Diagnostic Laboratory Medicine
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Laboratory Medicine explores the principles, techniques, and applications of laboratory testing in the diagnosis and management of diseases. The course covers a wide range of laboratory disciplines, including clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn about specimen collection and processing, quality control, interpretation of laboratory results, and the integration of diagnostic data into clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on the role of laboratory medicine in patient care, the importance of laboratory safety and ethics, and recent advances in laboratory technology.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the confidence interval for most laboratories is 95.5%, what is the acceptable range for hemoglobin if a hemoglobin control was run with a mean of 12.5 and a standard deviation of 1.0?
A) 9.5 to 12.5
B) 10.5 to 14.5
C) 11.5 to 15.5
D) 10.0 to 13.5
Answer: B
Q2) When handwashing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 30 seconds
Answer: B
Q3) Label the parts of the microscope.
Answer: 1. Objectives2. Stage3. Eye piece4. Base5. Light source6. Iris diaphragm7. Course adjustment knob8. Fine adjustment knob9. Stage adjustment knobs10. Clips11. Substage condenser 11ea8f8c_a35f_cfdc_b491_39c0cc95f0f6_TB3286_00
Page 3
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Erythropoietin is produced by the:
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Thymus gland
Answer: A
Q3) What is the average M:E ratio for normal adult bone marrow?
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 1:4
D) 6:1
Answer: B
Q4) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell is:
A) Spectrin
B) Glycophorin
C) Glycine
D) EPO
Answer: A
Q2) The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by a/an:
A) Red cell count
B) Reticulocyte count
C) M:E ratio
D) Hemoglobin determination
Answer: B
Q3) One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is:
A) Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation
B) Granules in the cytoplasm
C) A round nucleus
D) An increase in size as the cell matures
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an embryonic hemoglobin?
A) Hgb Portland
B) Hgb F
C) Hgb Gowers I
D) Hgb Gowers II
Q2) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many genes are responsible for the productions of alpha chains?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) Fetal hemoglobin consists of which of the following chains?
A) \(\alpha\)2\(\beta\)2
B) \(\alpha\)2\(\gamma\)2
C) \(\alpha\)2\(\sigma\)2
D) \(\alpha\)2\(\varepsilon\)2
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary storage forms of iron are:
A) Ferritin and hemosiderin
B) Ferritin and transferrin
C) Hemosiderin and ferrous iron
D) Heme and ferritin
Q2) Failure to thrive, facial structure abnormalities, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are signs of which of the following disorders?
A) Thalassemia minor
B) Alpha thalassemia trait
C) Thalassemia major
D) Thalassemia intermedia
Q3) Which inclusion is associated with a "pitted," golf ball appearance?
A) Hgb H inclusion
B) Howell-Jolly body
C) Cabot rings
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell pictured above may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Q2) The MCV in pernicious anemia will be in the range of:
A) 70 to 80 fL
B) 85 to 95 fL
C) 110 to 120 fL
D) 90 to 98 fL
Q3) One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
A) Tropical sprue
B) Intrinsic factor deficiency
C) IDA
D) Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
Q4) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with Fanconi's anemia characteristically will have:
A) Intravascular hemolysis
B) Increased Hgb F
C) Ringed sideroblastics
D) Thrombocytosis
Q2) Spherocytes may enter the circulation via a variety of mechanisms.To distinguish the CBC of a patient with hereditary spherocytosis from the CBC of a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, one could use the:
A) MCHC
B) Hematocrit
C) MCH
D) MCV
Q3) The inclusions pictured below are seen with supravital staining only.These inclusions are most likely:
A) Heinz bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Due to stain contamination
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Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Painful swelling of hands and feet caused by sickle cells in the microcirculation of sickle cells infants is termed:
A) Dactylitis
B) Necrosis
C) Apoptosis
D) Fibrosis
Q2) The lungs are particularly susceptible in individuals with sickle cell disease and may be involved in:
A) COPD
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Aplastic crisis
D) Cardiac crisis
Q3) A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to:
A) Untreated leg ulcers
B) High blood viscosity
C) Increased Hgb F levels
D) Hemolytic crisis
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are ___ maturation stages in the neutrophil.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) six
Q2) One of the primary glands responsible for lymphocyte origination in the infant is the:
A) Thymus gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Thyroid gland
D) Pituitary gland
Q3) All of the following are features of the lymphatic system except:
A) Stimulation of the kidney by EPO
B) Blood filtration
C) Antibody generation
D) Lymphopoiesis
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the EBV virus, which infects B lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which white cell disorder will you see gray-green cytoplasmic granules in the neutrophils?
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) Alder's anomaly
C) Pelger-Huët anomaly
D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
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12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is:
A) CD1
B) CD7
C) CD10
D) CD41
Q2) The WBC count is 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L, with 89% blasts, 7% segs, and 4% monos.The blasts are relatively large and have abundant cytoplasm.More than 90% of them are positive with the NSE stain, and an occasional blast is positive with Sudan Black B.What is the possible diagnosis?
A) AML, type M1
B) AML, type M3
C) AML, type M4
D) AML, type M5
Q3) Greater than __of bone marrow cells must be identified as lymphoblasts to meet the WHO definition of ALL.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tyrosine kinase is an important mediator in leukocyte metabolic pathways because it suppresses:
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis
D) Apoptosis
Q2) The JAK2 chromosomal mutation is associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
Q3) A term describing a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left accompanied by occasional nucleated red cells and platelet abnormalities is:
A) Dysplasia
B) Leukoerythroblastic
C) Megaloblastoid
D) Leukemoid
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reed Sternberg cells are associated with:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) CLL
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
Q2) The phenomenon pictured above is known as rouleaux and is frequently associated with:
A) An increased red cell count
B) A decreased MCV and MCHC
C) An elevated ESR
D) All of the above
Q3) Hypogammaglobulinemia is a significant feature in half of patients with CLL.This complication can lead to:
A) Refractory anemia
B) Essential thrombocytosis
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The morphological classification of anemia in the myelodysplastic syndromes is:
A) Normocytic, normochromic
B) Microcytic, hypochromic
C) Macrocytic, normochromic
D) Microcytic, normochromic
Q2) The cell at the tip of the pointer is a:
A) Hairy cell
B) Basket cell
C) Degenerating lymphocyte
D) Giant platelet
Q3) Typically, patients with MDS will exhibit partial or complete absence of:
A) Chromosomes 5 and 7
B) Chromosomes 8 and 12
C) The Y chromosome
D) Dysplasia
Q4) The FAB classification of the MDSs include CML.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two inhibitors that keep the activation of coagulation under control are:
A) TFPI and thrombomodulin
B) Protein C and protein S
C) Protease inhibitors and the protein C pathway
D) Alpha 2 macroglobulin and alpha 1 antitrypsin
Q2) The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors include:
A) Factors I, V, VII, XIII
B) Factors II, VII, IX, X
C) Factors III, VIII, IX, X
D) Factors XI and XII
Q3) Factor IV
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
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17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions may result in thrombocytosis?
A) Polycythemia vera (PCV)
B) Acute leukemia
C) Sickle cell disease
D) TTP
Q2) A coagulation disorder commonly associated with umbilicus bleeding and post-circumcision bleeding is known as:
A) von Willebrand's disease
B) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Q3) Platelets from patients with these two disorders will not aggregate with ristocetin.
A) Glanzmann's syndrome and von Willebrand's
B) Glanzmann's syndrome and Chediak-Higashi
C) HUS and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D) von Willebrand's disease and Bernard-Soulier
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clotting factors must be present at a minimum of which percentage for hemostasis to be achieved?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:
A) Factor V
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
Q3) Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of:
A) Factor IV
B) Factor V
C) The prothrombin molecule
D) Hemophilia A
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19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prothrombin can only be converted to thrombin by the action of factor X, factor V, platelet factor 3, and:
A) Factor II
B) Fibrinogen
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
Q2) A primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system is:
A) Alpha 2 antiplasmin
B) Alpha 2 macroglobulin
C) Antithrombin
D) Protein C
Q3) D-dimers may be elevated in which of the following?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common tests used to detect Lupus anticoagulants include all of the following except:
A) aPTT
B) Kaolin clotting time
C) PT/INR
D) Dilute Russell viper venom test
Q2) Heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3
B) Inhibits thrombin
C) Degrades antithrombin
D) Complexes with protein C
Q3) Coumadin acts in such a way that it:
A) Alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
B) Reduces the circulating level of factors III and V
C) Reduces the circulating level of factor I
D) Cleaves carboxyreductase to generate glutamic acid
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