaches
2)hemianopia
3)hypertension
4)papilledema
A)1,4
B)2,3
C)1,2
D)1,3,4
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
A)non-weight-bearing exercises
B)dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
C)transplants of osteoblasts
D)avoidance of all hormones
Q2) What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
A)norepinephrine
B)GABA
C)serotonin
D)acetylcholine
Q3) How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
A)enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B)inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C)fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D)blood supply to the cartilage is lost
Q4) How is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy inherited?
A)an autosomal recessive gene
B)an X-linked recessive gene
C)an autosomal dominant gene
D)a codominant gene
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
A)viral infection
B)presence of nevi (moles)on the skin
C)exposure to ultraviolet light
D)frequent hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
A)They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B)They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C)They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D)They are malignant and invasive.
Q3) Which of the following factors have contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A)excessive sun exposure
B)increased number of nevi
C)increase in immunosuppressed individuals
D)presence of more seborrheic keratoses
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A)varicocele
B)hypospadias
C)spermatocele
D)hydrocele
Q2) Specific genetic links have been shown for:
1)cervical cancer
2)testicular cancer
3)breast cancer
4)prostatic cancer
A)1,2
B)3,4
C)1,3,4
D)2,3,4
Q3) Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
A)it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation
B)vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis
C)premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes
D)hormone therapy is ineffective
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