Diagnostic Laboratory Techniques Exam Bank https://quizplus.com/study-set/1327 56 Chapters 996 Verified Questions
Diagnostic Laboratory Techniques Exam Bank Course Introduction This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles, procedures, and applications of diagnostic laboratory techniques used in medical and research laboratories. Students will learn about various laboratory methods, including specimen collection, handling, and processing, as well as techniques such as microscopy, microbiological cultures, biochemical assays, immunological tests, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis will be placed on understanding quality control, safety protocols, and the interpretation of laboratory results. Through practical sessions and case studies, students will develop the technical skills required for accurate laboratory diagnosis and troubleshooting in clinical and research settings.
Recommended Textbook Clinical Chemistry Theory Analysis Correlation 5th Edition by Lawrence A. Kaplan
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 56 Chapters 996 Verified Questions 996 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1327
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Chapter 1: Basic Laboratory Principles and Techniques Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26462
Sample Questions Q1) Taring an electronic balance refers to: A)verifying balance performance using Class S weights B)leveling the balance by adjusting the foot screws C)zeroing the weight of the weighing vessel D)adding counterweights to determine the true weight of the material being measured Answer: C Q2) What dilution is necessary to make an 18 mg/L solution from a 30 mg/L solution? A)1:5 dilution B)3:5 dilution C)2:3 dilution D)1:3 dilution Answer: B Q3) According to the Hazards Identification System developed by NFPA, the blue diamond indicates: A)the reactivity-stability hazard of the chemical B)any special hazard information about the chemical C)the flammability hazard of the chemical D)the health hazard associated with the chemical Answer: D To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Spectral Techniques Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26463
Sample Questions Q1) If a glucose standard has an absorbance of 0.480, and an unknown has an absorbance of 0.120, which of the following best describes the unknown's glucose concentration? A)one fourth the standard concentration B)equal to the standard concentration C)four times the standard concentration D)not enough data to calculate Answer: A Q2) A solution of chloramphenicol (MW 323.1) in water gave an absorbance of 0.610 at 278 nm in a 1-cm cuvette; the concentration was 0.02 mg/mL.What is the molar absorptivity of chloramphenicol? A)30.5 L/mol•cm B)3050 L/mol•cm C)9855 L/mol•cm D)11241 L/mol•cm Answer: C To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 3: Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry: Theory, Practice, and Instrumentation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26464
Sample Questions Q1) What is the correct interpretation of column selectivity (α) = 1.0? A)The separation of the solutes has been optimized, and no further improvement can be made in chromatographic conditions. B)The solutes are adequately separated by the chromatographic system. C)The solutes are partially separated by the chromatographic system. D)The solutes are not separated by the chromatographic system. Answer: D Q2) Considering the chromatographic separation of two solutes that are present in a mixture at the same concentration and produce the same detector response (i.e., have the same molar absorptivity), the solute that has a higher affinity for the stationary phase will have a ______ retention time and a ______ detector response than the solute that has a higher affinity for the mobile phase. A)greater, greater B)lesser, greater C)greater, lesser D)lesser, lesser Answer: C To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Chromatographic Techniques Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26465
Sample Questions Q1) Suppose there is the need to separate the components of a mixture in which the components are known to have a molecular weight of less than 1000 D, not be ionizable, and
be
relatively
nonpolar
with
limited
hydrogen-bonding
potential.Which
chromatographic method should be selected? A)adsorption chromatography B)partition chromatography C)ion-exchange chromatography D)gel-permeation chromatography Q2) Which of the following components of the gas chromatograph does not require close temperature control? A)the carrier gas B)the injector port C)the column D)the detector Q3) In mass spectrometry, the molecular ion is: A)the ion of highest relative abundance in the spectrum B)the ion from which all other fragment ions are derived C)always observed in the mass spectrum D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Laboratory Analysis of Hemoglobin Variants Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26466
Sample Questions Q1) Standard hemoglobin electrophoresis on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 is utilized in some laboratories for the evaluation of hemoglobins.In many cases, this is followed by hemoglobin electrophoresis on the same patient sample, using citrate agar at pH 6.2.What is the purpose of this second electrophoretic analysis? A)to confirm the results of the electrophoresis in the cellulose acetate (alkaline) system B)to aid in the identification of hemoglobins that co-migrate in the cellulose acetate (alkaline) system C)to replace the need for chromatographic analysis D)to give the technologist confidence that the initial results are correct, since the second technique will produce identical results as the first technique Q2) Which of the following variations between hemoglobins allows for their separation by electrophoresis and chromatography? A)variations in the amino acid composition of hemoglobins B)variations in the heme composition of hemoglobins C)variations in the amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobins D)variations in the concentration of hemoglobins in the sample under analysis To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 6: Electrophoresis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26467
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following proteins will show the greatest net negative charge in a pH 8.6 buffer? A)protein A with an isoelectric point of 7.5 B)protein B with an isoelectric point of 8.0 C)protein C with an isoelectric point of 8.6 D)protein D with an isoelectric point of 9.6 Q2) The discontinuous solvent system used to enhance electrophoretic resolution in which movement comes to a stop because of a lack of net charge is: A)isotachophoresis B)disk electrophoresis C)isoelectric focusing D)gel electrophoresis Q3) Considering only the effect of time on electrophoretic separation, the separation of bands ________ with time, and diffusion of bands _______ with time. A)increases, increases B)increases, decreases C)decreases, increases D)decreases, decreases To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunological Reactions Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26468
Sample Questions Q1) The most potent antigens are macromolecules with molecular weights greater than: A)1000 daltons B)10,000 daltons C)50,000 daltons D)100,000 daltons Q2) Which immunoglobulin exists primarily as a pentamer and is the predominate immunoglobulin in the initial immune response to an antigen? A)IgM B)IgE C)IgA D)IgD Q3) When comparing an IgG molecule with a Fab fragment obtained from the same clonal population, the affinity for the antigen of interest would be ________, and the avidity of the two for the antigen of interest would be ________. A)greater for the Fab fragment, the same B)the same, greater for the IgG molecule C)greater for the IgG molecule, greater for the Fab fragment D)the same, greater for the Fab fragment To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Immunochemical Techniques Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26469
Sample Questions Q1) Suppose your laboratory uses a competitive binding assay with a labeled antigen that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen ________ in the patient sample, the absorbance of the test solution will ________. A)increases, increase B)increases, decrease C)decreases, decrease D)both a and c are correct Q2) Which one of the following sample conditions would be acceptable in complement fixation testing? A)a hemolyzed sample B)a lipemic sample C)plasma collected in EDTA D)plasma collected in heparin Q3) Which of the following best describes the visualization step in the Western blot technique? A)use of a stain specific for the antigen separated B)reaction with a labeled antihuman immunoglobulin antibody C)the presence of a fluorescent pigment in the transfer medium D)the UV/Vis light-absorption properties of the separated antigen To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Principles for Competitive-Binding Assays Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26470
Sample Questions Q1) Suppose your laboratory uses the ELISA configuration in which the antibody has been immobilized onto the solid phase.How would the result of the assay for a patient whose specimen is in a specific well be affected by improperly washing the solid phase of that particular well? A)The patient's result would be falsely elevated. B)The patient's result would be falsely decreased. C)The patient's result would not be affected. D)The impact varies by patient sample and cannot be anticipated. Q2) Which of the following labels is attached to the ligand in the EMIT system? A)a lanthanide metal such as europium B)an enzyme C)the antibody to the ligand D)a chromophore or fluorophore Q3) ELISA is considered a ______ assay, and EMIT is considered a ______ assay.______ assay would be considered more suitable for automated chemistry analyzers. A)homogeneous, heterogeneous, homogeneous B)homogeneous, heterogeneous, heterogeneous C)heterogeneous, homogeneous, heterogeneous D)heterogeneous, homogeneous, homogeneous To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Laboratory Approaches to Serology Testing Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26471
Sample Questions Q1) The specimen of choice in serological testing is ______.If the specimen is to be stored for 1 week prior to analysis, the specimen should be ______. A)serum, frozen at -20°C B)plasma, frozen at -20°C C)serum, refrigerated D)plasma, refrigerated Q2) Flocculation and precipitation agglutination reactions differ by: A)Flocculation reactions result from the detection of antibody, and precipitation reactions result from the detection of antigen. B)Flocculation reactions result from the detection of antigen, and precipitation reactions result from the detection of antibody. C)Flocculation-reaction
complexes
float
in
solution,
and
precipitation-reaction
complexes settle to the bottom of the solution. D)Flocculation-reaction complexes can only be observed microscopically, and precipitation-reaction complexes can be observed macroscopically. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 11: Measurement of Colligative Properties Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26472
Sample Questions Q1) Determine the calculated osmolality given the following data: sodium = 135 mEq/L; glucose = 95 mg/dL; BUN = 10 mg/dL. A)240 mOsm/kg B)279 mOsm/kg C)375 mOsm/kg D)480 mOsm/kg Q2) What is the purpose for calculating an osmolal gap? A)This serves as a quality-control measure of osmolality measurement. B)This serves as an indication of abnormal concentrations of unmeasured substances in the blood stream. C)This is the method utilized to calibrate the osmometer. D)This removes the need for direct measurement of osmolality. Q3) The major measured contributor to serum osmolality is: A)sodium B)glucose C)BUN D)protein To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 12: Electrochemistry: Principles and Measurement Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26473
Sample Questions Q1) The oxygen electrode is designed as a complete electrochemical cell which includes a platinum cathode at which oxygen is ______ by the reaction ______, utilizing electrons produced at the anode. A)oxidized, O₂ + ₂H+ + ₂e- →H₂O₂ B)reduced, O₂ + ₂H+ + ₂e-→ H₂O₂ C)oxidized, Ago ↔ Ag+ + eD)reduced, Ago ↔ Ag+ + eQ2) Which of the following may result in errant sodium results being reported by the laboratory when using a glass ion-selective electrode? A)standards used for calibration and sample for analysis are not analyzed at the same temperature B)electrode fouling by serum, plasma, or whole blood C)analysis of highly acidic urine samples D)all of the above Q3) The primary application for coulometric analysis of chloride is: A)the measurement of chloride in urine B)the measurement of chloride in sweat C)the measurement of chloride in serum D)the measurement of chloride in whole blood To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Molecular Diagnostics Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26474
Sample Questions Q1) ____________ forms the basis for almost all types of DNA detection methods. A)denaturation B)hybridization C)restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) D)amplification Q2) The mutation-detection technique that incorporates a set of immobilized DNA probes for different sequence variants to which PCR amplified DNA is added is known as: A)PCR-mediated site-directed mutagenesis (PSM) technique B)amplification refractory mutation system (ARMS) technique C)allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization (ASO or dot blot) technique D)reverse dot blot technique Q3) The most common method for visualizing DNA following electrophoretic size separation involves the use of ______, which is fluorescent _____. A)silver nitrate, prior to binding to the DNA double helix B)ethidium bromide, prior to binding to the DNA double helix C)silver nitrate, after binding to the DNA double helix D)ethidium bromide, after binding to the DNA double helix To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 14: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26475
Sample Questions Q1) Where will an acidic drug with a pKₐ of 3.5 have the greatest chance for absorption by passive diffusion? A)the stomach B)the skin C)the intestine D)the rectum Q2) Kinetic processes related to the fate of a drug in the body, where the rate of change of drug concentration is independent of the concentration of a particular drug, is known as: A)zero-order kinetics B)first-order kinetics C)Michaelis-Menten kinetics D)compartmental kinetics Q3) Kinetic processes related to the fate of a drug in the body, where the drug concentration exceeds the capacity of the system, is known as: A)zero-order kinetics B)first-order kinetics C)Michaelis-Menten kinetics D)compartmental kinetics To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Clinical Enzymology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26476
Sample Questions Q1) Which type of enzyme inhibitor binds to the active site and is considered to be a reversible inhibitor? A)competitive inhibitor B)noncompetitive inhibitor C)uncompetitive inhibitor D)allosteric inhibitor Q2) Enzymes that are of diagnostic utility are primarily located ______, and changes in plasma concentration of these enzymes are indicative of ______. A)in plasma, the cause of the disease leading to the change B)within cells, the cause of the disease leading to the change C)in plasma, the location and nature of the pathological change D)within cells, the location and nature of the pathological change Q3) An enzyme activity of 50 IU/L is equal to _____ nK/L. A)3.0 B)16.7 C)416 D)835 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 16: Protein Isoforms: Isoenzymes and Isoforms Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26477
Sample Questions Q1) What is the limitation of LD isoenzyme measurement in diagnostic enzymology? A)Since LD catalyzes a reversible reaction, it is difficult to get a true measurement of LD activity. B)Since LD is found in virtually every tissue, the clinical usefulness in pinpointing areas of disease is extremely limited. C)LD is found primarily in cells and tissue, making its measurement difficult. D)all of the above Q2) Which of the following correctly explains why the CK₁ isoenzyme is typically not detected? A)The molecular weight of CK₁ prevents its passage across the blood-brain barrier, thus it does not appear in the blood stream. B)CK₁ is not very chromophoric, making it difficult to detect its presence. C)CK₁ is completely destroyed by plasma enzymes as soon as it enters the blood stream. D)CK₁ is a neutral molecule and cannot be analyzed by electrophoresis. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 17: Interferences in Chemical Analysis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26478
Sample Questions Q1) It is recommended that spectrophotometric measurements be made in which of the following absorbance ranges? A)0.100 - 1.100 B)0.200 - 0.500 C)0.500 - 1.500 D)0.100 - 2.000 Q2) The most common source of interference in spectrophotometric analyses results from: A)the presence of drugs in the patient sample B)the presence of unexpected increases of compounds associated with disease processes in the patient sample C)the presence of hemolysis, icteria, or lipemia in the patient sample D)the anticoagulant used to collect the patient sample Q3) Suppose a colorimetric analysis that utilizes a highly colored reagent is to be performed.Which type of blank should be prepared to ensure the correct sample results? A)sample blank B)reagent blank C)instrument blank D)diluent blank To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Sources and Control of Preanalytical Variation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26479
Sample Questions Q1) Typically, serum or plasma glucose levels are measured on venous blood samples.Suppose an arterial sample is used to measure the glucose level for a particular patient.Why should the use of an arterial sample for this patient's glucose be noted on the patient's laboratory report? A)Procedures used to analyze glucose in venous blood and arterial blood are different. B)The normal reference ranges for glucose differ for the two samples. C)The medical staff needs an accurate record of all blood collections. D)Arterial samples require more lengthy laboratory assays, and this notation explains the delay. Q2) Given that all of the following analytes show circadian variation, which one is known to be higher in the afternoon and evening than in the morning? A)cortisol B)ACTH C)TSH D)iron To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 19: Laboratory Management Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26480
Sample Questions Q1) ________ regulations serve to ensure the operation of a safe laboratory. A)CLIA '88 B)OSHA C)HIPAA D)LRN Q2) A laboratory test is considered a ____________ test until the test is classified by the FDA. A)waived B)moderately complex C)highly complex D)experimental Q3) A quality-assurance program is designed to: 1)monitor and evaluate the ongoing quality of the total testing process 2)identify and correct problems 3)ensure accurate, reliable, and prompt reporting of results 4)ensure adequacy and competency of the staff A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 3 C)2, 3, 4 D)1, 3, 4 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Laboratory Automation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26481
Sample Questions Q1) Studies have shown that automating front-end specimen processing has ______ sample processing time, ______ labor cost, and ___ __ specimen pour-off, labeling, and sorting errors. A)decreased, decreased, decreased B)decreased, increased, decreased C)increased, decreased, increased D)increased, increased, increased Q2) What is the primary driving force for automation in the laboratory? A)expansion of laboratory testing to generate more revenue B)reduction of costs C)reduction of turnaround time D)reduction of laboratory errors Q3) What is the essential part of laboratory automation that allows for the automatic reporting of test results without review by the technologist? A)middleware software B)the LIS C)autoverification D)none of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Point-Of-Care Near-Patient Testing Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26482
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is considered a benefit to the clinical laboratory with point-of-care testing? A)less trauma for the patient B)financial savings C)decreased
preanalytical
errors
such
as
incorrect
patient
ID
and
delay
in
transportation D)improved convenience Q2) Any analytical system approved by the U.S.Food and Drug Administration to be sold as an over-the-counter test (i.e., in a store or pharmacy, without the need for a prescription) is automatically placed into the ______________ category of POCT testing. A)waived B)provider-performed microscopy C)moderate-complexity D)high-complexity Q3) Which of the following do not perform point-of-care testing? A)laboratory personnel B)physicians C)nurses D)patients To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Laboratory Information Systems Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26483
Sample Questions Q1) When considering bar codes, what characters make up a Code 39? 1)uppercase alphabets 2)lowercase alphabets 3)numbers 4)special symbols A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)2, 4 C)1, 3 D)2, 3, 4 Q2) Which of the following is not considered an analytical function of the LIS? A)manual worklist B)instrument worklist C)phlebotomy draw list D)manual result entry Q3) Which of the following is not considered a patient demographic? A)patient sex B)referring physician C)age or birthdate D)All of the above are part of patient demographics. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Laboratory Statistics Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26484
Sample Questions Q1) The F-test is considered a measure of ______ between two sets of data, and the t-test is considered a measure of ______ between two sets of data.______ is/are considered as a parametric comparison. A)accuracy, precision, the F-test B)precision, accuracy, both tests C)accuracy, precision, both tests D)precision, accuracy, the t-test Q2) ______ describes the reproducibility of a method, and ______ describes the ability of the method to obtain the true or correct result.The ______ the standard deviation, the better the precision of the method.(answer format: blank 1, blank 2, blank 3) A)Accuracy, precision, smaller B)Precision, accuracy, smaller C)Accuracy, precision, larger D)Precision, accuracy, larger Q3) Degrees of freedom may be defined as: A)the freedom allowed when selecting data from a dataset. B)the number of independent observations in a dataset. C)N - 1. D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Reference Intervals and Clinical Decision Limits Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 16 Verified Questions 16 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26485
Sample Questions Q1) It has been shown that significant differences between the standard deviations of subclasses of subjects, even when the means are identical, can lead to deviations in diagnostic sensitivity and diagnostic specificity for disease detection.Thus in these situations, there may be the need for separate reference intervals.What statistical test should be selected to determine the need for different reference intervals in this situation? A)t-test B)F-test C)z-test D)Dixon's Q Q2) Endocrinologists typically encounter patients with hormonal abnormalities such as Cushing's disease (i.e., hyperadrenocorticism).Which of the following attributes is the most desirable for laboratory tests utilized in this environment? A)laboratory tests with the highest sensitivity B)laboratory tests with the highest specificity C)laboratory tests with the highest predictive value for a positive test D)laboratory tests with the highest efficiency To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 25: Quality Control for the Clinical Chemistry Laboratory Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 16 Verified Questions 16 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26486
Sample Questions Q1) Suppose a test procedure has been determined to be out of control.What is the first step that should be taken by the technologist to correct the problem? A)recalibrate the instrument B)retest using fresh aliquots of control materials C)replace reagents D)perform instrument maintenance Q2) Utilizing 95% confidence limits for quality-control materials, one would expect how many valid quality-control test results to fall outside the established limits? A)one in 95 B)one in 5 C)one in 10 D)one in 20 Q3) Suppose a laboratory expands its acceptable limits for quality-control results from 0 ± 2ₛ to 0 ± 2.5ₛ.What is the potential negative aspect of this change? A)There may not be sufficient error detection. B)There may be too many false rejections of acceptable test results. C)The control limits for rejecting an analytical run will become too narrow. D)There will be improved detection of method failure. To view all questions and flashcards withPage answers, 27 click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Evaluation of Methods Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26487
Sample Questions Q1) Even when a method's performance is well documented by published evaluation studies, the new laboratory considering use of the method should evaluate ______ and perform ______ to verify acceptable performance in that laboratory. A)random analytical error, the comparison-of-methods experiment B)random analytical error, the recovery experiment C)constant systematic error, the comparison-of-methods experiment D)constant systematic error, the recovery experiment Q2) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the correlation coefficient? A)A value of zero indicates that there is no correlation between the methods. B)A value of +1 indicates perfect positive correlation. C)This coefficient is extremely sensitive to the range of analyte concentrations of the patient specimens in the comparison-of-methods experiment. D)All of the above are true of the correlation coefficient. Q3) Usually a method-evaluation study is performed to: A)test all methods to determine the method with the smallest error. B)determine whether the selected method has acceptably small analytical errors. C)both a and b D)neither a nor b To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Classification and Description of Proteins, Lipids, and Carbohydrates Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 16 Verified Questions 16 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26488
Sample Questions Q1) The order or sequence of amino acids in a protein as determined by genetic code is known as a protein's _____ structure. A)primary B)secondary C)tertiary D)quaternary Q2) Pyranoses are formed from monosaccharides with a/an ______, and furanoses are formed from monosaccharides with a/an ______. A)aldehyde function at carbon-1, ketone function at carbon-2 B)ketone function at carbon-1, aldehyde function at carbon-2 C)aldehyde function at carbon-2, ketone function at carbon-1 D)ketone function at carbon-2, aldehyde function at carbon-1 Q3) The lipid that serves as the precursor of many hormones such as androgens, estrogens, and progesterones is: A)triglycerides B)cholesterol C)gangliosides D)cephalins To view all questions and flashcards withPage answers, 29 click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Physiology and Pathophysiology of Body Water and Electrolytes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26489
Sample Questions Q1) A normal serum osmolality is: A)150 - 350 mOsm/kg B)247 - 263 mOsm/kg C)285 - 298 mOsm/kg D)325 - 348 mOsm/kg Q2) As the concentration of macromolecules such as lipids and proteins increases: A)methods that measure ions in plasma water will show an increase in the concentration/activity measured, although the physiological activity is normal. B)methods that measure ions in plasma water will show a decrease in the concentration/activity measured, although the physiological activity is normal. C)methods that measure ions in total plasma volume will show an increase in the concentration/activity measured, although the physiological activity is normal. D)methods that measure ions in total plasma volume will show a decrease in the concentration/activity measured, although the physiological activity is normal. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 29: Acid-Base Control and Acid-Base Disorders Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 16 Verified Questions 16 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26490
Sample Questions Q1) Given the following arterial blood-gas results, which choice best describes the expected base excess/deficit and total CO₂ results for the sample? PH = 7.32 PCO₂ = 65 mm Hg HCO₃ = 24 mEq/L A)a base excess (above normal) and a normal total CO₂ B)a base deficit (below normal) and a normal total CO₂ C)a base excess (above normal) and a significantly decreased total CO₂ D)a base deficit (below normal) and a significantly increased total CO₂ Q2) Calculate the bicarbonate concentration, given the following information. PH = 7.10 PCO₂ = 78 mm Hg A)19 mmol/L B)21 mmol/L C)24 mmol/L D)26 mmol/L To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 30: Renal Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26491
Sample Questions Q1) In stage 4 of chronic kidney disease, the glomerular filtration rate is: A)between 15 and 30 B)between 30 and 60 C)between 60 and 90 D)greater than 90 Q2) Fanconi syndrome is a group of renal defects resulting in: 1)glucosuria 2)aminoaciduria 3)hypophosphatemia 4)renal tubular acidosis A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 4 C)2, 3, 4 D)1, 3, 4 Q3) A small fraction of filtered sodium, chloride, and water is reabsorbed in _____________. A)the ascending loop of Henle B)the descending loop of Henle C)the proximal tubule D)the distal convoluted tubule To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Liver Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26492
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following are true of ALP? 1)Increased ALP of liver origin is usually an indication of obstruction of biliary drainage. 2)ALP is a sensitive marker of obstructive disease secondary to tumors. 3)ALP is normally released into plasma with hepatocytes injury. A)1, 2, 3 B)1, 2 C)2, 3 D)1, 2. Q2) Which of the following functions are performed by hepatocytes? 1)metabolism 2)synthesis of critical components 3)formation of bile 4)endocrine functions A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 4 C)1, 3, 4 D)2, 3, 4 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 32: Diagnosis of Viral Hepatitis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26493
Sample Questions Q1) The combination of test results of the hepatitis B virus serological markers can be used to: 1)identify carrier status. 2)identify vaccination status. 3)differentiate the stage of an active infection. 4)estimate the clinical outcome of the disease. A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 3 C)1, 2, 4 D)1, 3, 4 Q2) What would be the laboratory interpretation of the following laboratory data for a hepatitis B serology profile? HBsAg - negative AHBcT - negative AHBs - negative A)susceptible B)immune due to natural infection C)immune due to vaccination D)acutely infected To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Bone Disease Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26494
Sample Questions Q1) Hypercalcemia can be seen in: A)Addison's disease B)withdrawal of steroids C)primary hyperparathyroidism D)all of the above Q2) Elevations of this analyte are seen in bone diseases characterized by increased osteoblastic activity, including Paget's disease, osteomalacia, osteitis fibrosa, and renal osteodystrophy.Decreased serum concentrations of PTH, thyroid hormone, or growth hormone are associated with a decrease in the serum concentration of this analyte. A)hydroxyproline B)alkaline phosphatase C)osteocalcin D)nephrogenous cyclic AMP Q3) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome will show which of the following laboratory observations? A)They all show an abnormal serum calcitonin concentration deficiency. B)They all show an abnormal serum calcitonin concentration excess. C)They all show an abnormal serum alkaline phosphatase deficiency. D)They all show an abnormal serum alkaline phosphatase excess. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: The Pancreas: Function and Chemical Pathology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26495
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following best summarizes the usefulness of the Ranson criteria for predicting the severity of acute pancreatitis? A)high positive predictive value, high negative predictive value B)high positive predictive value, low negative predictive value C)low positive predictive value, high negative predictive value D)low positive predictive value, low negative predictive value Q2) The principal cations in pancreatic fluid are: 1)sodium 2)potassium 3)calcium 4)magnesium 5)chloride A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 3, 5 C)2, 3, 4, 5 D)1, 3, 4, 5 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26496
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following statements are true of gut hormone structure and functions? 1)Gut hormones regulate digestion and absorption. 2)Gut hormones are released in response to nutrients in the lumen of the GI tract and stimulate the release of acid, bicarbonate, and enzymes for the digestion of food. 3)Secretin,
cholecystokinin,
vasoactive
intestinal
polypeptide,
and
pancreatic
polypeptide are involved in regulating insulin and glucagon production. 4)Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide (GIP) control exocrine pancreatic function. A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 3, 4 C)2, 4 D)1, 2 Q2) What analyte is measured in a lactose tolerance test? A)lactose B)lactase C)D-xylose D)glucose To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 36: Cardiac and Muscle Disease Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26497
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following laboratory results are seen during cardiac ischemia? A)increased K⁺ and acidosis B)decreased K⁺ and alkalosis C)increased Ca²⁺ and acidosis D)decreased Ca²⁺and alkalosis Q2) The most common cause of cardiac ischemia is: A)severe anemia B)coronary atherosclerosis C)hypotension D)coronary vasospasm Q3) Troponin ______ is found in cardiac and skeletal muscles and is not utilized in laboratory testing for evidence of a myocardial infarction.Although there are skeletal muscle forms of troponin ______, cardiac-specific isoforms have been identified and are the focus of laboratory testing.Only one form of troponin ______ has been identified, and it has never been found in skeletal muscle. A)C, I, T B)I, T, C C)C, T, I D)T, I, C To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Coronary Artery Disease: Lipid Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26498
Sample Questions Q1) Which plasma lipoprotein has the following physical and chemical characteristics? Electrophoretic mobility - pre-beta Cholesterol composition - 22% Triglycerides composition - 52% Phospholipid composition - 18% Apoprotein - 2% A)Chylomicrons B)VLDL C)LDL D)HDL Q2) Which of the following components of a lipoprotein profile is most affected by a nonfasting specimen? A)total cholesterol B)HDL cholesterol C)LDL cholesterol measured by a direct method D)triglycerides To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 38: Diabetes Mellitus Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 17 Verified Questions 17 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26499
Sample Questions Q1) The following laboratory data may be explained by: Blood glucose level - below normal Insulin level - above normal C-peptide level - low to normal A)hypoglycemia caused by alcoholism B)overtreatment with insulin C)pregnancy D)errant test results Q2) Which of the following is considered one of the earliest indicators of impending glomerular nephropathy associated with diabetes mellitus? A)glycated hemoglobin B)microalbuminuria C)urine osmolality D)BUN/creatinine Q3) Which of the following metabolic pathways provides the greatest amount of ATP per mole of glucose? A)anaerobic glycolysis B)aerobic glycolysis C)tricarboxylic acid cycle and linked oxidative phosphorylation D)glycogenesis To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Iron and Porphyrin Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26500
Sample Questions Q1) It is known that porphyrins are colored compounds, whereas porphyrinogens are colorless compounds.What is the chemical difference between porphyrins and porphyrinogens that accounts for this difference? A)the degree of saturation B)the degree of hydrophobicity C)the degree of hydrophilicity D)the presence of multiple nitrogen atoms Q2) The rate-limiting step in heme synthesis in the liver is regulated by which enzyme? A)ALA synthase B)ALA dehydratase C)PBG deaminase D)Ferrochelatase Q3) Percent saturation is a useful expression that relates: A)iron to ferritin B)iron to transferrin C)iron to hemosiderin D)iron to total iron stores To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 40: Hemoglobin Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26501
Sample Questions Q1) In which of the following conditions is Hb A₂ elevated? A)alpha thalassemia trait B)beta thalassemia trait C)Hb SC disease D)HB S trait Q2) Which of the following provides the primary advantage of Hb F for the developing fetus? A)Hb F has a higher oxygen affinity than Hb A. B)Hb F has a lower oxygen affinity than Hb A. C)Hb F is resistant to oxidation to methemoglobin. D)Hb F is resistant to alkali denaturation. Q3) It has been observed that the organism causing __________ fails to grow in Hb S-containing red blood cells. A)meningitis B)rubella C)syphilis D)malaria To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 41: Human Nutrition Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26502
Sample Questions Q1) For infants, essential amino acids should make up ______ of the total amino-acid intake; for children 10 to 12 years of age, it should make up ______; and for adults, essential amino acids should make up ______ of the total amino-acid intake. A)36%, 43%, 10% B)43%, 36%, 10% C)36%, 10%, 43% D)43%, 10%, 36% Q2) The hypermetabolic state can be associated with all of the following except: A)major burns B)peritonitis C)bone fractures D)starvation Q3) Which of the following factors is most important to consider when selecting the most useful protein for the laboratory assessment of nutritional supplementation? A)concentration of the protein B)size of the protein C)half-life of the protein D)degree of protein saturation To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: Trace Metals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26503
Sample Questions Q1) What is the laboratory method of choice in the analysis of essential trace metals? A)spectrophotometry B)fluorometry C)atomic absorption spectrophotometry D)nephelometry Q2) Which of the following cations is important in enzymes associated with nucleic acid and protein synthesis? A)aluminum B)zinc C)selenium D)molybdenum Q3) Metallothionein binds copper, zinc and cadmium.Which of the following sequences relates the strength of the interaction between metallothionein and these metals? (answer format: the most firmly bound metal listed first and least firmly bound metal listed last) A)cadmium, copper, zinc B)zinc, cadmium, copper C)copper, zinc, cadmium D)None of the above; all metals bind equally. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Vitamins Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26504
Sample Questions Q1) Hemolytic anemia may be associated with which vitamin deficiency? A)vitamin A B)vitamin D C)vitamin E D)vitamin K Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the major forms of vitamin K? 1)The phylloquinone form of vitamin K is found in fruits. 2)The phylloquinone form of vitamin K constitutes the dietary source of vitamin K. 3)The menaquinone form of vitamin K is produced in gram-negative bacteria. 4)The menaquinone form of vitamin K represents the bowel-derived source of vitamin K. A)1, 3 B)1, 4 C)2, 3 D)2, 4 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 44: Pregnancy and Fetal Development Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26505
Sample Questions Q1) Amniotic-fluid bilirubin serves as an important indicator of hemolytic disease in the developing fetus.Which of the following laboratory techniques is used to measure amniotic-fluid bilirubin levels? A)fluorometry B)spectrophotometry C)chromatography D)fluorescence polarization Q2) Physiological jaundice occurs in the newborn as a result of which of the following actions being slow to develop after birth? A)the ability of the liver to remove unconjugated bilirubin from the blood stream B)the ability of the liver to conjugate bilirubin C)the ability of the liver to excrete bilirubin D)all of the above Q3) The units for α-fetoprotein measurements are: A)mg/L B)μg/L C)mmol/L D)MoM To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 46
Chapter 45: The Newborn Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26506
Sample Questions Q1) Which laboratory test has been recognized as an early sensitive marker of sepsis in neonates? A)high-sensitivity C-reactive protein B)pro-calcitonin C)serum amyloid A protein D)hypoglycemia Q2) A newborn is 3 days old, weighs 6 pounds, and has failed to pass meconium.Which of the following tests should be performed and under what conditions? A)Immediately perform a sweat test for cystic fibrosis. B)Immediately perform a blood culture for infection. C)Perform a blood culture when the newborn is 10 days old. D)Perform a sweat test when the newborn is 14 days old and weighs 6.8 pounds. Q3) A postnatal rise in TRH induces a(n) ______ in blood TSH levels and a(n) ______ in blood T₄ levels as the fetus transitions from the in-utero environment to the postnatal delivery-room environment. A)increase, decrease B)increase, increase C)decrease, increase D)decrease, decrease To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47
Chapter 46: Extravascular Biological Fluids Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26507
Sample Questions Q1) The major distinguishing factor between transudates and exudates is the _________ content of the fluid. A)glucose B)protein C)lipid D)sodium Q2) Which of the following statements are true of transudates? 1)They are caused by inflammation. 2)They are caused by disturbances of hydrostatic pressure. 3)They are caused by disturbances of colloid osmotic pressure. 4)They are caused by increased capillary permeability. A)1, 2 B)2, 3 C)3, 4 D)1, 4 Q3) Which of the following is/are associated with inflammatory joint disease? A)decreased viscosity of synovial fluid B)presence of clots in synovial fluid C)increased number of neutrophils in synovial fluid D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48
Chapter 47: Nervous System Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26508
Sample Questions Q1) When blood is present from a traumatic lumbar puncture or there is bleeding within the CNS, how is the CSF protein level corrected for the amount of blood present? A)subtracting 1 mg/dL of protein for every 2000 RBCs per mm<sup>3</sup> B)subtracting 2 mg/dL of protein for every 1000 RBCs per mm<sup>3</sup> C)subtracting 1 mg/dL of protein for every 1000 RBCs per mm<sup>3</sup> D)subtracting 2 mg/dL of protein for every 2000 RBCs per mm<sup>3</sup> Q2) Which of the following compounds most readily enters the central nervous system? A)albumin B)calcium C)alcohol D)aspartic acid Q3) Which of the following laboratory tests would be selected to assess the integrity of the blood-brain barrier? A)CSF osmolality B)IgG index C)CSF lactic acid D)kappa to lambda light chain ratio To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 48: General Endocrinology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26509
Sample Questions Q1) The laboratory measurement of bioavailable testosterone includes measurement of: A)testosterone bound to circulating sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) B)testosterone that is free in the circulation C)testosterone that is bound to albumin in the circulation D)both b and c Q2) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the ______, and the anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the ______.The ______ is the lobe that releases trophic hormones. A)adenohypophysis, neurohypophysis, anterior B)neurohypophysis, adenohypophysis, anterior C)adenohypophysis, neurohypophysis, posterior D)neurohypophysis, adenohypophysis, posterior Q3) Which of the following are true of the second messenger signaling system? 1)This system requires the availability of energy in the form of ATP. 2)This system is utilized by steroid and peptide hormones. 3)An example of a second messenger is cyclic-AMP. A)1, 2, 3 B)1, 2 C)2, 3 D)1, 3 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 49: Thyroid Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26510
Sample Questions Q1) In primary hyperthyroidism, fT₄ will be ______, and TSH will be _____. A)increased, decreased B)increased, increased C)decreased, decreased D)decreased, increased Q2) Which of the following thyroid hormones normally peak at 24 to 36 hours post-delivery in a newborn and gradually fall over the first 4 weeks of life? A)total T₄ B)fT4 C)T₃ D)all of the above Q3) During pregnancy, serum TBG concentration ______, total thyroid hormone levels are ______, and free thyroid hormone levels are ______. A)increases, increased, unaffected B)is unaffected, increased, increased C)decreases, decreases, unaffected D)is unaffected, decreased, decreased To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 50: The Gonads Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26511
Sample Questions Q1) All patients with elevated _______________ in association with amenorrhea and/or galactorrhea require radiological imaging of the pituitary. A)FSH B)LH C)estradiol D)prolactin Q2) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) regulates which of the following? A)the synthesis and storage of gonadotropins B)movement of gonadotropins from a reserve pool ready for secretion C)immediate release of FSH and LH D)all of the above Q3) Which of the following series of laboratory results may be observed in an infertile man? A)normal LH, FSH, and testosterone B)elevated serum gonadotropins and a low testosterone level C)elevated FSH, normal LH, and low/normal testosterone D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 51: Adrenal Hormones and Hypertension Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26512
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following patients should undergo screening for Cushing's syndrome? A)a patient with osteoporosis B)a woman with polycystic ovary syndrome C)a patient with poorly controlled diabetes D)all of the above Q2) Which of the following patients could have a false-positive late-night salivary cortisol? 1)a patient with hypertension 2)a patient with advanced age 3)a patient with psychiatric problems A)1, 2, 3 B)1, 2 C)2, 3 D)1, 3 Q3) A patient with intermittent hypertension has an elevated urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA).This result suggests: A)hyperaldosteronism B)hypercortisolism C)idiopathic hypertension D)pheochromocytoma To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53
Chapter 52: Diseases of Genetic Origin Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26513
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is true of structural chromosomal abnormalities? 1)They are usually the result of aneuploidy. 2)They include translocations, deletions, inversions, and duplications. 3)They may be balanced or unbalanced. 4)They usually result from DNA damage due to exposure to radiation and toxic chemicals. A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 3 C)2, 3, 4 D)1, 3, 4 Q2) A patient with a1-antitrypsin deficiency would receive what treatment with the hopes of being cured? A)liver transplant B)bone marrow transplant C)hematopoietic stem cell transplant D)gene replacement therapy To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 53: Neoplasia Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26514
Sample Questions Q1) Which gene(s) has/have been identified as most likely to contribute to an inherited susceptibility to breast and ovarian cancer? A)BRCA1 B)BRCA2 C)BRCA3 D)both a and b Q2) Which of the following play a role in determining a cancer's ability to invade surrounding tissue? A)decreased motility of cells B)decreased pressure within the tumor caused by active multiplication of the cells C)decreased cohesiveness between cells D)all of the above Q3) The only tumor marker currently approved for screening of the general population is _________. A)PSA B)CEA C)PAP D)AFP To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Laboratory Evaluation of the Transplant Recipient Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26515
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is a standard test for posttransplantation cardiac allograft monitoring? A)myoglobin B)creatine kinase C)endomyocardial biopsy D)troponin T Q2) The detection of antibodies specific to the donor are most commonly tested at what intervals following transplant? 1)7 days 2)14 days 3)1 month 4)6 months A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 3 C)1, 3, 4 D)2, 3, 4 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 55: Toxicology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26516
Sample Questions Q1) Ginseng can cause toxicity in which of the following sites? A)heart B)liver C)kidney D)gastrointestinal tract Q2) Which of the following is considered part of pharmacokinetic parameters? 1)half-life 2)volume of distribution 3)clearance rates A)1, 2, 3 B)1, 2 C)1, 3 D)2, 3 Q3) Which of the following binds sulfhydryl groups of enzymes and proteins, uncouples oxidative phosphorylation, and can be found in urine, hair, nail, and blood samples? A)cadmium B)iron C)lead D)arsenic To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 57
Chapter 56: Addiction and Substance Abuse Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 18 Verified Questions 18 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26517
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is a type of change that occurs during withdrawal? A)physical B)psychological C)behavioral D)all of the above Q2) Which of the following are true of addiction? 1)It is a chronic deteriorating process. 2)Alcohol or other drug use by itself is addiction. 3)Abstinence from the addictive agent allows the mind and body to recover. A)1, 2, 3 B)1, 2 C)1, 3 D)2, 3 Q3) Which of the following situations could produce withdrawal symptoms? A)chronic regular use of narcotics for pain B)chronic regular use of sedatives for anxiety C)chronic regular use of sedatives for insomnia D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58