Diagnostic Laboratory Science Exam Review
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Laboratory Science explores the fundamental principles and techniques used in clinical laboratories to identify, analyze, and monitor diseases. This course covers topics such as specimen collection and handling, laboratory safety, quality assurance, and the interpretation of laboratory results. Students gain hands-on experience with laboratory equipment and methods in areas like hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, and immunology, preparing them to play a vital role in patient care and medical decision-making through accurate diagnostic testing.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1251
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Optimal pH has not been determined for immunohematologic testing,but it is generally believed that testing should be performed within what pH range?
A)4.2-5.8
B)5.8-7.5
C)6.8-7.2
D)7.0-8.8
Answer: C
Q2) Adequate time is needed for antigen-antibody reactions to reach equilibrium.The amount of time needed for equilibrium to be reached
A)Is about 30 minutes
B)Is about 60 minutes
C)Is about 90 minutes
D)Varies with each procedure
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for the amino acid glutamine?
A)Gln
B)Glu
C)Gly
D)Gtm
Answer: A
Q2) The sex cells,either eggs or sperm,are ________ in humans,meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome rather than two.
A)complementary
B)haploid
C)homologous
D)linear
Answer: B
Q3) DNA is defined as
A)Deoxyribonucleic acid
B)Deoxyribonucleic alkali
C)Digoxin neural assessment
D)Diploid nucleotide analysis
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antihuman globulin technique is used to detect which isotype of antibody?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of IgG except
A)Demonstrates agglutination in antiglobulin tests
B)Has a plasma half-life of about 23 days
C)Has a valence of 10
D)Is able to cross the placenta
Answer: C
Q3) For tube testing,the most commonly used plasma-to-cell ratio is
A)One drop of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
B)One drop of plasma and two drops 5% suspension of red blood cells
C)Two drops of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
D)Two drops of plasma and two drops of 5% suspension of red blood cells
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common ABO blood group is group
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q2) Alloantibodies that cause problems in ABO typing include
A)anti-Jk
B)anti-P1
C)A lectin
D)A lectin
Q3) To confirm anti-A in a person who has not been recently transfused,type the patient/donor cells with
A)anti-A lectin
B)anti-A lectin
C)anti-B lectin
D)anti-O lectin
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about Rh proteins?
A)One amino acid is responsible for the difference between the C and c antigens.
B)RhD and RhCE proteins have the same composition except for 33-35 amino acids.
C)Rh proteins are nonglycosylated.
D)There is one carbohydrate molecule attached to the Rh proteins.
Q2) The absence of the D antigen occurs most commonly when the
A)RHCE gene is deleted
B)RHCE gene is present
C)RHD gene is deleted
D)RHD gene is present
Q3) When both c and e antigens are present on the red blood cell membrane and the respective genes are in the cis position or on the same chromosome,which antigen is expressed?
A)Ce
B)d
C)f
D)G
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding antigens in the Duffy system,all of the following statements are true except
A)Commonly encountered antigens include the allelic pair Fy and Fy .
B)Duffy antigens are well developed at birth.
C)Fy3 and Fy5 antigens are destroyed by treatment with ficin enzyme.
D)Fyx is a weak expression of the Fy antigen.
Q2) Which antigen is one of the antigens in the ISBT classification called Series 901?
A)Bga
B)Knb
C)Sda
D)Tcc
Q3) How many antigens are there in the Duffy blood group system?
A)3
B)6
C)8
D)9
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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allocating can be considered a separate process or it can be considered the ___ step in the crossmatch process.
A)Critical
B)First
C)Last
D)Second
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Downtime procedures are vital in a laboratory that performs electronic crossmatches.
B)Downtime procedures encompass back entry of results once the LIS is functioning again.
C)During downtime,antiglobulin crossmatch should be performed on all specimens if recipients requiring an antiglobulin crossmatch cannot be identified.
D)During downtime,immediate spin crossmatches will be rarely performed instead of electronic crossmatches.
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9
Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enhancement reagents are also called
A)Antigrams
B)Elutions
C)Potentiators
D)Titrations
Q2) The elution methods best suited for cold-reactive antibodies include all of the following except
A)Digitonin acid
B)Landsteiner and Wiener heat
C)Lui's freeze-thaw
D)Sonication
Q3) The chance of finding a ____ antibody screening cell is very small.
A)dCe/dCe
B)C/e/E/e
C)cis-AB
D)DCe/dce
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which document was developed to ensure that the donor gets a consistent message and that the questions asked are thorough and meet AABB Standards as well as FDA regulations?
A)DDD
B)DDR
C)DHQ
D)DHR
Q2) What is the most common type of reaction in blood donors?
A)Varicose
B)Variolar
C)Vasospasm
D)Vasovagal
Q3) The minimum hemoglobin level for an allogeneic whole blood donation is
A)10.5 g/dL (105 g/L)
B)12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
C)13.3 g/dL (133 g/L)
D)13.6 g/dL (136 g/L)
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which country is the platelet-rich plasma method mostly widely used?
A)Brazil
B)Canada
C)United Kingdom
D)United States
Q2) For irradiated red blood cells,what is the storage temperature and expiry period?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 4 hours
B)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)for up to 4 hours
C)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 24 hours or to the original component expiry date
D)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 28 days or to the original component expiry date
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about granulocyte component production?
A)A whole blood unit generally yields 5 × 106 granulocytes.
B)Apheresis collection is used more often than whole blood separation.
C)Granulocyte units are stored at 68-75.2° F (20-24° C)for up to 5 days.
D)Hydroxyethel starch is added and then the blood is centrifuged.
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do the majority of hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs)reside?
A)bone marrow
B)lymphatic system
C)peripheral circulation
D)striated muscle
Q2) All the following are true about RhIg except
A)Can be used in some cases as an alternative to IVIG
B)Contributes to fluid balance both within the blood vessels and throughout the body
C)Is administered to prevent immunization to the D antigen
D)Is often administered intramuscularly when given in the perinatal or postnatal period
Q3) Whole blood transfusion achieves all of the following except
A)Improved cellular immune function
B)Improved tissue oxygenation
C)Replacement of fluid
D)Replacement of nonlabile coagulation factors
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13
Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients at a greater risk for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)include all the following except
A)Fetuses
B)Older adults
C)Patients with Hodgkin's disease
D)Hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipients
Q2) Initial laboratory investigation of a suspected transfusion reaction includes all of the following except
A)ABO testing of post-transfusion blood specimen
B)Clerical check of label and tags on transfused component
C)Direct antiglobulin test on post-transfusion blood specimen
D)Inspection for visible hemolysis in pretransfusion urine specimen
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of delayed hemolytic reactions?
A)Are associated with complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis.
B)Are associated with extravascular hemolysis.
C)Are the most common reactions to occur during blood transfusion.
D)Occur immediately after exposure to a transfused component.
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common of all the hepatitis viruses?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q2) Leukoreduction can reduce the risk of which transfusion-associated virus?
A)CMV (cytomegalovirus)
B)HBV (hepatitis B virus)
C)HCV (hepatitis C virus)
D)HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
Q3) Which disease is associated with a parasite that can be potentially transmitted by blood transfusion?
A)Cruetzfeld-Jakob disease
B)Lyme disease
C)Malaria
D)Syphilis
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to delivery of a live infant?
A)Gravid
B)Gravida
C)Para
D)Peri
Q2) The normal range for hemoglobin level in a healthy,full-term newborn is approximately
A)10.0-12.0 g/dL (100-120 g/L)
B)14.0-20.0 g/dL (140-200 g/L)
C)20.0-25.0 g/dL (200-250 g/L)
D)23.0-32.0 g/dL (230-320 g/L)
Q3) How does phototherapy reduce the blood bilirubin level?
A)Conjugates bilirubin in the liver to a form that can be excreted in the urine
B)Conjugates bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted in the bile
C)Converts unconjugated bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted by the lungs
D)Converts unconjugated bilirubin in the skin to a form that can be excreted in the urine
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic
Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes alloadsorption?
A)Removal of antibody from plasma by incubation with donor or reagent red blood cells with specific phenotypes
B)Removal of autoantibody from plasma by incubation with the patient's own red blood cells
C)Removal of antibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with chloroquine
D)Removal of autoantibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with glycine
Q2) Which of the following is the most common autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)DAT-negative autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Mixed autoimmune hemolytic anemia (MAIHA)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q3) Typical antihuman globulin reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)may be directed against all of the following except
A)IgG only
B)IgM only
C)C3b and C3d
D)IgG,C3b,and C3d
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Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfusion of which blood component is most often associated with post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?
A)Plasma
B)Platelets
C)Red blood cells
D)White blood cells (granulocytes)
Q2) Platelet counts should ideally be tested how long after a platelet transfusion?
A)10-15 minutes and 12-14 hours
B)15-30 minutes and 18-20 hours
C)15-60 minutes and 20-24 hours
D)1 hour,24 hours,and 48 hours
Q3) An advantage of platelet crossmatching is
A)the immediate availability of compatible units
B)the fact that it decreases the overall transfusion time
C)that platelets have a shelf-life of 5 days
D)that crossmatched platelets perform better than high-grade HLA-matched products
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A kidney from a donor typed as which ABO group is less likely to be rejected if transplanted into a group O patient?
A)A
B)A
C)AB
D)B
Q2) Sickle cells that occlude blood vessels cause all of the following except
A)Iron overload
B)Organ damage
C)Stroke
D)Tissue ischemia
Q3) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods is typically used to crossmatch a recipient's serum with donor lymphocytes?
A)Flow cytometry
B)Sequence-specific primer typing
C)Signal transduction
D)Solid phase assay
Q2) All of the following describe the adaptive immune system except
A)Also known as the natural immune system
B)Consists of antigen presenting cells
C)Displays an anamnestic response
D)Is involved in allograft rejection
Q3) Which HLA class of molecules is used in solid phase assays?
A)Class I only
B)Class II only
C)Class III only
D)Class I or II
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is typically referred to as the parentage index?
A)DR
B)LI
C)LR
D)PEx
Q2) The likelihood ratio compares which two hypotheses?
A)Probability that the alleged parent is not the true parent of the child and probability that a random person is the true parent of the child
B)Probability that the alleged parent is excluded as the true parent of the child and probability that the known parent is the true parent of the child
C)Probability that the alleged parent is the true parent of the child and probability that a random person is the true parent of the child
D)Probability that the known parent is the true parent of the child and probability that the alleged parent is the true parent of the child
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Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization represents one of the most common voluntary accreditations that apply to medical laboratories?
A)American Association of Bioanalysts
B)American Medical Technologists
C)Board of Certification of the American Society of Clinical Pathologists
D)College of American Pathologists
Q2) Under which class of medical devices would reagents for diagnostic tests for HIV,HCV,and HBV fall?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
Q3) Which code of federal regulations contains the rules for blood product safety?
A)CFR title 10
B)CFR title 21
C)CFR title 29
D)CFR title 42
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22
Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulation grants the authority to stop production of blood products in a blood manufacturing organization when a problem is detected to which group of people?
A)Executive members
B)Leadership administrators
C)Production managers
D)Quality assurance unit
Q2) Which type of audit is particularly effective in spotting errors that may be overlooked by routine record review?
A)External
B)Process
C)Product
D)Self
Q3) Which of the following is a program designed to ensure that laboratorians have mastered the skills and tasks related to processing,performing,and interpreting accurate laboratory tests?
A)CLIA
B)CMS
C)PT
D)QC
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Page 23