Diagnostic Laboratory Science Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Laboratory Science is an essential field that focuses on the principles, methods, and applications of laboratory testing in the diagnosis, monitoring, and management of diseases. This course covers topics such as specimen collection and processing, laboratory instrumentation, quality control, and safety practices. Students will explore various laboratory disciplines, including clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, and immunology, gaining an understanding of the roles each plays in patient care. Emphasis is placed on interpreting laboratory data, integrating laboratory results with clinical findings, and adhering to ethical and regulatory standards in laboratory practice. Through practical and theoretical learning, this course prepares students to contribute effectively to healthcare teams in clinical and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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393 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?
A) Bacteria
B) Foreign proteins
C) Virus
D) Antibody bound to antigen
Answer: D
Q2) What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: A
Q3) What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, a negative test would appear as:
A) a button of cells on the bottom of the well.
B) adherence of cells along the sides and bottom of the wells.
C) hemolysis of red cells.
D) a line of cells along the top of the well.
Answer: A
Q2) Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:
A) unsafe.
B) too low of potency to be effective.
C) polyclonal in specificity.
D) preferred because of their lower cost.
Answer: C
Q3) The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a:
A) problem with the card.
B) negative reaction.
C) strong positive reaction.
D) failure to wash correctly.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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Sample Questions
Q1) If two traits were found to occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. This would suggest that:
A) they are found far apart on the same chromosome.
B) they are inherited on different chromosomes.
C) crossover has occurred.
D) the genes are close together on the same chromosome.
Answer: D
Q2) Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus
A)Haplotypes
B)Recessive
C)Amorphic genes
D)Codominant genes
E)Polymorphic
Answer: E
Q3) Crossing over occurs during:
A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) somatic cell division.
D) zygote formation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q2) H antigen
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q3) According to Landsteiner's rule, what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum?
A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A,B
D) None
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6
Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testing for the weak D expression is performed by:
A) using anti-Du antisera with an extended incubation.
B) using monoclonal anti-D.
C) performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D.
D) performing the direct antiglobulin test with anti-D.
Q2) The inheritance of the Rh antigens are:
A) X-linked recessive.
B) X-linked dominant.
C) autosomal recessive.
D) codominant.
Q3) Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?
A) rr
B) R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C) R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D) R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
Q4) A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. The most likely genotype is:
A) R<sup>1</sup>r.
B) R<sup>1</sup>R<sup>1</sup>.
C) R<sup>1</sup>r'.
D) R<sup>1</sup>R<sup>0</sup>.
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) K1-positive donor red cells were mistakenly transfused to a recipient with anti-K. The patient's posttransfusion blood sample has a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin. The direct antiglobulin test is positive because anti-K is an __________ antibody that has sensitized the __________ cells in vivo.
A) IgG, donor's
B) IgM, donor's
C) IgG, recipient's
D) IgM, recipient's
Q2) The following statements regarding anti-P<sub>1</sub> are true except:
A) anti-P<sub>1</sub> will not react with enzyme-treated P<sub>1 </sub>positive red cells.
B) P<sub>2 </sub>individuals can make anti-P<sub>1.</sub>
C) anti-P<sub>1</sub> is clinically not significant.
D) anti-P<sub>1</sub> reacts best at room temperature.
Q3) Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies?
A) Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies
B) Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases
C) Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
D) Do not bind complement proteins
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?
A) M
B) N
C) I
D) Le<sup>b</sup>
Q2) Both screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+
A)Alloantibody, IgG
B)Alloantibody, IgM
C)Autoantibody, IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
Q3) All the following antigens are commonly found on screening cells except:
A) D.
B) k.
C) Kp<sup>a</sup>.
D) C.
Q4) An example of a cold alloantibody includes:
A) anti-M.
B) anti-I.
C) anti-Lu<sup>b</sup>.
D) anti-k.
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?
A) Immediate spin
B) 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C low-ionic strength solution
C) Indirect antiglobulin
D) None of them; unit is compatible
Q2) If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure?
A) Release group O, D-negative whole blood.
B) Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.
C) Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed.
D) Release ABO compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.
Q3) Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:
A) prevent antibody formation.
B) prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions.
C) maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells.
D) check ABO compatibility.
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?
A) A tattoo 5 months previously
B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously
Q2) How long must a donor wait to donate red blood cells again following a 2-unit red blood cell apheresis donation?
A) 56 days
B) 4 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 16 weeks
Q3) During the donor screening process, the potential donor's blood drop sinks to the bottom of the copper sulfate solution within 15 seconds. What is the interpretation of this test?
A) The hemoglobin is within limits; however, the hematocrit must be checked.
B) The donor has an acceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit to donate.
C) The donor is temporarily deferred.
D) The specific gravity of the copper sulfate is incorrect.
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11
Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the Western Blot test used in donor testing?
A) To confirm antibody-positive hepatitis C virus tests
B) To confirm positive serological test for syphilis
C) To confirm positive HIV antibody test results
D) To screen for human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II in blood donors
Q2) Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage?
A) Cryoprecipitated AHF
B) Red blood cells, frozen
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
Q3) When are surrogate marker tests useful?
A) When the required test is too expensive
B) When direct testing is not yet available
C) If the required test detects too many false-positive results
D) When the internal controls are not valid
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Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryoprecipitated AHF (frozen)
A)20° to 24° C, 4 hours
B)1° to 6° C, 24 hours
C)20° to 24° C, 6 hours
D)< -18° C, 1 year from collection
E)1° to 6° C, < 5 days
F)< -65° C, 7 years
G)20° to 24° C, 48 hours
Q2) Deglycerolized
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
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Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic reaction due to a known IgA antibody in a patient?
A) All red blood cell units should be irradiated.
B) Red blood cell units should be washed.
C) All blood components should be leukoreduced.
D) Patient should be given antihistamine before transfusion.
Q2) What organ of the recipient's body is involved in a transfusion-related acute lung injury transfusion reaction?
A) Heart
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Brain
Q3) Urticarial
A)Prevented by leukoreduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rh immune globulin contains:
A) IgG anti-D.
B) immune serum globulin.
C) IgM anti-D.
D) gamma globulin.
Q2) Select the situation where the administration of Rh immune globulin would be contraindicated. MOTHER NEWBORN
A) r"r; no antibody detected R<sub>o</sub>r; direct antiglobulin test (DAT) negative
B) Rr; no antibody detected R<sub>1</sub>r; DAT negative
C) Rr; anti-E detected R<sub>2</sub>r; DAT positive
D) r"r; anti-D detected R<sub>2</sub>r: DAT positive
Q3) Select the true statement regarding ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
A) It is frequently seen in group A mothers with group O infants.
B) It cannot occur during prima gravida (first pregnancy).
C) Bilirubin levels often exceed 15 mg/dL in the affected infants.
D) The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than:
A) 6 months old.
B) 5 months old.
C) 4 months old.
D) Crossmatching is always required.
Q2) Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia B?
A) Factor VIII concentrate
B) Factor XIII concentrate
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
Q3) Why do premature neonates require red blood cell transfusions?
A) Iatrogenic blood loss
B) Hemoglobin F is being changed to hemoglobin A
C) Insufficient erythropoiesis
D) All of the above
Q4) Common complications of chemotherapy include:
A) bleeding.
B) infection.
C) anemia.
D) all of the above.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:
A) it must be performed following training.
B) it must be performed on an annual basis.
C) it is required only if the technologist has no experience.
D) retraining is required if there is a failure in competency testing.
Q2) A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this acceptable procedure?
A) Yes; all results must be recorded regardless of who did the test.
B) No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention.
C) Yes; because she used the other technologist's initials.
D) Yes; as long as she records the result in pencil.
Q3) All of the following are responsibilities of the quality assurance department of a blood bank except:
A) performing internal audits.
B) performing quality control.
C) reviewing standard operating procedures.
D) reviewing and approving training programs.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point in the employment process should safety training take place?
A) During orientation and training
B) Following lab training when employees are more familiar with their responsibilities
C) Following the employees' first evaluation
D) Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter
Q2) Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
A)Corrosive
B)Corrosive and toxic
C)Toxic and flammable
D)Irritant and sensitizer
E)Toxic and irritant
F)Irritant and corrosive
G)Irritant
Q3) The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing gloves between donors.
A) True
B) False
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