Diagnostic Medical Sonography Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Medical Sonography is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and clinical applications of ultrasound imaging in the medical field. Students will gain theoretical knowledge and practical skills in producing and interpreting sonographic images to assist in the diagnosis of various medical conditions. Topics include anatomy and physiology relevant to sonography, ultrasound physics and instrumentation, patient care and safety, and image evaluation techniques. The course emphasizes hands-on experience and prepares students for certification and professional practice in a variety of clinical environments, including hospitals and specialized diagnostic imaging centers.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
A) Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
B) Ischemic damage to cells
C) Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
D) Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
Answer: D
Q2) A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:
A) metaplasia.
B) atrophy.
C) dysplasia.
D) hypertrophy.
Answer: C
Q3) When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:
A) atrophy.
B) liquefactive necrosis.
C) apoptosis.
D) infarction.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
A) Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
B) Increased activation of vitamin D
C) Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
D) Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
Answer: C
Q2) Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include:
A) increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) decreased aldosterone.
C) slow, strong heart contraction.
D) peripheral vasodilation.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
A) Increased osmotic pressure
B) Decreased osmotic pressure
C) Increased hydrostatic pressure
D) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
A) Trade name
B) Chemical name
C) Proprietary name
D) Generic name
Answer: D
Q2) Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
A) those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
B) those typical side effects associated with this drug.
C) the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
D) the maximum shelf life of the medication.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
A) Additional, mild, unwanted effects
B) Unusual, unexpected mild effects
C) Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
D) Reduction of the allergic response
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Morphine
C) Codeine
D) Intravenous general anesthesia
Q2) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
Q3) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A) tension
B) sinus
C) migraine
D) intracranial
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury?
1) Increased permeability of blood vessels
2) Dilation of blood vessels
3) Transient vasoconstriction
4) Migration of leukocytes to the area
5) Hyperemia
A) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Q2) How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures?
A) Scar tissue continues to grow and spread, causing a blockage.
B) Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.
C) Scar tissue twists and forms knots as it develops.
D) Scar tissue attaches to nearby normal tissue, causing obstruction.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
A) To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
B) To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
C) To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
D) To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication
Q2) A bacterial endospore can:
A) also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
B) exist in latent form inside a host cell.
C) reproduce very rapidly.
D) survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
Q3) Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?
A) Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.
B) Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant.
C) Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always hypoallergenic.
D) Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against endospores.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include:
1) tuberculosis.
2) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
3) influenza.
4) tetanus.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Q2) HIV infection impairs:
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
D) neither type of immunity.
Q3) Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?
A) Agglutination
B) Double immunodiffusion test
C) Western blot test
D) Sedimentation rate test
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
A) Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions
B) Autoimmune response
C) Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
D) Basal cell degeneration
Q2) Plantar warts are caused by:
A) the fungus aspergillus.
B) a parasitic arthropod.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is TRUE?
A) Infection is localized in a small area of the epidermis.
B) It is usually caused by S. aureus.
C) Spontaneous recovery usually occurs in 48 hours.
D) Infection rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis and toxic shock.
Q4) Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
A) Small, brown pruritic lines
B) Painful and pruritic fissures
C) Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
D) Firm, red, painful nodule or pustule
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A) Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
B) Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
C) Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
D) Presence of many antibodies in the blood
Q2) A sprain is a tear in a:
A) ligament.
B) tendon.
C) skeletal muscle.
D) meniscus.
Q3) The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
A) excessive bone movement.
B) severe ischemia and tissue necrosis.
C) malunion or nonunion.
D) fat emboli to form.
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11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which blood dyscrasia does pancytopenia develop?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
Q2) Von Willebrand disease is caused by:
A) defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions.
B) excessive lymphocytes that do not mature.
C) absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick.
D) a lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency.
Q3) Which of the following can result from a malabsorption problem?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Pernicious anemia
Q4) What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
A) Radiation
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
Q2) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q3) Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
A) lymphomas
B) myelomas
C) lymphocytomas
D) lymphedemas
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as:
A) a dilation or bulge that develops at one point on the aortic wall.
B) a thrombus that accumulates at a point in the aortic wall.
C) a section of the aorta that weakens and dilates in all directions.
D) a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.
Q2) The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
A) preventing an excessively rapid heart rate.
B) limiting the time for a myocardial contraction.
C) allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria.
D) completing ventricular filling.
Q3) Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
A) reducing the risk of blood clotting.
B) decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques.
C) reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions.
D) decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of a large open pneumothorax (sucking wound)?
A) Mediastinal flutter, impairing venous return
B) Increased venous return
C) Progressive atelectasis of both lungs
D) Overexpansion of the unaffected lung
Q2) Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
A) can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.
B) promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the lungs.
C) causes paraneoplastic syndrome.
D) increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs.
Q3) What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
A) The kidneys eliminating more bicarbonate ions
B) The kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions
C) The kidneys reabsorbing more hydrogen ions
D) An increase in respiratory rate
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertebral fractures are classified as:
A) simple, compression, wedge, dislocation.
B) compound, open, closed, shattered.
C) complex, torsion, open, multiple.
D) pressure, complex, simple, variable.
Q2) Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer's disease?
1) Behavioral changes
2) Reduced ability to reason and problem solve
3) Decreased verbal responses
4) Urinary incontinence
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hypoventilation.
C) brain abscess.
D) high fever in young child.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
A) influenza virus.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Staphylococcus bacteria.
D) Chlamydia bacteria.
Q2) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
A) Sensorineural
B) Conduction
C) Semiacute
D) Inflammatory
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called:
A) temporary maternal diabetes.
B) fetal diabetes.
C) acute developmental diabetes.
D) gestational diabetes.
Q2) Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
A) Inappropriate ADH syndrome
B) Gigantism
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Myxedema
Q3) Complications of diabetes mellitus include:
A) peripheral neuropathy.
B) frequent infections.
C) cataracts.
D) A, B, and C.
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
A) Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
B) Severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin
C) Hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia
D) Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension
Q2) In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Small intestine
D) Spleen
Q3) Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
A) cholelithiasis.
B) cholecystitis.
C) cholangitis.
D) choledocholithiasis.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
A) Development of hypercalcemia
B) Deficit of parathyroid hormone
C) Failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
D) Excessive loss of phosphate ion
Q2) What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys?
A) Dehydration and hypovolemia
B) Gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia
C) Sudden anuria and azotemia
D) Severe back or flank pain
Q3) Wilms' tumor is:
A) a malignant tumor in the bladder.
B) an encapsulated mass in one kidney.
C) not considered to have a genetic origin.
D) manifested in adulthood.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?
A) Human chorionic gonadotropin
B) Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Prostate-specific antigen
D) Luteinizing hormone
Q2) Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A) The complete process takes about 28 days.
B) Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
C) It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
D) The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
Q3) Infertility in women may result from:
A) endometriosis.
B) hormonal imbalances.
C) A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Q4) Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
A) Infertility
B) Testicular cancer
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
21
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
A) A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor
B) Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
C) A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested
D) A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity
Q2) Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:
A) colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B) hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP
C) prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome
Q3) The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
A) exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.
B) development of defective genes.
C) an irreversible change in the cell DNA.
D) a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.
Q4) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A) thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
B) headache and lethargy.
C) nausea and constipation.
D) alopecia and weight loss.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called:
A) the genotype.
B) gene mutation.
C) genetic engineering.
D) gene therapy.
Q2) A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to:
A) all of his sons, who will be affected.
B) 50% of his sons, who will be affected.
C) all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
D) 50% of his daughters, who will be carriers.
Q3) What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
A) Pedigree
B) Punnett squares
C) Karyotype
D) Genotype
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to eclampsia?
A) Elevated blood pressure returns to normal after delivery.
B) Kidney and liver function remain normal.
C) It commonly develops with ectopic pregnancies.
D) Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur.
Q3) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A) hCG.
B) testosterone.
C) AFP.
D) aldosterone.
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
Q2) An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is:
A) lordosis.
B) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA).
C) osteomyelitis.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Q3) How is scoliosis identified?
A) Bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B) Unevenly aligned hips and shoulders
C) A swayback posture
D) One arm and leg shorter than the other
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25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
Q2) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A) reducing vitamin D intake.
B) maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.
C) increasing bone resorption.
D) maintaining glucocorticoid therapy.
Q3) All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A) reduced skeletal muscle mass.
B) degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine.
C) increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
D) reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A) Decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B) Increased retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Inability to sneeze forcefully
D) Stasis of secretions in the lungs
Q2) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
Q3) Atelectasis may occur with a prolonged period of bed rest because of:
A) reduced removal of pulmonary secretions.
B) increased expansion of the lower lobes of the lungs.
C) increased risk of aspiration in a sitting position.
D) loss of cough reflex.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertension.
B) tension headache.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) blindness.
Q2) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from: 1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q3) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
Q2) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A) demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
B) require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
C) require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
D) show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Q3) Which of the following applies to abuse of anabolic steroids?
A) They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia.
B) They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
C) They help to relax skeletal muscle spasms.
D) They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Q4) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A) Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B) Inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C) Various cancers
D) Displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia, the stage of heat stroke is marked by:
A) shock and coma.
B) hypervolemia and headache.
C) diaphoresis and decreasing body temperature.
D) dizziness, fainting, and headache.
Q3) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) Shigella outbreaks.
C) rabies.
D) severe pain and headache.
Q4) The term pica refers to:
A) the consumption of nonfood substances such as clay.
B) diffuse edema and degeneration of neurons in the brain.
C) particulates in the respiratory tract.
D) high levels of mercury in the blood.
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